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Elliot Step 1 > Micro Drugs > Flashcards

Micro Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Fluoroquinolones MOA?

A

Block DNA topoisomerase

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2
Q

Patient with strep is allergic to pencillin; What do you treat her with?

A

Macrolides

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4
Q

Inhibits dehydropteroate synthase?

A

Sulfonamides

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5
Q

Obstructed crystalline nephropathy?

A

Acyclovir, Valacyclovir, famciclovir

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6
Q

MOA of fluoroquinolones?

A

Inhibit DNA gyrase

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7
Q

Metronidazole treats?

A

GET GAP on the Metro: Giardia; Entamoeba, Trichimonas; Garnderalla; Anaerobes (Cdiff and bacteroides); Hpylori (along with proton pump inhibitor; and clarithromycin)

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8
Q

Used for history of recurrent UTIs

A

TMP SMX

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11
Q

Endocarditis with surgical or dental procedures?

A

Penicillins

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12
Q

Trypansoma brucei? What is trypansoma brucei?

A

suramin and melarsoprol; African sleeping sickness

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13
Q

4 main uses of tetracycline?

A

Borrelia; M. pneumoniae; Very effective against Chlamydia and Rickettsia for its ability to accumulate intracellularly

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14
Q

Pregnant woman with group B strep?

A

Ampicillin (may cause pseudomembranous colitis)

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15
Q

Prevention of gonoccocal or chlamydial conjunctivitis in newborn?

A

Erythromycin ointment

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16
Q

Inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase?

A

Rifampin

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17
Q

All drugs that end in “navir?”

A

Protease inhibitors

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18
Q

Drug used for Staph Aureus?

A

Nafcillin (use Naf for Staph); Oxacillin, dicloxacillin

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18
Q

NRTI that is a nucleoTide and therefore does not need to be activated?

A

Tenofovir

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19
Q

Inhibits D-ala D-ala portion of cell wall precursors?

A

Vancomycin

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19
Q

This molecule converts Flucytosine to 5 FU

A

cystosine deaminase

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19
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitor that requires O2 for uptake?

A

Aminoglycosides

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20
Q

Patient presents with gynecomastia and liver dysfunction 1 week after starting a medication to treat his coccioides infection.

A

Azoles! cause gynecomastia

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21
Q

Damages DNA?

A

Metronidazole

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21
Q

Trimethoprim MOA?

A

Inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reducatase

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21
Q

MOA of caspofungin and micafungin?

A

inhibit synthesis of beta glucan; used for invasive aspergilossis and candida May cause flushing due to histamine release

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22
Q

Nifurtimox?

A

treats trypanosoma cruzi

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22
Q

MOA of macrolides?

A

blocks translocation by binding to the 23S rRNA– macroslides

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22
Q

Antibiotic that causes aplastic anemia?

A

Chloramphenicol (blocks peptidyl transferase)

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22
Q

Causes ototoxicity during preg?

A

Aminoglycosides

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24
Q

Metronidazole MOA?

A

Damages DNA

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24
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi?

A

nifurtimox

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25
Q

Inhibits squalene epoxidase?

A

Terbinafine

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26
Q

Drug with high risk of seizures; only used in life threatening situations?

A

Carbapenems (Imipenem/cilastatin, meropenem)– cn also get skin rash and GI distress

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26
Q

Causes a disulfiram like reaction with alcohol?

A

Metronidazole

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27
Q

MOA of macrolides?

A

Blocks 50S and protein synthesis by blocking translocation; thought to block peptidyl transferase

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28
Q

Patient is started on Isoniazid. How can she prevent neurotoxicity and lupus?

A

Pyridoxine b6

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28
Q

Treats dermatophytoses; what is side effect?

A

Terbinafine; may cause abnormal LFTs and visual disturbances

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29
Q

Toxicity and MOA of chloroquine

A

Retinopathy; blocks detoxification of heme into hemozoin

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29
Q

Oseltamivir?

