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Microbiology > Microbe Human Interaction > Flashcards

Microbe Human Interaction Flashcards

1
Q

how much more microbial cells in/on bodies than in human cells in body?

A

3x

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2
Q

human body conditions favorable for microbes

A

source of nutrients, environment, moisture, stable pH, temperature, different surfaces

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3
Q

how can microflora change?

A

vary with age, diet, health, hygiene practices, hormones, drug therapy

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4
Q

resident microflora

A

microbes which are present and permanent in some areas of the body (eg. skin and large intestine)

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5
Q

transient microbes

A

microflora that can only remain for a short period of time

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6
Q

transient v resident microflora

A

transient must compete in order to stay on/in but resident microflora are better adapted

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7
Q

how do resident microflora compete?

A

they compete with space nutrients and release toxins to kill transient microbes

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8
Q

infection

A

microorganism invades the host and bypasses the host defense mechanisms

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9
Q

how does an infection occur?

A

first initial contact and then microorganisms invade our tissues and grow in it

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10
Q

disease

A

overall organismal health is suffering a cost

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11
Q

amniotic sac

A

fetal membranes

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12
Q

microbe introduction during natural birth

A

lactobacilli streptococci and staphylococci when passing through birth canal

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13
Q

what does breast milk contain

A

oligosaccharides

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14
Q

what digests oligosaccharides?

A

bifidobacterium invantis

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15
Q

what does bifidobacterium invantis ensure?

A

baby’s digestive tract is seeded by healthy microbes and does not acquire pathogenic microbes

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16
Q

why does microflora change in mouth when getting teeth?

A

there is additional surface area in the mouth for different microbial growth and new consumption of foods

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17
Q

microbe introduction through c section

A

breast milk and human-skin interactions

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18
Q

what organ bacteria is the most unique?

A

skin bacteria

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19
Q

microbes on skin

A

staphylococcus corny bacterium. propionibacterium, yeast

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20
Q

where does normal flora reside on skin?

A

dead cell layers on surafce to dermal layer in follicles/glands

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21
Q

microbes common in sebaceous glands

A

mycobacterium, staphyococcus

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22
Q

digestive tract is considered

A

a tube within a tube which separate it from the the body cavity; Microbes residing within the digestive tract are therefore technically outside the body’s internal environment

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23
Q

Peristalsis

A

wave-like muscle contractions which pushes microbes downward, preventing colonization in the esophagus

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24
Q

Exceptions of microbial growth in the stomach

A

Lactobacilli and Helicobacter pylori

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25
Q

lactobacilli

A

ferments lactose, producing lactic acid

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26
Q

Helicobacter pylori

A

can cause ulcers under stress

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27
Q

The acidity of the stomach

A

is analogous to a highly concentrated cleaning solution that kills most bacteria.

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28
Q

what limits microbial growth in the small intestine?

A

Enzymes and digestive molecules, along with peristalsis

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29
Q

most common genus in oral cavity/mouth

A

streptococcus

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30
Q

What kind of microbes contribute to cavities?

A

Anaerobic microbes through acid production from fermentation

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31
Q

are mouthwashes generally ineffective against the diverse microbial population of the mouth?

A

yes

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32
Q

what does dry mouth cause?

A

increases microbial growth and halitosis

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33
Q

highest concentration of microbes in the body

A

anaerobic bacteria

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34
Q

what bacterias aid in aid digestion, produce vitamins and contribute to intestinal odor

A

Bacteroides, Bifidobacterium, Fusobacterium, Clostridium

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35
Q

vitamins produced by microbes Bacteroides, Bifidobacterium, Fusobacterium, Clostridium

A

B12, K, riboflavin, thiamine

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36
Q

intestinal odor

A

flatulence

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37
Q

The large intestine’s microbial community is essential for

A

nutrient absorption and overall gut health

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38
Q

Upper Respiratory Tract

A

Colonized by resident microflora: oral streptococci, Staphylococcus aureus (nose), and Neisseria species (mucous membranes)

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39
Q

Lower Respiratory Tract (Lungs)

A

Mucus and cilia trap and remove inhaled microbes; microbe free in healthy individuals

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40
Q

why is lower respiratory tract’s environment is unfavorable for microbial growth?

A

efficient clearance mechanisms

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41
Q

internal Reproductive Organs include

A

uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries

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42
Q

Internal Reproductive Organs are

A

Generally sterile. The closed cervix prevents microbial ascent from the vagina.

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43
Q

Vagina microbe environment

A

Low diversity, low microbial count, but resident microbes

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44
Q

what do resident microbes do in vagina

A

maintain an acidic pH, inhibiting pathogenic growth

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45
Q

microbes in vagina

A

lactobacilli

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46
Q

Estrogen stimulates

A

glycogen production: fueling Lactobacilli growth and acid production.

