Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NYCC Microbiology > 9 Diseases of the Respiratory System > Flashcards

9 Diseases of the Respiratory System Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

name 3 features of innate defenses of the respiratory system

A
  • mucociliary escalator (traps debris & moves out)
  • alveolar macrophages (dust cells) most important
  • mm of chest wall & diaphragm (coughing & clearing)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

name 4 examples of bacterial infections of the respiratory system

A
  • otitis media
  • pharyngitis (strep throat)
  • scarlet fever
  • diphtheria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

otitis media can be ____ or ____

A

viral or bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when is otitis media most common?

A

between ages 3mo to 3yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

name 3 etiologic agents of otitis media

A
  • streptococcus pneumoniae
  • staphylococcus aureus
  • haemophilus influenzae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

otitis media may be spread locally, resulting in…

A
  • acute petrositis (infection of temporal bone)
  • labrynthitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

intracranial spread of otitis media may cause…

A
  • meningitis (most common)
  • brain abscess
  • subdural empyema
  • epidural abscess
  • lateral sinus thrombosis
  • otitic hydrocephalus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

symptoms of mastoiditis

A
  • abscess forms in the bone, skin covering can become swollen, red, tender
  • fever
  • pain around & within ear (persistent & throbbing)
  • creamy, profuse discharge from ear
  • hearing loss can become progressively worse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

signs & symptoms of sinusitis

A
  • pain & tenderness
  • congestion & obstruction of nose
  • reduced ability to smell (hyposmia)
  • bad breath (halitosis)
  • productive cough (especially at night)
  • swelling over affected sinus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what causes sinusitis?

A

usually a bacterial super-infection after sinus drainage has been compromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

pharyngitis is classically known as the infection ____

A

strep throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

etiologic agent of pharygitis

A

streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

signs & symptoms of pharyngitis

A
  • can cause abscesses on tonsils
  • can cause complications of scarlet fever, toxic shock syndrome, rheumatic fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

scarlet fever is caused by…

A

group A streptococci: streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

in what population is scarlet fever commonly seen?

A

children under 18yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

pathogenesis of scarlet fever

A
  • symptoms begin w/ rash: tiny bumps on chest & abdomen, more red in armpits & groin, lasts 2-5 days
  • very sore throat w/ white or yellow papules
  • fever of 38.3*C (100.9 F)
  • lymphadenopathy
  • headache, body aches, nausea
  • tongue coated w/ bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

etiologic agent of diphtheria

A

corynebacterium diphtheraie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

diphtheria is a more localized type of the infection ____

A

severe pharyngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

diphtheria may be accompanied by…

A

pseudomembrane in throat composed of fibrin, leukocytes, cell debris, dead bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how is diphtheria transmitted?

A
  • droplet aerosol
  • direct contact w/ colonized skin
  • fomites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

diphtheria produces the toxin ____

A

myocarditis (targets the heart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

diphtheria may involve…

A
  • multiple organ systems
  • skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

describe diphtheria of the skin

A

simple pustules to non-healing ulcerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

name 2 examples of viral infections of the upper respiratory system

A
  • rhinovirus (common head cold)
  • parainfluenza (types 1 & 3)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

describe the serotypes of rhinovirus

A
  • several hundred exist, <50% have been characterized
  • 50% are picoronaviruses (smallest & simplest)
  • single-stranded RNA
  • major cause of mild upper respiratory tract infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

describe the pathogenesis of rhinoviruses

A
  • infection seen throughout the year (epidemic in spring & early fall)
  • incubation period: 2-3 days
  • acute symptoms: 3-7 days
  • mild infection w/ little damage to body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how many types of parainfluenza virus (HPIV) exist, and which are the most important?

A
  • 4 types
  • types 1 & 3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

parainfluenza viruses belong to what group?

A

paramyxovirus group
- single stranded RNA virus
- contains hemagluttinin & neuraminidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

parainfluenza virus is a serious problem in what population?