A

Inhibits influenza neuraminidase

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30
Q

Clindamycin uses?

A

Anaerobes above the diaphragm (metronidazole is anaerobes below the diaphragm)

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31
Q

Meningococcal infection?

A

Cipro for adults; Rifampin for children

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32
Q

Blocks 50s from binding during ribosomal assembly?

A

Linezolide

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33
Q

Blocks DNA topoisomerase?

A

Fluoroquinolones

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33
Q

Syphilis

A

Penicillin G

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33
Q

Blocks mRNA synthesis?

A

Rifampin

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34
Q

3 Macrolides?

A

Azithromycin; calrithromycin; erythromycin

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34
Q

Cause tendon rupture, leg cramps and myalgias?

A

FluoroquinoLONES hurt attachments to your BONES; also cause GI upset, skin rashes, headache and dizziness

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35
Q

CD4 count of

A

TMP-SMX– to prevent pneumocystis pneumonia

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37
Q

Fluoroquinolones?

A

everything that ends in “oxacin”; mostly floxacin (think ciprofloxacin)

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37
Q

Viral DNA polymerase inhibitor that binds pyrophosphate binding site of enzyme– does not require viral kinase?

A

Foscarnet– pyroFosphate analog

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38
Q

Inhibits influenza neuroaminidase?

A

Zanamivir and oseltamivir

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39
Q

Used to treat ringworm?

A

Girseoflvin; interferes with microtubule function; disrupts mitosis

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39
Q

Causes cartilage damage during pregnancy?

A

fluroquinolones

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40
Q

Antibiotic that causes discoloration of teeth?

A

Tetracycline

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42
Q

Beta lactamase inhibitors?

A

CAST– Clavulanic Acid; Sulbactam; Tazobactem

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42
Q

Sulbactem and Tazobactem?

A

Beta lactamase inhibitors (CAST)

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42
Q

Side effect of Ribavirin?

A

Hemolytic anemia

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43
Q

CD4

A

Azithromycin (mycobacterium avium complex)

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45
Q

Extended spectrum penicillin?

A

Amoxicillin and ampicillin (amoxocillin has greater oral bioavailability)

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46
Q

suffix “penem”

A

carbapenems– only used for life threatening cases due to inc risk for seizures (except for meropenem which has reduced risk of seizure)

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47
Q

Treatment of pneumocystis?

A

TMP-SMX; pentamidine

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48
Q

Clindamycin MOA?

A

Blocks peptide transfer

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49
Q

May cause pseudomembrouns colitis

A

Ampicillin or clindomycin

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50
Q

Chloramphenicol uses?

A

Meningitis (Haemophilus; Neisseria, Strep) in developing countries because of low cost; has lots of side effects including gray baby syndrome, aplastic anemia, anemia,

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51
Q

Drug for Borrelia?

A

Tetracycline and ceftriaxone

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51
Q

Treatment of legionella?

A

Macrolides

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52
Q

Bacitracin MOA?

A

Blocks peptidoglycan synthesis

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52
Q

Pt. presents with hearing difficulties, pain and swelling of arm, with diffuse flushing

A

Red man syndrome– caused by VancomycinOtoxoticity, nephrotoxicity, thrombophlebitis, diffush

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52
Q

Treatment of leprosy?

A

Dapsone+ rifampine (first 6 months) + (clofazimine for 2-5 years)

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53
Q

Where is pyrainamide most effective?

A

In acidic pH of phagolysosomes, where TB engulfed by macrophages is found

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54
Q

Ceftazidime?

A

Used for pseudomonas; Cephalosporin

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54
Q

NNRTIs?

A

Nevirapine, Efavirenz, Delavirdine, zidovudine, tenofovir

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55
Q

Treats anaerobic infections below the diaphragm?

A

Metronidazole

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56
Q

MOA of Sulfonamides?

A

PABA antimetabolites inhibit dihydropteroate synthase

57
Q

Use of fluoroquinolones?

A

Mostly gram negative rods of urinary and gi tracts including pseudomonas

57
Q

Uses of Acyclovir?

A

HSV and VZV– no activity against EBV

58
Q

Inhibits peptidoglycan cross linking?

A

Penicilin

61
Q

Vancomycin MOA?

A

Blocks peptidoglycan synthesis

62
Q

Have low cross reactivity with penicillin?

A

cephalosporin

62
Q

Zanamivir?

A

Inhibits influenza neuroaminidase

64
Q

Block peptidoglycan synthesis?

A

Bacitracin and vancomycin

65
Q

Interferes with microtubule function; disrupts mitosis?

A

Girseofulvin; deposits in keratin containing tissues; used for superficial infections; tinea, ringworm

65
Q

Integrase inhibitors?

A

Raltegravir

66
Q

History of recurrent UTIs

A

TMP-SMX

68
Q

Side effect of cephalosporins? 2

A

Vit K deficiency and increases nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides

69
Q

Penicillinase resistant penicillins?

A

Oxacillin, nafcillin, dicloxacillin (due to bulky R group that blocks access of Beta lactamase)

70
Q

Trimethoprim MOA?

A

Block nucleotide synthesis by inhibiting folic acid synthesis

70
Q

4 drugs used for TB?

A

Ethambutol Pyrazinamide Rifampin Isoniazid

71
Q

May cause red-green color blindness?

A

Ethambutol (used for TB)

73
Q

drug for haemophilus and proteus?

A

ampicillin and amoxicillin HELPSS

74
Q

Mean GNATS caNNOT kill anaerobes

A

AMEANOglycosides: gentamicin; neomycin; amikacin; tobramycin; streptomycin) and CAuse nephrotoxicity; neuromuscular blockade; otoxocity; teratogen Require O2 for uptake

75
Q

Antifungal that causes bone marrow suppression?

A

Flucytosine

76
Q

INH toxicity?

A

INH; Injures Neurons and Hepatocytes; Pyridoxine can prevent neurotoxicity

78
Q

Do not take this antibiotic with Milk or iron containing products?

A

Tetracycline– forms a divalent cation that cannot be absorbed by gut

78
Q

Competitively inhibits IMP dehydrogenase leading to inhibition of guanine nucleotides?

A

Ribavirin

80
Q

Treatment for simple UTI?

A

SMX

81
Q

Treats toxoplasmosis?

A

Pyrimethamine

83
Q

Always used with imipenem to decrease inactivation of drug in renal tubules?

A

Cilastatin

84
Q

CD4 count of

A

TMP SMX– to prevent pneumocystis and toxoplasmosis

86
Q

Macrolide Toxicity

A

MACRO: Motility issues, Arrhythmias (Torsades), Cholestatic hepatitis, Rash, eOsinophilia

87
Q

Tetracycline toxicities: 5

A

Discoloration of teeth; inhibition of bone growth in children; photosensitivity; GI— also teratogenic

89
Q

Used for meningitis and gonorrhea?

A

Ceftriaxone

90
Q

Use for pseudomonas?

A

Ticarcillin/piparacillin–use with clavulanic acid AND Ceftazidime (celine has pseudomonas)

91
Q

Patient presents with jaundice, fatigue, and upper left quadrant pain after being treated for an infection. Possible disease and medication?

A

Penicillin and Hemolyic anemia

92
Q

Interferon toxicity?

A

Myopathy and neutropenia

93
Q

increases nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides?

A

Cephalosporins

93
Q

Aztreonam: MOA? and Use?

A

Monobactem that prevents peptidoglycan cross linking by binding to PBP3; and used for gram negative rods only; for people with renal insufficiency who cannot tolerate aminoglycosides and people who are allergic to penicillin– is synergistic with aminoglycosides

93
Q

Drug for M. pneumoniae?

A

Tetracycline

93
Q

MOA of chloramphenicol?

A

Blocks peptidyl transferase at 50S

93
Q

What does INH need in order to be converted to its active metabolite?

A

KatG

94
Q

TB drug that causes hyperuricemia?

A

Pyrazinamide

95
Q

Increases warfarin metabolism?

A

Griseofulvin

97
Q

Antibiotic causes gray baby syndrome?

A

Chloramphenicol– babies lack UDP glucuronyl transferase

98
Q

MOA of INH?

A

decreases synthesis of mycolic acids; Bacterial catalase peroxidase (KatG)

99
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

Gentamicin; neomycin; amikacin; tobramycin; streptomycin Inhibits initiation complex and causes misreading of mRNA

101
Q

Block nucleotide synthesis by inhibiting folic acid synthesis?

A

Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim

103
Q

May cause acute tubular necrosis?

A

Aminoglycosides (gentamicin, neomycin, amikacin, tobramycin, streptomycin)

104
Q

MOA of chloromphenicol?

A

Block peptidyl transferase (50s)

105
Q

MOA of ethambutol?

A

Used in TB; decrease carbohydrate polymerization of mycobacterium cell wall by blocking arabinosyltransferase

106
Q

Chloroquine use?

A

Plasmodium other than falciparum

107
Q

Prodrug of acyclovir?

A

Valacyclovir– side effects are hallucinations and seizures

109
Q

Linezolide MOA?

A

blocks initiation (blocks linitiation)

110
Q

Inhibits viral dna polymerase– does not require viral kinase?

A

Foscarnet and Cidofovir

112
Q

Gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

114
Q

Antibiotic that leaves metallic taste in mouth?

A

Metronidazole

115
Q

How is ganciclovir activated?

A

5’ monophosphate formed by CMV viral kinase Triphosphate formed by cellular kinases—- Both inhibit viral dna polymerase

117
Q

Sulfonamides MOA?

A

Block nucleotide synthesis by inhibiting folic acid synthesis

119
Q

Uses for ampicillin amoxicillin?

A

ampcillin/amoxicillin HELPSS kill; (Hinfluenza; E.coli; listeria; Proteus; salmonella; shigella) enterococci

119
Q

Forms free radical toxic metabolites?

A

Metronidazole

121
Q

Used for C. diff and multidrug resistant gram positives?

A

Vancomycin

123
Q

Drug for Ecoli and lIsteria?

A

ampicillin/amoxicillin HELPSS

124
Q

Causes CMV retinitis in immunocompromised patients? and used for acyclovir resistant hsv?

A

Cidofovir

126
Q

Amphotericin B: MOA? toxicity?

A

Binds ergosterol forming pores that allow leakage of electrolytes Fever/chills; hypotension; nephrotoxicity, arrhythmias, anemia, IV phlebitis; Liposomal amphotericin reduces toxicity

127
Q

4 R’s of Rifampin?

A

Rna polymerase inhibitor Revs up microsomal p450 Red/orange body fluids Rapid resistance if used alone

128
Q

Macrolide uses?

A

Atypical pneumonia, STDs, gram positive cocci– strep infections in patients allergic to penicillin

129
Q

Can cause kernicterus?

A

Sulfanomides

131
Q

Penicillin mostly used for?

A

Gram positive and N. meningitidis, Treponema and Syphilis

131
Q

Vit K deficiency?

A

Cephalosporin

132
Q

Blocks 30S ribosomal subunit?

A

Aminoglycoside and Tetracycline

133
Q

Drug that causes pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Clindamycin

135
Q

Trimethroprim toxicity?

A

TMP: Treats Marrow Poorly: megaloblastic anemia, leukopenia, granulocytopenia

136
Q

Block 50S ribosomal subunit

A

Macrolides, Clindamycine, Streptogramins, linezolid, Chloramphenicol

138
Q

Prevention of postsurgical infection due to S. aureus?

A

Cefazolin

138
Q

Blocks detoxification of heme into hemozoin?

A

Chloroquine– resistance due to membrane pump that decreases intracellular concentration of drug

140
Q

Blocks A site preventing binding of aminoacyl tRNA?

A

Tetracyclines 30s d

141
Q

Penicillin MOA?

A

Block cell wall synthesis by inhibiting peptidoglycan cross linking– by binding penicillin binding proteins (transpeptidases)

142
Q

treatment of Vancomycin resistant bacteria?

A

Linezolid and streptogramins and tigecycline

143
Q

Uses of Trimethoprim?

A

Pneumocystis, shigella, salmonella

144
Q

Imipenem/cilastatin, meropenem

A

Carbapenem– Beta lactamase resistant

145
Q

Ribavirin?

A

Inhibits IMP dehydrogenase

146
Q

Binds 23S rRNa of 50S ribosomal subunit?

A

Macrolides

147
Q

MOA of Rifampin?

A

Inhibit DNA dependent RNA polymerase

149
Q

NRTI used during pregnancy to reduce risk of HIV transmission?

A

ZDV– zidovudine

150
Q

Inhibit DNA gyrase?

A

Fluoroquinolones

152
Q

Treats lung abscesses

A

Clindamycin

153
Q

Prevents staph aureus wound infections prior to surgery?

A

Cefazolin– 1st generation cephalosporin

154
Q

ADH antagonist that is rarely used as an antibiotic

A

Demeclocycline– used for SIADH; tetracycline (demeCLO will make you GO)

155
Q

Metronidazole

A

forms free radical toxic metabolites

156
Q

Used for candida?

A

Caspofungin or micafungin; may cause flushing due to histamine release

157
Q

Pt treated for staph aureus. Possible drug toxicity of the drug used to treat her?

A

Oxacillin, nafcillin, dicloxacillin– interstitial nephritis

157
Q

Drug for Chlamydia?

A

Tetracycline

159
Q

Inhibits DNA polymerase by chain termination?

A

Acyclovir– needs to be phophorylated by thymidine kinase in order to work

160
Q

Fluoroquinolones should not be taken with?

A

antacids

161
Q

HIV drug that may cause hypercholesterolemia?

A

Raltegravir

162
Q

Prevents peptidoglycan cross linking by binding to PBP3

A

Aztreonam

164
Q

Tetracycline: MOA? Limits?

A

1) Bacteriostatic; binds to 30S and prevents attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA2) Limited CNS penetration3) Can be used in patients with renal failure–excreted fecally

165
Q

Antiviral and antifungal that are teratogenic?

A

Griseofulvin and Ribavirin

166
Q

Used for gram negative rods in patients who due to renal insufficiency cannot tolerate aminoglycosides or are penicillin allergic

A

Aztreonam

167
Q

Treats leishmaniasis?

A

Sodium stibogluconate

168
Q

Inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase?

A

Trimethroprim

169
Q

Block peptidyl transferase at 50S?

A

Macrolides and Chloramphenicol

170
Q

Interferes with proofreading process of translation, initiation, and translocation?

A

Aminoglycosides 30s

171
Q

Blocks arabinosyltransferase?

A

Ethambutol

172
Q

Used for oral candidiasis?

A

Nystatin (same as amphotericin B; topical form; too toxic to swallow)

173
Q

Block peptidyl transferase?

A

Chloramphenicol

174
Q

Gray baby?

A

Chloramphenicol

175
Q

Terbinafine MOA?

A

Inhibits squalene reductase

176
Q

Causes kernicterus during preg?

A

Sulfonamides

177
Q

Azoles: MOA? Toxicity?

A

Inhibits ergosterol synthesis Blocks testosterone synthesis (gynecomastia); and liver dysfunction

178
Q

Binds gp41

A

Enfuvirtide

179
Q

Binds CCR5 and inhibits interaction with gp120

A

Mariviroc

Elliot Step 1 (32 decks)

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