Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Elliot Step 1 > Micro Cards > Flashcards

Micro Cards Flashcards

1
Q

Cellulitis?

A

Pasteurella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

undulant fever?

A

Brucella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Unpasteurized dairy?

A

Brucella; listeria; campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Dairy products and dogs? treat with?

A

Yersenia– aminoglycosides with tetracycline; bipolar staining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Puppies and bloody diarrhea?

A

Campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cat scratch disease? Treatment?

A

Bartonella; macrolides and doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Casseating granulomas and painful ulcers?

A

Francisella– from rabbits (think of radishes underground in video)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Aerosols of cattle; no rash; fever; pneumonia

A

Q fever; Coxiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Osteomyelitis and cellulitis?

A

Pasteurella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Gray vaginal discharge

A

Gardnerella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Clue cells

A

Gardnerella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Gray discharge– pH?

A

Between 5-6.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatment of gray discharge?

A

Gardnerella– metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

+ whiff test plus clue cells?

A

Gardnerella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Patchy infiltrates on X ray but patient not in bad shape?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

IgM cold agglutinins?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bacteria with no cell wall+ eatons agar?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Treatment of bacteria that causes patchy infiltrates on xray in patient with fever, headache, non productive cough?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia required macrolides or fluoroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Only bacteria with cholesterol in cell membrane?

A

Mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Rash that starts at wrist treatment?

A

Rickettsia rickettsii– RMSF– doxycycline (Rickets tires)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Weil felix agglutination test- this bacteria requires what cofactors

A

CoA(ch) and NAD+ (name of drink)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Causes vasculitis– treatment?

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever– doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Rash that starts on wrist– spread via?

A

Dermatick–RMSF (dermacenter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Spread by louse?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii (throwing around louse football)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Rash starts out centrally and spread out sparing face, palms and soles- requires what substances to proliferate?

A

R. prowazekii– NAD+ (name of drink) and CoA (CH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Palm sole rash Ddx: 3?

A

CARS: Coxsackie a infection; RMSF; Syphilis– drive CARS using palms and soles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Myalgias, pneumonia, centrally located rash– requires?

A

Prowazekii; NAD+ and CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Berry like inclusions in cytoplasm?

A

Ehrlichiosis (monocytes with morula)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Monocytes with morula

A

Ehrlichiosis (berry like inclusions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Histology of Ehrlichiosis?

A

Monocytes with morula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Histology of Anaplasmosis?

A

Granulocytes with morula in cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Granulocytes with morula in cytoplasm?

A

Anaplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

No arthropod vector, no rash, fever, hepatitis

A

Coxiella (Curly Q)– think of cow with liver painted on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cannot make own ATP; STD?

A

Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Chlamydia replication?

A

Replicate in reticulate body; and infect via elementary body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Elementary body?

A

Chlamydia’s enfectious form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Joint pain; sexually active; conjunctivitis– treatment?

A

Chlaymydia– treat with macrolide (favored due to one time dose) or doxycycline (ceftriaxone to cover gonorrhaea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Leading cause of blindness world wide?

A

Chlamydia A-C (blind pirate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Chlamydia is missing what in cell wall?

A

Muramic acid– so treat with macrolide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cytoplasmic inclusion seen on giemsa stain? Treatment?

A

Chlamydia– macrolides or doxy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

lacks Muramic acid in cell wall– blindness?

A

Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Short sudden bursts of coughing, watery discharge from vagina– ?

A

Chlamydia D-K– staccato cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Enlarged lymph nodes in groin area– start off painless and become painful?

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum L1-L3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Variable gram stain?

A

Gardnerella–treat with KOH prep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Stages 1,2,3 of lyme disease?

A

1) erythema chronicum migrans (bulls eye)– flu like sx2) Cardiac block with bells palsy3) Musculoskeletal (arthritis) and neurologic (encephalitis and polyneuropathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Host of child tick lyme disease?

A

Mouse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Host of adult tick in Lyme disease?

A

Deer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Central clearing rash– tick? what else uses this tick?