A

infants & small children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

compare parainfluenza vs influenza

A
  • parainfluenza virus replicates in cytoplasm; influenza replicates in nucleus
  • parainfluenza virus is more stable than influenza (very little mutation, little antigenic shift, no antigenic drift)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

pathogenesis of parainfluenza infection of upper respiratory tract

A
  • fever
  • runny nose (rhinorrhea)
  • cough
  • sore throat
  • sneezing
  • wheezing
  • ear pain
  • decreased appetite
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

pathogenesis of parainfluenza infection of lower respiratory tract

A
  • croup (infection of larynx, trachea, bronchi)
  • bronchitis
  • bronchiolitis
  • pneumonia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

HPIV1 is also known as ____

A

sendai virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

compare the effects of HPIV1 and HPIV3

A

HPIV1:
- major cause of croup in infants & young children
- causes severe pharyngitis & tracheobronchitis

HPIV3:
- major cause of severe lower respiratory infection in infants & young children
- causes bronchitis & pneumonia in children <1yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

compare HPIV1 & 3 in terms of when they occur

A

HPIV1: outbreaks usually in fall
HPIV3:
- 50% of all children exposed within 1st yr of life
- infections occur throughout the year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

name 8 examples of bacterial infections of the lower respiratory tract

A
  • bacterial pneumonia
  • mycoplasmal pneumonia
  • TB
  • pertussis
  • inhalation anthrax
  • legionnaire’s disease
  • Q fever
  • psittacosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

bacterial pneumonia may be caused by…

A

a variety of organisms
(one of most serious infections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

name 5 high risk groups for community acquired pneumonia

A
  • elderly
  • children <2yrs
  • african-americans
  • native americans
  • alaska natives
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

signs & symptoms of pneumococcal pneumonia

A
  • fever >39*C (102.2 F)
  • chest pain
  • purulent sputum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the etiologic agent of pneumococcal pneumonia?

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the etiologic agent of mycoplasmal pneumonia?

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

describe the etiology of mycoplasmal pneumonia

A
  • mild form of pneumonia
  • accounts for 10% of all pneumonias
  • “walking pneumonia”
  • most common between 5-15yrs
  • found in temporal climates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

pathogenesis of mycoplasmal pneumonia

A
  • incubation period: 2-15 days
  • insidious onset: fever, headache, malaise
  • infection affects trachea, bronchi, bronchioles
  • may extend to alveoli
  • organisms shed in upper respiratory secretions: 2-8 days before symptoms; 14wks post-infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

signs & symptoms of mycoplasmal pneumonia

A
  • mild tracheobronchitis
  • sore throat
  • otitis media
  • persistent, nagging, unproductive cough
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

describe the etiology of pulmonary tuberculosis

A
  • ~2 billion people infected globally
  • HIV/AIDS has significant impact
  • poverty & poor living conditons
  • drug resistance due to non-compliance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

signs & symptoms of tuberculosis

A

initial symptoms similar to other respiratory tract infections EXCEPT:
- fever (38*C; 100.4 F)
- fatigue
- weight loss
- chest pain
- shortness of breath
- hacking cough
- hemoptysis (coughing blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

describe the current trends of tuberculosis

A
  • 1/4 of world population carries
  • 50,000,000 people are infected w/ multiple drug resistant (MDR) strains of TB
  • 80% of US cases are foreign-born
  • TB is a re-emerging disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

etiologic agent of tuberculosis

A

myobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

how is myobacterium tuberculosis stained?

A

acid-fast+ bacillus/weakly gram+ bacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

pathogenesis of primary TB

A
  • occurs when host encounters pathogen for first time
  • organisms move to alveoli
  • cell-mediated immune response begins
  • if primary lesion not contained -> tubercles/granulomas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are tubercles?

A
  • aggregates of macrophages containing bacteria, surrounded by fibroblasts & lymphocytes
  • center = caseous necrosis
  • calcified: ghon complex
51
Q

pathogenesis of secondary TB

A
  • AKA latent TB
  • due to reactivation of old lesions: advanced age; immunocompromization due to co-infection w/ HIV/AIDS
    OR
  • gradual progression of primary TB
52
Q

diagnosis of TB is dependent upon…

A
  • PDD: purified protein derivative skin tests (mantoux or tine)
  • chest film showing tubercles or consolidation
  • sputum sample w/ acid-fast staining
  • biopsy
53
Q

treatment of TB

A
  • triple therapy cocktail: Isoniazid (INH), Rifampicin (RFP), Pyrazinamide (PZA)
  • all 3 taken 1x/day for 2mo
  • INH & RFP taken for 9 more months
  • compliance important but difficult bc of side effects of drug therapy (toxicity in liver & kidney)
54
Q

what is directly observed therapy?

A
  • delivery of scheduled drug doses by a healthcare worker: patient’s ingestion/injection of drugs is directly administered, observed, and documented
  • helps prevent spread of TB and occurrence of MDR-TB
55
Q

describe the etiology of whooping cough

A
  • etiologic agent: bordetella pertussis
  • highly contagious
  • infects 80-100% of susceptible individuals
  • mortality highest in infants & children <1yr
  • re-emerging disease
56
Q

what is the medical term for whooping cough?

