Mid Term Flashcards

0
Q

A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as what kind if exercise

A

balance-power

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1
Q

A client’s shoulder elevates when perfoming a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle?

A

Lower Trapezius

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2
Q

A prolonged intolerable stressor that produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury is called?

A

Exhaustion

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3
Q

A seated cable row is an example of which level of training in the NASM OPT model?

A

Strength

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4
Q

Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood

A

Diastolic blood pressure

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5
Q

During the pushing assessment, you notice your client’s shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise would you perform with them?

A

Ball Cobra

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6
Q

For a client who demonstrates their low back arching as a movement compensation, which method of cardio would you initially avoid?

A

Bicycles

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7
Q

How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up should last?

A

5-10 Min

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8
Q

If a client’s feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscle would be considered underactive?

A

Medial Gastrocnemius

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9
Q

In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is lengthened?

A

Internal Oblique

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10
Q

In a client with upper crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is shortened?

A

Scalenes

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11
Q

Increasing weight with each set is an example of which type of resistance-training system?

A

Pyramid system

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12
Q

The gluteus maximus is responsible for

A

Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation

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13
Q

The latissimus dorsi is responsible for concentrically accelerating which of the following movements?

A

Shoulder extension, adduction and internal rotation

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14
Q

The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns is known as:

A

Relative Flexibility

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15
Q

What assessment is used to assess upper extremity agility and stability?

A

Davies

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16
Q

What effect do beta-blockers have on a client’s blood pressure?

A

Decrease

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17
Q

What exercise is considered a total-body strength level exercise?

A

Squat, curl to two-arm press

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18
Q

What is a potential drawback to the horizontal loading system?

A

The amount of time typically spent resting can add up to more time then the workout itself

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19
Q

What is the appropriate percentage to increase after each set when performing an upper extremity strength assessment?

A

5-10%

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20
Q

What is the best time of day to have your client measure their resting heart rate?

A

Upon awakening in the morning

21
Q

What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press?

A

Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press

22
Q

What is the most appropriate heart rate percentage range for a client just starting into zone 3?

23
Q

What is the next immediate progression for the ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?

A

Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press

24
What type of exercise is a single-leg power step-up categorized as?
Plyometric power
25
When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment from the lateral view, which of the following kinetic chain checkpoints are you observing?
Lumbo-pelvic hip complex and shoulder complex
26
When determining a client's heart rate for zone 2, which equation would you use?
(220-clients age) x (76% x 85%)
27
When first starting out with a brand new client, which of the following training systems is most appropriate?
Single-set
28
When performing a peripheral heart action workout for strength, immediately after a barbell squat, which exercise would you perform?
Seated Row
29
When performing a single-leg squat assessment, if the knee moves inward, what is a probable overactive muscle?
Adductor complex
30
When performing the overhead squat assessment, your client's arms fall forward, which muscle would be considered most likely overactive?
Teres major
31
When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression?
Two-legs
32
When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as
Balance strength
33
When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?
Pointed straight ahead and dorsiflexed
34
When training in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance, what is the main method of progression?
Increasing propriception
35
Which muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion?
Gastrocnemius
36
Which of the following core exercises is appropriate for a new client?
Floor prone cobra
37
Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise?
Standing cable row
38
Multiplanar step up balance to curl is an example of what level of exercise
Stabilization
39
What is an appropriate speed, agility, and quickness drill?
One-ins
40
Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees?
Pronation distortion syndrome
41
Which of the following is considered a core power exercise?
Rotation chest pass
42
Which of the following is considered subjective information? a. Taking radial pulse b. Lifestyle questions c. Overhead squat assessment d. Circumference measurements
Lifestyle questions
43
Which of the following is the best example of zone 3 cardio? a. 3 rep bench press max b. Sprinting c. Fast walking d. Group exercise class
Sprinting
44
Which of the following muscles is considered part of the global stabilization system? a. Internal oblique b. External oblique c. Diaphragm d. Hip flexors
External oblique
45
Which of the following training systems can be just as beneficial as traditional forms of cardiorespiratory training? a. Pyramid b. Supersets c. Circuit training d. Vertical loading
Circuit training
46
You have a client working in Phase 3: Hypertrophy, what type of flexibility would you use?
self-myofasial release and active isolated stretching
47
You observe that your client's knee moves inward during the single-leg squat assessment; what muscle would you foam roll and static stretch?
TFL
48
What zone would a client start in if they had an average score on the YMCA step test?
Zone 2
49
How long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using self-myofascial release?
30 sec minimum