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47
Q

menopausal
and prepubescent vaginal infections

A

lower estrogen levels, have a more neutral vaginal pH, increasing susceptibility to infections

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48
Q

External Genitourinary Organs microbes

A

Colonized by streptococci, staphylococci, corynebacteria, and some coliforms

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49
Q

Virulence

A

A measure of how severe a disease it causes

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50
Q

True Pathogens

A

Cause disease in healthy individuals with normal immune systems

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51
Q

Eg of true pathogens

A

influenza, malaria, bubonic plague

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52
Q

Opportunistic Pathogens

A

Cause disease when the host’s immune system is compromised

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53
Q

Eg of opportunistic pathogens

A

Pseudomonas, Candida albicans

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54
Q

stages of infection

A
  1. entry 2. adhesion 3. invasion 4. multiplication 5. exit/egress
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55
Q

entry

A

microbe enters the body

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56
Q

adhesion

A

microbe attaches to host tissues

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57
Q

invasion

A

The microbe spreads to other tissues

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58
Q

Multiplication

A

The microbe grows and reproduces

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59
Q

Egress (Exit)

A

The microbe leaves the host, enabling transmission to new hosts.

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60
Q

Portals of entry

A

endogenous, exogenous

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61
Q

Types of portals of entry

A

skin, GI tract, respiratory tract, urogenital tract, placenta

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62
Q

BSL

A

biosafety level

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63
Q

BSL-1

A

Low risk; microbes not known to cause disease in humans

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64
Q

BSL-2

A

Moderate risk; not easily contagious (HIV)

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65
Q

BSL-3

A

High risk; contagious, often via respiratory transmission, and potentially fatal (yellow fever)

66
Q

BSL-4

A

Highest risk; highly contagious, highly virulent, and extremely dangerous (ebola)

67
Q

what does BSL determine?

A

safety measures required when handling microbes in a laboratory setting

68
Q

what portals of entry can Staphylococcus aureus enter through?

A

skin, respiratory tract, or GI tract

69
Q

Infectious Dose

A

The minimum number of microbes required to cause an infection. A smaller ID indicates higher virulence.

70
Q

adhesion of microbes

A

pili, flagella, fimbriae, glycocalyx, viral spikes

71
Q

Virulence factors

A

molecules produced by microbes that enhance their ability to cause disease

72
Q

Virulence factors include

A

Exoenzymes, Toxins, Anti-phagocytic Factors

73
Q

Exoenzymes

A

Extracellular enzymes that break down host tissues

74
Q

Eg exoenzymes

A

muconase, keratinase

75
Q

Toxins

A

Poisons that damage host cells

76
Q

Types of toxins

A

Exotoxins, endotoxins

77
Q

Exotoxins

A

Secreted by microbes; often A-B toxins

78
Q

eg. exotoxin

A

botulinum toxin

79
Q

Endotoxins

A

Part of the microbial cell; released upon cell lysis

80
Q

eg. endotoxins

A

lipopolysaccharide in Gram-negative bacteria

81
Q

Anti-phagocytic Factors

A

Prevent destruction by white blood cells

82
Q

Direct killing of phagocytes

A

Some pathogens produce toxins, like leukocidins, that directly kill white blood cells.

83
Q

Capsule formation

A

A polysaccharide capsule surrounding the bacterial cell hinders phagocyte binding and engulfment.

84
Q

what does the capsule formation act as?

A

physical barrier, preventing the phagocyte from making contact with the bacterial cell surface.

85
Q

Intracellular survival and multiplication

A

Certain pathogens can survive and even replicate within phagocytes, effect

86
Q

stages of infections/diseases

A
  1. incubation period 2. prodromal stage 3. invasion period 4. convalescent period
87
Q

incubation period

A

time between initial exposure to the pathogen and the appearance of the first symptoms; symptom free

88
Q

Eg. of incubation periods

A

common cold: 24-72 hours; plague: a few hours; leprosy: years

89
Q

prodromal stage

A

The onset of initial, often non-specific symptoms

90
Q

Eg. prodromal stage

A

Feeling tired, experiencing headaches or muscle aches are common prodromal symptoms for many infections.

91
Q

invasion period

A

This is the period when symptoms are most severe and specific to the infection; pathogen multiplies rapidly, becoming well-established in the body

92
Q

invasion period effected by

A

host health and pathogen virulence

93
Q

convalescent period

A

The recovery phase, where the body returns to normal health.

94
Q

Transmission of the pathogen is most likely during what period

A

invasion period due to high pathogen loads

95
Q

type of infections

A

localized, systemic, focal, mixed, primary, secondary, acute, chronic

96
Q

localized infection

A

pathogen remains confined to a specific area of the body

97
Q

eg. localized infection

A

Boils, athlete’s foot, and warts

98
Q

systemic infection

A

pathogen spreads throughout the body, affecting multiple tissues and organs.

99
Q

eg. systemic infection

A

Influenza

100
Q

focal infection

A

infection begins in a localized area but then spreads to other parts of the body, either through dissemination of the pathogen or release of toxins.

101
Q

mixed infection

A

two or more microbes to cause infection

102
Q

eg. mixed infection

A

dental carriers (anaerobic and aerobic) microbes)

103
Q

primary infection

A

weakens the host defenses

104
Q

primary/secondary infection

A

two infections occur one after the other

105
Q

eg. primary/secondary infection

A

UTI to vaginal yeast infection

106
Q

acute infection

A

rapid short lived infection

107
Q

chronic infection

A

long lasting and (more commonly) less severe

108
Q

signs

A

objective evidence

109
Q

eg. signs

A

fever, redness, swelling

110
Q

symptoms

A

Subjective evidence of disease reported by the patient

111
Q

eg. symptoms

A

headaches, fatigue

112
Q

signs of blood infection

A

Leukocytosis, Leukopenia, Septicemia, Bacteremia/Viremia

113
Q

Leukocytosis

A

increased white cell count

114
Q

Leukopenia

A

decreased white cell count

115
Q

Septicemia

A

high numbers of microbes in the blood

116
Q

Bacteremia/Viremia

A

low number of bacteria/viruses in the blood

117
Q

portals of exit

A

Respiratory Tract, skin, digestive tract, urinary tract, blood feeding insects, persistence in the host

118
Q

eg. bloodfeeding insects

A

malaria from mosquitos

119
Q

portal of exit vs method of transmission

A

portal of exit: location
method of transmission: how it gets to host

120
Q

reservoirs

A

where pathogens persist

121
Q

living reservoirs

A

human carriers

122
Q

human carriers

A

people who are carrying the microbe

123
Q

active

A

infected with microbe and the microbe is growing inside them

124
Q

passive

A

not infected with the microbe but have on the surface

125
Q

Asymptomatic

A

infected with the microbe and transmitting, but not showing

126
Q

incubation carriers

A

HIV

127
Q

convalescent carriers

A

diphtheria

128
Q

chronic carriers

A

typhoid

129
Q

Vectors

A

animals that transmit microbes from person to person

130
Q

Biological vector

A

involved in the life cycle

131
Q

eg. biological vector

A

Fleas, tics, kissing bugs

132
Q

mechanical vector

A

on the surface on their body

133
Q

eg. mechanical vector

A

flies, cockroaches

134
Q

zoonotic infections

A

Diseases transmitted from animals to humans (rabies)

135
Q

Non-living Reservoirs

A

Environmental sources like soil and water

136
Q

Communicable

A

Transmitted from one host to another.

137
Q

Contagious

A

Highly communicable.

138
Q

modes of transmission

A

direct and indirect

139
Q

direct tranmission

A

person to person

140
Q

indirect transmission (vechiles)

A

Requires an intermediate source; surfaces, animal to people, surface droplets

141
Q

Nosocomical infections/HAIs (hospital acquired infections)

A

Infections acquired in a healthcare setting

142
Q

causes of HAI

A

surgery/lowered defences, infection from surfaces, passive carriers/hospital workers

143
Q

Epidemiology

A

study of tracing the patterns of disease

144
Q

CDC

A

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

145
Q

where is the CDC located?

A

atlanta, georgia

146
Q

WHO

A

World Health Orginization

147
Q

where is WHO located

A

Geneva, Switzerland

148
Q

reportable

A

required by law

149
Q

notifiable

A

recommended to report

150
Q

epidiemology statistics

A

prevalence, incidence, mortality, case fatality rate

151
Q

prevalence

A

total number of existing cases in respect to population

152
Q

incidence

A

number of new cases (time frame)

153
Q

mortality

A

chance to die from a given disease

154
Q

Case fatality rate

A

chances of dying from disease once infected

155
Q

endemic

A

disease that has known predictable infection in population (seasonal flu)

156
Q

epidemic

A

above expected levels in localized area

157
Q

sporadic

A

random occurrence (rabies, bubonic plague)

158
Q

pandemic

A

epidemic that has gotten to 2+ continents

159
Q

Koch’s postulates for determining disease

A
  1. find the microbe 2. isolate and cultivate 3. inoculate and observe 4. re-isolate
160
Q

problems with koch’s posulates

A

detect microbe that only infects humans, viable but nonculturable, mixed infections

Microbiology (16 decks)

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