A

pertussis

57
Q

prevention of pertussis

A

DTaP vaccine

58
Q

pathogenesis of perussis

A
  • has affinity for ciliated bronchial epithelium
  • after attaching, produces tracheal toxin: immobilize & destroy ciliated cells
  • persistent cough from inability to move mucus
  • does not invade cells/tissues of respiratory tract
  • incubation period: 7-10 days
59
Q

name the stages of pertussis

A
  • primary: catarrhal
  • secondary: paroxysmal
  • tertiary: convalescence
60
Q

describe the primary stage of pertussis

A
  • 1-2wks
61
Q

secondary stage of pertusis

A
62
Q

tertiary stage of pertusis

A
63
Q

complications of pertusis

A
64
Q

inhalation anthrax

A
65
Q

pathogenesis of anthrax

A
66
Q
A
67
Q

where is Legionnaire’s disease found?

A
  • ubiquitous in fresh water
  • lives inside Acanthamoeba
  • undetected in healthy people
68
Q

etiologic agent of Legionnaire’s disease

A

Legionella pneumophila

69
Q

transmission of Legionnaire’s disease

A
  • transmitted as humidified aerosol
  • facultative intracellular parasite
70
Q

Legionella pneumophila infect ____, which show ____ morphology

A

alveolar macrophages
coiled

71
Q

symptoms of Legionella pneumophila

A
72
Q

where is Q fever found?

A
  • grows well in placenta of animals
  • contaminated soil
73
Q

transmission of Q fever

A
74
Q

what type of infection is Q fever?

A
75
Q

etiologic agent of Q fever

A

coxiella burnetii

76
Q

pathogenesis of Q fever

A
77
Q

Psittacosis is also known as ____

A

ornithosis

78
Q

what type of pneumonia is psittacosis?

A

zoonotic

79
Q

what are the most common hosts of psittacosis and how is it contracted?

A
80
Q

etiologic agent of psittacosis

A
81
Q

common name of psittacosis

A
82
Q

acute symptoms of psittacosis

A
83
Q

occasional systemic complications of psittacosis

A
84
Q

75-80% of all acute respiratory tract infections in the US are of ____ origin

A

viral

85
Q

incubation period of viral lower respiratory tract infections

A

short: 1-4 days

86
Q

how can viral lower respiratory tract infections be transmitted?

A
  • direct: through droplets
  • indirect: through transfer of contaminated secretions
87
Q

influenza is also known as ____

A
88
Q

name 3 serotypes of influenza

A
89
Q

serotype A

A
90
Q

serotype B

A
91
Q

serotype C

A
92
Q

influenza outbreaks

A
93
Q

acute influenzal syndrome

A
94
Q

pathogenesis of influenza

A
95
Q

when infected by influenza, respiratory epithelium may not be restored for…

A

2-10 weeks

96
Q

respiratory syncytial virus outbreaks (RSV)

A
97
Q

virus shed of RSV

A
98
Q

RSV affects…

A
99
Q

incubation period of RSV

A
100
Q

clinical signs of RSV

A
101
Q

RSV in infants

A
102
Q

common name for Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome

A
103
Q

Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome infection is associated with…

A
104
Q

transmission of sin nombre

A
105
Q

mortality rates of sin nombre

A
106
Q

fungal spores are ____ and found in…

A

ubiquitous
- found in soil
- found in homes
- resident flora

107
Q

etiologic agent of pneumocystis pneumonia

A
108
Q

pneumocystis pneumonia is common in ____

A
109
Q

symptoms of pneumocystis pneumonia

A
110
Q

pathogenesis of pneumocystis pneumonia

A
111
Q

etiologic agent of blastomycosis

A

blastomyces dermatitidis

112
Q

who is most commonly affected by blastomycosis?

A
113
Q

pathogenesis of blastomycosis

A
114
Q

etiologic agent of histoplasmosis

A
115
Q

where is histoplasmosis found?

A
116
Q

pathogenesis of histoplasmosis

A
117
Q

etiologic agent of coccidiodomycosis

A
118
Q

what causes valley fever?

A
119
Q

pathogenesis of valley fever

A
120
Q

etiologic agent of aspergillosis

A
121
Q

where is aspergillosis found?

A
122
Q

what population is commonly affected by aspergillosis?

A
123
Q

pathogenesis of aspergillosis

A
124
Q
A

NYCC Microbiology (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions