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NYCC Microbiology > Final Review (9-12) > Flashcards

Final Review (9-12) Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

In microbiology, what is considered an upper respiratory tract infection?

A

Above the trachea (larynx, pharynx, mouth)

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2
Q

In microbiology, what is considered a lower respiratory infection?

A

Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

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3
Q

What is the most important part of the respiratory tract systems defensives?

A

Mucociliary escalator

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4
Q

What is the technical name for a strep throat?

A

Pharyngitis

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5
Q

What is the name for an inner ear infection?

A

Otitis media

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6
Q

Mastoiditis is a potential complication of what condition?

A

Otitis media

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7
Q

What are possible complications if otitis media is left untreated?

A

Mastoiditis, Petrositis, or Labyrinthitis

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8
Q

What is a common complication of untreated sinus blockage?

A

Sinusitis

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9
Q

What is halitosis?

A

Bad breath

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10
Q

What is a reduced ability to smell called?

A

Hyposmia

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11
Q

What is the etiologic agent of Pharyngitis?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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12
Q

What is the etiologic agent of Diptheria?

A

Corynebacterium diptheraie

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13
Q

How many types of Parainfluenza Virus (HPIV) can infection humans?

A

2 types

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14
Q

What is the common name for a Mycoplasmal Pneumonia infection?

A

Walking Pneumonia

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15
Q

What is the chief complain of Walking Pneumonia?

A

Persistent, nagging, unproductive coughing

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16
Q

What are some of the signs and symptoms of Tuberculosis?

A

Fever, weight loss, SOB, hacking cough, hemoptysis (blood in cough), night sweats

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17
Q

What are the three antibiotics included in the treatment for Tuberculosis?

A

Pyrazinamide, Rifampicin, Isoniazid

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18
Q

What are the possible diagnosis tests of Tuberculosis?

A

PPD, Mantoux or Tine

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19
Q

What is the term for a calcified tubercle found in X-ray of the lungs?

A

Ghon complex

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20
Q

What structure gets affected when you have a Pertussis infection?

A

Ciliated bronchial epithelium

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21
Q

What disease may present with subconjunctival bleeding in not treated?

A

Pertussis

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22
Q

What is the etiologic agent of Q fever?

A

Coxiella burnetii

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23
Q

What type of bacteria grows in the placenta of infected animals?

A

Coxiella burnetii

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24
Q

What is the common name for a Psittacosis infection?

A

Parrot fever

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25
Q

What is the etiologic agent of Parrot fever?

A

Chlamydia psittaci

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26
Q

what is the order of the three stages of pertussis?

A

Prodromal, Catarrhal, Paroxysmal, Convalescence

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27
Q

What serotype of influenza is responsible for all flu pandemics?

A

Serotype A
(bolded in notes)

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28
Q

How long does it take for respiratory epithelium to be restored from influenza?

A

2-10 weeks

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29
Q

What type of infections has the appearance of coiled macrophages?

A

Legionella pnemophila

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30
Q

Croup cough is the common name for what infection?

A

Parainfluenza

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31
Q

Where in the cells does a parainfluenza virus replicate?

A

cytoplasm

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32
Q

Hypercapnia is a symptom associated with what disease?

A

RSV

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33
Q

What is the term for elevated CO2 levels?

A

Hypercapnia

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34
Q

What fungal disease is most commonly associated with AIDS patients?

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia

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35
Q

Early in the AIDS epidemic, what infection was the only indicator signifying infection with HIV?

A

Pneumocystis

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36
Q

What population most likely gets Blastomycosis?

A

Hunters (men between 20-40)

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37
Q

psittacosis is commonly known as ____

A

parrot fever

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38
Q

mastoiditis is a potential complication of ____

A

otitis media

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39
Q

what respiratory infection may present with subconjunctival bleeding?

A

pertussis (whooping cough)

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40
Q

respiratory syncytial virus (does/does not) present with a cough

A

does NOT

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41
Q

the associated mortality rate of untreated aspergillosis is ____

A

100%

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42
Q

what feature of the pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is destroyed in pertussis (whooping cough)?

A

cilia

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43
Q

the test that is used to determine prion infections is the ____

A

ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)

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44
Q

a severe complication of untreated otitis media is ____

A

mastoiditis

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45
Q

where does the lower respiratory tract begin from a microbiological perspective?

A

trachea

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46
Q

coccidiomycosis is also known as ____

A

valley fever

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47
Q

early in the AIDS epidemic, infection with ____ was the only indicator signifying infection with HIV

A

pneumocytis

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48
Q

what are reasons for the increase in TB?

A
  • co-infection with HIV/AIDS
  • increased immigration of infected persons
  • increased number of institutionalized elderly
    (all of the above)
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49
Q

which nations have more cases of avian influenza in birds?

A

poorer nations

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50
Q

bacterial sinusitis is commonly misdiagnosed as ____

A

allergic rhinitis

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51
Q

the expected mortality rate of uncomplicated influenza is ____

A

0.1-2.5%

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52
Q

ghon (is/is not) a test for TB

A

is NOT
(PPD skin test, chest film, sputum sample w acid-fast staining, biopsy)

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53
Q

which virus is known in the US as sin nombre?

A

Hanta

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54
Q

walking pneumonia is the name given to an infection caused by ____

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

55
Q

hypercapnia is associated with ____ and is an ____ level of ____

A

RSV
elevated
CO2

56
Q

the reservoir for influenza is ____

A

aquatic birds

57
Q

the most common normal flora to cause infection in both the upper and lower respiratory tract is ____

A

staphylococcus

58
Q

croup is also known as ____

A

parainfluenza

59
Q

what is the correct order of pertussis?

A
  • prodromal
  • catarrhal
  • paroxysmal
  • covalescence
60
Q

what disease may present with a pseudomembrane composed of bacteria fibrin and cell debris?

A

diphtheria

61
Q

“oriental sore” is the common name for the disease ____

A

Leishmaniasis

62
Q

severe immunosuppression in children is a complication of ____

A

Rubeola (measles)

63
Q

which types of hepatitis are associated with the development of hepatocellular carcinoma

A

hepatitis B & C
(this is from lecture 12 but I don’t trust that woman)

64
Q

the vector for spread of pneumonic plague is ____

A

human

65
Q

a skin disease associated with children and poor hygiene is ____

A

impetigo

66
Q

the oral disease ____ is potentially reversible

A

gingivitis
(also lecture 12 but I really don’t trust her)

67
Q

a palpable lesion containing clear fluid is a ____

A

vesicle

68
Q

name 3 factors that contribute to food poisoning

A
  • failing to cook thoroughly
  • allowing food to “sit” at room temp or warmer
  • improper storage conditions

(Lecture 12, you get the point)

69
Q

african sleeping sickness is fatal because it infects the ____

A

brain

70
Q

the most common etiologic agent of Traveler’s Diarrhea is ____

A

escherichia coli

(Lecture 12)

71
Q

Loaiasis is an infection of the eye caused by a ____

A

worm

72
Q

what is the inactivated poliovirus vaccine?

A

Salk
(Lecture 12)

73
Q

what is of significant concern to pregnant women because of the damage to the fetus?

A

Listeria

(Lecture 12)

74
Q

“Rabbit Fever” is the disease ____

A

tularemia

75
Q

the blackened papule produced in woolsorter’s disease is a(n) ____

A

eschar

76
Q

scalded skin syndrome is caused by ____ toxins produced by ____

A

exfoliative, staphylococcus

77
Q

“rice water stools” are associated with ____

A

cholera

(Lecture 12)

78
Q

“Pink eye” is the common name for the disease ____

A

conjunctivitis

79
Q

infection of the veins is known as ____

A

thrombophlebitis

80
Q

the skin disease that sounds like “Rice Crispies” cereal after the addition of milk is ____

A

gas gangrene

81
Q

“Sin Nombre” virus is spread via ____

A

inhalation of dried rodent urine & feces

82
Q

“Flesh-eating bug” is the common name for ____

A

necrotizing fasciitis

83
Q

Salmonella can be transmitted by ____

A

exotic pets such as reptiles
(Lecture 12)

84
Q

the incubation time from ingestion until signs and symptoms is shortest in ____

A

intoxication
(Lecture 12, bolded in notes)

85
Q

the vector for transmission of bubonic plague is ____

A

flea

86
Q

rotavirus infections are dangerous in infants and toddlers because of…

A

rapid dehydration
(Lecture 12)

87
Q

the most virulent bacterial infection ever known to man is ____

A

plague

88
Q

this arbovirus is also known as “breakbone fever”

A

dengue

89
Q

Gullain-Bare syndrome has been associated with infection by ____

A

campylobacter jejuni
(Lecture 12, bolded in notes)

90
Q

the most prevalent rickettsial disease in the US is ____

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

91
Q

South American Sleeping Sickness is spread via the bite of the ____

A

kissing bug

92
Q

candidiasis of the skin in babies is known as ____

A

diaper rash

93
Q

Varicella-Zoster refers to the viral illness of ____ and ____

A

chicken pox, shingles

94
Q

what are the insect vectors in relapsing fever?

A

Tick, louse

95
Q

in rocky mountain spotted fever, the rash begins on the ____ and moves towards ____

A

extremities, torso

96
Q

the most common normal flora to cause infection in both the upper and lower respiratory tract is ____

A

streptococcus

97
Q

a predisposing cause of gastric adenocarcinoma is infection with ____

A

helicobacter pylori
(Lecture 12)

98
Q

the vector associated with Ebola is ____

A

unknown

99
Q

EHEC is the acronym for ____

A

escherichia coli, which produces shiga toxin
(Lecture 12, bolded in notes)

100
Q

the joint predominantly affected by chronic Lyme Disease is ____

A

knee

101
Q

warts are caused by ____

A

HPV

102
Q

the leading eye infection in underdeveloped nations contracted via ____

A

vaginal birth

103
Q

african sleeping sickness is spreading by the bile of the ____

A

tsetse fly

104
Q

infection of the valves of the heart is known as ____

A

endocarditis

105
Q

which of the hepatitis viruses confers life-long immunity?

A

hepatitis A
(Lecture 12)

106
Q

the etiologic agent of lyme disease is ____

A

borrelia

107
Q

the annual influenza season is an example of ____

A

antigenic drift
(bolded in virology lecture)

108
Q

the most common method of contracting undulant fever in the US is consumption of ____

A

unpasteurized dairy produces

109
Q

“hot tub” folliculitis is caused by ____

A

pseudomonas

110
Q

the most serious and extensive form of acne is ____

A

nodular cystic

111
Q

the most common treatment for the removal of warts is ____

A

cautery with cryotherapy

112
Q

the most common vector in the arboviruses is the ____

A

mosquito

113
Q

an endogenous infection of the digestive tract is caused by…

A

normal flora
(Lecture 12)

114
Q

____ accounts for 90% of nosocomial gastrointestinal infections

A

clostridium difficile
(Lecture 12)

115
Q

varicella is caused by ____

A

HHV3

116
Q

the virus that causes severe neurological complications in developing fetuses is ____

A

rubella
(bolded in notes)

117
Q

blistering of the urogenital mucosa is predominantly caused by ____

A

human herpesvirus 2

118
Q

hemolytic syndrome is associated with ____

A

escherichia coli, which produces shiga toxin
(Lecture 12)

119
Q

what digestive virus demonstrates a seasonal infection pattern?

A

enterovirus
(Lecture 12)

120
Q

what is the most common form of poliomyelitis?

A

paralytic
(Lecture 12)

121
Q

the parasitic disease Filariasis is caused by either ____ or ____

A

Wuchereria; Brugia

122
Q

a localized region of pus with extensive inflammation is a ____

A

furuncle

123
Q

erythema migrans is ____

A

bulls eye rash

124
Q

the secondary reservoir in lyme disease is ____

A

deer

125
Q

the leading eye infection in undeveloped nations is caused by ____

A

chlamydia trachomatis

126
Q

tularemia may manifest as…

A

ulceroglandular
typhoidal
oculoglandular

127
Q

fever blisters on the oral mucosa are predominantly caused by ____

A

human herpesvirus 1

128
Q

undulent fever is also known as ____

A

brucellosis

129
Q

the primary reservoir in lyme disease is ____

A

ticks

130
Q

tooth health is directly associated with ____ health

A

heart
(Lecture 12)

131
Q

the most common cause of bacterial endocarditis is ____

A

streptococcus

132
Q

south american trypanosomiasis is called ____

A

Chagas’ disease

133
Q

rotavirus outbreaks are common in ____

A

infants and toddlers
(Lecture 12)

134
Q

epidemic gastrointestinal infections are [related to]…

A

public health failures
(Lecture 12)

NYCC Microbiology (17 decks)

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