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Nursing Year One > Microbiology- Midterm I > Flashcards

Microbiology- Midterm I Flashcards

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1
Q 
Properties of Microorganisms 
M
I
C
R
O
A 
M- all microscopic 
I- independent 
C- complexity (less) 
R- rapid growth rate 
O- omnipresent (almost)
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2
Q

Prokaryotes

  • Location of genetic material
  • number of DNA
  • number of organelles
  • presence of cell wall
  • type of replication
A

“before nucleus”

  • genetic material floats freely in cytoplasm
  • one DNA molecule
  • no organelles except ribosomes
  • distinct cell wall
  • Binary Fission
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3
Q

Two Examples of Prokaryotes

A
  1. Archaebacteria

2. Eubacteria (ecoli)

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4
Q

Eukaryotes

  • location of genetic material
  • number of DNA molecules
  • number of organelles
  • presence of cell wall
  • type of cell division
A

“True-nucleus”

  • genetic material in nucleus
  • several varying DNA molecules
  • several organelles
  • no cell wall
  • mitosis and meiosis
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5
Q

Examples of Eukaryotes

A
  • fungus
  • algae
  • parasite
  • protozoan
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6
Q

What is a Virus?

A

Absolute parasite

- e.g. HIV, Herpes, Hepatitis, Skin viruses

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7
Q

Who Was Louis Pasteur?

A
  • Biogenesis
  • life comes from life
  • beef broth bent neck flask experiment
  • aseptic technique
  • pasteurization and fermentation
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8
Q

Who was Robert Koch?

A
  • discovered Anthrax
  • causing cattle and human disease
  • idea that every unique disease is caused by a unique microbe
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9
Q

Who was Edward Jenner?

A
  • small pox

- fluid from cow pox injected into subject (early vaccination)

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10
Q

Bacillus anthracis

A

Anthrax

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11
Q

Amino Acids

  • how many
  • what do they make up?
A
  • around 20

- subunits of proteins

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12
Q

How are proteins formed?

A

when 2 amino acids connect *usually 250-300 amino acids

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13
Q

Primary Structure

A

chain of amino acids

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14
Q

Secondary Structure

A

spiral or accordion structure to save space

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15
Q

Tertiary Structure

A

3D structure, strengthens protein

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16
Q

Quaternary Strucuture

A

two or more tertiary structures intertwined

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17
Q

What is an example of Quaternary Structure?

A

Hemoglobin or collagen

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18
Q

What governs Primary Structure?

A

Genetics

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19
Q

What are the three components of a nucleotide?

A

Base, Sugar, Phosphate

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20
Q

What are the purines?

A

Adenine

Guanine

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21
Q

What are the Pyramidines

A

Thymine

Cystonine

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22
Q

What base pairs with Adenine and with how many H bonds?

A

Thymine, 2

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23
Q

What base pairs with Guanine and with how many H bonds?

A

Cystonine, 3

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24
Q

Ribonucleicacid

A
  • single strand

- sugar, phophate, base (Uracil, Cytosine, Adenine, Guanine)

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25
Q

What are the three types of RNA?

A

messenger
ribosomal
transfer

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26
Q

Spiral Shaped Eubacteria

A
  1. Vibrio (cholera)
    • rigid with Fagella
  2. Spirillum
  3. Spirochete (syphilis)
    • axial filament moving in spiral motion
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27
Q

Vibrio cholerae

A

cholera

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28
Q

Treponema pallidum

A

syphilis

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29
Q

Bacillus Shaped Eubacteria

A
  • rod shaped
  • no flagella
  • anthrax
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30
Q

Coccus Shaped Eubacteria

A
  1. Streptococci
    • chain
      - strep throat
  2. Diplo-Cocci
  3. Staphylococcus
    • cluster
    • MRSA, TSS
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31
Q

Glycocalyx

A
  • capsule
  • escapes phagocytes
  • increases virulence
  • attachment
  • pneumonia
  • tooth, dental strep
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32
Q

Flagella

A

“run, tumble, run”

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33
Q

4 Arrangements of Flagella

A
  1. Monotrichous
    • one flagella
  2. Amphitrichous
    • one flagella at each end
  3. Lophotrichous
    • many from one end
  4. Peri-Trichous
    • many all over
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34
Q

Axial Filament

A

run lengthwise between the bacterial inner membrane and outer membrane causing twisting motion and movement of bacteria

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35
Q

Fimbria

A
  • number varies
  • look like hairs on a kiwi
  • used for attachment
  • e.g. gonorrhoea
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36
Q

Pilus

A
  • one or two
  • attach between cells for DNA transfer
  • “bridge”
  • E-coli
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37
Q

Endospores

A
  • internal
  • formed when water/nutrients are unavailable
  • clinically more problematic
  • formed by one gram-ve (pneumonia Q-fever) but mostly gram +ve ( anthrax, tetanus, botulism, gangrins, C.diff)
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38
Q

Cell Wall

A
  • peptidoglycan (protein+glucose changed into glycan)

- also called Murein

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39
Q

Gram Positive

A
  • several layers of peptidoglycan
  • has teichoic acid (alcohol+phosphate)
  • various alcohols
  • recognize bacteria antigenic specifically
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40
Q

Gram Negative

A
  • no teichoic acid
  • one MAYBE two layers of peptidoglycan
  • phospholipid, lipoprotein, porin protein, lipopolysaccharides
  • periplasm composed of outer membrane and plasma membrane separated by layer of pep
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41
Q

What is Periplasm and is it found in gram+ve or gram-ve?

A
  • composed of outer membrane and plasma membrane separated by a layer of peptidoglycan
  • gram -ve
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42
Q

Archaebacteria

A
  • no peptidoglycan
  • never causes disease
  • wall-less
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43
Q

Mycoplasma Species

A
  • no wall (Tb and leprosy)
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44
Q

Magnification of…

  1. Objective Lense
  2. Ocular Lense
  3. Total
A
  1. 4 to 100x
  2. 10x
  3. OccularxObjective
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45
Q

Why do we always use a basic dye when staining?

A
  • bacteria are negatively charged

- bacteria have a pH of 7

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46
Q

Simple Stain

  • pH
  • what is it used for
  • two examples
A
  • basic
  • structure, shape, arrangement, size
  • safranin
  • methylene blue
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47
Q

What is Mordant?

A

enhances colour of basic stain

*must match colour of basic stain

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48
Q

Is Gram+ve or Gram-ve harder to treat with antibiotics? Why?

A

gram-ve, they have two phospholipid bilayers

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49
Q

What is Myoloacterium, and why does it require Acid-Fast Stain?

A

TB, leprosy. necessary because they have a waxy lipid layer that repels dye

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50
Q

Describe the four steps of an Acid-Fast Stain

A
  1. Carbolfuschin Stain
  2. Heat 10-15 min over boiling H2O to fix bacteria to slide
  3. Decolorizer
    • Acid-Alcohol
  4. Metheline Blue
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51
Q

What is Mycholic-Acid and how does it effect the dying of TB

A
  • long fatty acids
  • causative agent of TB
  • TB when stained will always be red
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52
Q

What is the result of an acid-fast stain?

A

*Acid fast organism will remain original colour while non will be blue

53
Q

Describe the three steps of negative staining

A
  1. Acidic Dye (India Ink)
    • stains all but the cell (repels it)
  2. H2O Wash
  3. Safranin
    • stains cell red with capsule ring
54
Q

If heating _____ mordant.

A

do not use

55
Q

Describe the three steps of Endospore Staining

A
  1. Malachite Green
    • Dyes cell green
  2. Heat 15 min
  3. Safranin
    • dyes capsule red
56
Q

Describe the two steps of Flagella Staining

A
  1. Carbolfuschin

2. Mordant- potassium alum

57
Q

What is the hardest staining process and why?

A

Flagella, very delicate

58
Q

Where can a lysozyme be found?

A
  • saliva, mucus, tears, breast milk
59
Q

How does a lysozyme effect a cell?

A
  • destroys G (glycan, backbone) in PG layer
60
Q

How does a lysozyme effect a gram+ve and gram-ve best friend?

A 
Gram+ve
- breaks thick PG exposing plasma mem. below 
- broken cell called protoplast 
Gram-ve 
- lysozyme removes middle PG layer 
- PG-less cell called Spheroplast
61
Q

What is a Protoplast?

A

Gram+cell broken by lysozyme

62
Q

What is a Spheroplast?

A

Gram-cell missing PG from lysozyme

63
Q

What cell does lysozyme effect more, Gram+ve or Gram-ve? Why?

A

Gram+ve, more PG to break, exposes only layer of plasma mem

64
Q

How do antibiotics effect Gram+ve and Gram-ve cells?

A
  • destroy peptide links in Gram+ve cells (more damage)

- destroy single layer in G-ve cells (less damage)

65
Q

What is Metabolism?

A

creation and use of energy (sum total of all reactions)

66
Q

What is Catabolism?

A
  • biodegenerative
  • hydrolytic reactions (bond breaking)
  • exergonic reactions (release energy)
  • produce ATP
67
Q

What is Anabolism?

A
  • biosynthetic reactions
  • dehydration reactions
  • endergonic reactions (absorb energy)
  • use ATP
68
Q

Describe ATP

A
  • principle form of energy
  • immediate source
  • “energy currency”
69
Q

Describe the structure of ATP

A
  • Adenosine-tri-phosphate

- Adenine base + ribosugar (ribose) + 3 phosphate

70
Q

Why is ATP unstable?

A

three negatively charged phosphate repel each other

71
Q

What is ab enzyme?

A
  • speeds up chemical reactions (catalyst)
  • increases likelihood of a reaction by reducing required activation energy
  • not consumed in reaction
  • proteins and substrates
72
Q

Simple enzymes are…

A

proteins (vitamin B, from green veggies and spinach) only that carry one atom to another

73
Q

Conjugated enzymes are…

A

proteins (apo-enzyme) and cofactor

74
Q

Holoenzymes are…

A

active enzymes with a cofactor

75
Q

What is a Cofactor?

A

inorganic (magnesium, magnese, calcium ion) or organic (become co-enzymes)

76
Q

What are the four enzymatic factors?

A
  1. Temperature
  2. Ph
  3. Substrate
  4. Inhibitor
77
Q

What is a competitive inhibitor?

A
  • has the same size and chemical structure as the substrate

- binds instead of substrate

78
Q

What is an example of an inhibitor?

A
  • Sulpha Drugs- mimics PABA and
  • Adversely effects pregnant women
  • used for nucleic acid to carry Folic Acid leading to bacteria cell death
79
Q

What is non-competitive inhibitor?

A
  • allosentric sites (for feedback inhibitors)
  • inhibitors bind to allosteric site (not active site)
  • excess product acts as inhibitor to shut down reaction when enough product is produced
80
Q

What is an Oxidation reaction?

A

removal of electrons (loss of H+)

81
Q

What is a Reduction reaction?

A

gain electrons (gain H+)

82
Q

What is phosphorylation?

A
  • adding of phosphate

ADP+P–> ATP

83
Q

Describe Substrate Level Phosphorylation

A
  • substrate level addition of P

- substrate donates P to ADP

84
Q

Describe Redox Phosphorylation

A
  • Hydrogen is added to coenzyme through redox reaction and goes through ETC to create ATP
85
Q

Is Redox or Substrate Level Phosphorylation more efficient?

A

redox

86
Q

Describe Photophorylation

A
  • conversion of light to ATP

- does not occur in animal cells

87
Q

What is the net production of ATP in…

  1. Glycolysis
  2. Kreb’s Cycle
  3. ETC
A
  1. 2
  2. 2
  3. 32
88
Q

Each FADH2 Produces _____ ATP while each NADH produces _____ ATP.

A

2, 3

89
Q

Describe Aerobic Respiration…

  • What cycles
  • Total ATP
  • Final Electron Receptor
  • Example
A
  • Glycolysis, Krebs, and ETC
  • total ATP (32)
  • O2 is final electron acceptor
  • most bacteria
90
Q

Describe Anaerobic Respiration…

  • What cycles
  • Total ATP
  • Final Electron Receptor
  • Example
A
  • Glycolysis and Krebs
  • ATP from glycolysis varies
  • O2 never final electron acceptor (SO4-, NO3-, or NO2-)
  • Clostridium tetanus
91
Q

Describe Fermentation…

  • What cycles
  • Total ATP
  • Final Electron Receptor
  • Example
A
  • only glycolysis
  • Always 2
  • organic molecule
  • Bacterium lactobacillus or yeast
92
Q

Describe an Obligate Aerobe…

  • O2 Use
  • Total ATP
  • Growth Rate
  • Example
A
  • needs O2
  • ATP varies
  • increased growth
  • most bacteria
93
Q

Describe an Obligate Anaerobe…

  • O2 Use
  • Total ATP
  • Examples
A
  • harmed by O2
  • ATP varies
  • Clostridium sp.
94
Q

Describe a Facilitated Anaerobe….

  • O2 Use
  • Growth Rate
  • Example
A
  • can switch between using O2 and fermentation
  • flexible growth
  • ecoli
95
Q

Describe Aerotderant Anaerobes…

  • O2 Use
  • Total ATP
  • Example
A
  • tolerates O2 but chooses fermentation (Obligate fermented)
  • 2
  • Lactobacillus sp.
96
Q

Describe a Microaerophile…

  • O2 Use
  • Total ATP
  • Example
A
  • can use O2 in small amounts (1-20%)
  • 34
  • Helicoptor pylori (peptic ulcer), Compylobacter jejuni (gastroenteritis)
97
Q

How does temperature effect Mesophiles, does it pose a health concern, and what is an example?

A
  • can grow 25-40
  • optimum is 37
  • cannot grow above 50
  • health concern (grow in same temps as us)
  • strep
98
Q

How does temperature effect True Psychrophiles, does it pose a health concern, and what is an example?

A
  • can grow at 0
  • optimum at 15
  • cannot grow above 20-25
  • no health concern
  • pink on snow
99
Q

How does temperature effect Facultative/Psychotrophs, does it pose a health concern, and what is an example?

A
  • can grow at 0
  • optimum is 20-30
  • cannot grow above 40
  • thrive in same conditions as us
  • food spoilage, slimy mold, growth slowed in fridge
100
Q

How does temperature effect Trues&Hyper Thermohiles, does it pose a health concern, and what is an example?

A
  • cannot grow at 45
  • optimum at 50-60
  • can grow 80-130
  • not a health hazard (cannot grow where we find comfort)
101
Q

What pH does mold survive at?

A

4-5

102
Q

What pH does bacteria survive at?

A

6.5-7

103
Q

How is an Agar Plate prepared?

A
  • melted at high temp to sterilize it
  • cools to liquid at 45
  • poured into plate to solidify and be stored at 37
104
Q

Describe Selective Media

A
  • Bismuth Sulfite Agar
  • can only grow salmonella (typhoid fever) and typhus only
  • encourages growth of one bacteria and discourages all others
105
Q

Describe Differential Media

A
  • Blood Agar Plate
  • grows streptococcus pyogenes (strep throat)
  • used in strep testing
  • distinguishes specific colonies
106
Q

Describe Selective Differential Plate

A
  • Manitol Salt Agar

- can grow staphylococcus aureus (skin infection) TSS

107
Q

What are the four stages of Binary Fission?

A
  1. Lag
  2. Log
  3. Stationary
  4. Death
108
Q

Describe the Lag phase of Binary Fission

A
  • NOT dormant
  • no change in cell number
  • metabolically active
109
Q

Describe the Log Phase of Binary Fission

A
  • straight line increase
  • generation time is consistent
  • most vulnerable stage
110
Q

Describe Stationary Phase of Binary Fission

A
  • number of new cells is equal to the number of dying cells
111
Q

Describe the Death stage of Binary Fission

A

a resources used or treatment starts to work

- more cells dying than being produced

112
Q

At what stage is it best to start treatment?

A

Log

113
Q

Describe three moist methods to clean using heat

A
  1. Boiling
  2. Autoclaving
    • steaming under pressure
    • 121 degrees for 15 mins
  3. Pasteurization
    • classic (batch) is 63 degrees for 30 mins
    • HTST, (high temp short time), flash is 72 degrees for 15 seconds which does the same thing
    • UHT (ultra high temp) is 140 degrees for 1-4 sec
114
Q

Describe three dry methods to clean using heat

A
  1. Loops
    • streak
  2. Incineration
    • burning carcass
    • biohazard waste
  3. Hot Air
    • 1hr 45 min slower than autoclave
    • used in OR
115
Q

Where is HTST and UHT used? Which is preferred and why?

A

UHT- 3rd world countries because they don’t have fridges
HTST- North America

UHT changes taste

116
Q

What are the five types of filtration?

A
  1. N-95 Mask
  2. Vaccines
  3. Antibiotics
  4. Enzymes
  5. HEPA Filters
117
Q

What are two types of radiation?

A
  1. Ionizing

2. Non-Ionizing

118
Q

Describe Ionizing Radiation

A
  • ionizes water
  • forms OH free radical causing cell death
  • damages DNA
119
Q

Describe Non-Ionizing Radiation

A
  • forms thymine dimers
  • T should bind to A in DNA bit this causes T to bind to T
  • UV light
  • faint blue colour
120
Q

What is Ionizing Radiation used for?

A
  • gloves
  • sutures
  • pharmaceutics
  • dental supplies
  • postal units
  • supermarkets on veggies to increase shelf life
121
Q

What is Non-Ionizing Radiation Used for?

A
  • OR
  • Nurseries
  • cafeterias
122
Q

What are the five chemical methods of control?

A
  1. Phenol and Phenolics
  2. Halogens
  3. Alcohols
  4. Quats
  5. Gas
123
Q

Why are Phenolics used more than Phenol? What is an example?

A
  • bad odor
  • irritates skin
  • lysol
124
Q

What two Halogens are used for cleaning?

A
  1. Iodine

2. Chlorine

125
Q

Describe Iodine

A
  • combined with amino acid tyrosine to be di-iod- tyrosine
  • denaturing agent
  • pure I2 stains and causes skin irritation
126
Q

Describe Cholrine

A
  • combined with water to form HCL
  • HCL performs redox
  • oxidizing agent
127
Q

What are two alcohols? Which is better and why?

A
  1. Ethanol
  2. Isopropanol
  • Isopropanol because it is less volatile and less expensive
128
Q

Describe Quats

A
  • used on some surfaces

- bacteria can grow on it

129
Q

Describe Gas as a chemical method of control

A
  • sterilizes everything it touches
  • combines with proteins to become CH2-CH2-OH
  • highly penetrating
  • many hospital uses (mattresses, dialysis)
  • must be used in chamber
  • carcinogenic

Nursing Year One (31 decks)

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