A

Ixode; Babesia is also carried by Ixode tick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

AV nodal block after camping trip a few months ago–? Treatment?

A

Doxy (Robbin hood on cycle shooting bow)Lyme disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Stain for lyme disease?

A

Wright stain (Sir Wright) and Giemsa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Reddening of eyes but no exudate?– found in?

A

Leptospira interrogans– water contaminated with animal urine (Think surfer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Jaundice, fever, question mark shaped bacteria?

A

Leptospira

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Leptospira looks like on histology?

A

Question mark– duh it’s a spirochete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Bug that can cause kidney dysfunction; found in urine contaminated water?

A

Leptospira

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Jaundice, azotemia, fever, hemorrhage, and anemia?

A

Leptospira– Weil’s disease (think Whale) (surfer, with kidney, RBCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Weil’s disease?

A

icterohemorrhagic leptospirosis– severe form of jaundice and azotemia associated with leptospira infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Painless genital ulcer? screen with? confirm with?

A

Syphilis; screen with VDRL; confirm with FTA-ABS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Immune response of syphilis?

A

Th1 even though Treponema is extracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Condyloma lata

A

Treponema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Condyloma accumulata

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Hallmark of tertiary syph?

A

Gummas (chronic granulomas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Tabes dorsalis causes neuro issues in wha tpart of spinal cord?

A

Dorsal column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Tertiary syphilis may have what cardiac affect?

A

Aortitis dt vaso vasorum destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Charcot joints

A

Tertiary syph– degeneration of weight bearing joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Positive Romberg test + funny acting pupils

A

Tertiary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Rash in syphilis is?

A

Palms and soles (also seen in coxsackie A, rickettsia)– drive CARS with palms and soles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Anterior convexing tibia in newborn?

A

Congential syph– saber shins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Saddle nose?

A

Congenital syph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Teeth in congenital syph (2)?

A

mulberry molars and hutchinson teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Placental transmission of syph usually occurs when?

A

First trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Tree barking aorta?

A

Tertiary syphilis– vaso vasorum destruction leads to aortitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Causes false positive in VDRL syph test?

A

Viruses (mono, hep); Drugs; Rheumatic fever; Lupus, leprosy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Another screening test for syph other than VDRL?

A

RPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Cause of reaction that begins after treatment of syphilis?

A

Killed bacteria releases pyrogens– Jarisch Herxheimer reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Maculopapular rash (5)

A

Measles, Rubella, Scarlet fever, Syphilis, Parvo B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Rash caused by Rubella?

A

Maculopapular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Rash caused by Scarlet fever?

A

Maculopapular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Rash caused by Syphilis?

A

Maculopapular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Cranial nerve defect in congenital syph?

A

Deafness (8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Baby born with weird teeth and deaf?

A

Syph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Gram positive abscess formation?

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Protein A virulence factor?

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Virulence factor of Staph?

A

Protein A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Mechanism of protein A

A

binds Fc-IgG inhibiting complement fixation and phagocytosis— STAPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Treatment of resistant strains of gm+ organism with protein A virulence factor?

A

Vancoymycin (staph)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Mech of TSST superantigen?

A

binds MHCII and TCR resulting in polyclonal t cell activation (Staph)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Widespread formation of fluid filled blisters with formation of blisters within minutes of rubbing skin?

A

Staph– caused by exfoliative toxin (scalded skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Bunch of people at picnic get sick from potato salad– toxin?

A

Staph– Enterotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Fever, vomiting, desquamating rash, dec blood pressure?

A

TSST superantigen found in Staph- binds mhcII and TCR resulting in polyclonal t cell activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Pneumonia with patchy infiltrates

A

M. pneumonia or Staph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

staph is resistant to ?

A

Beta lactams because of altered penicillin binding protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Beta hemolytic coagaulase and catalase+?

A

Staph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Causes acute bacterial endocarditis in IV drug users?

A

staph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Staph aureus food poisoning is caused by ingestion of?

A

preformed toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Common cause of osteomyelitis; gm+

A

staph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Post viral bacterial pneumonia?

A

Staph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Bug that infects prosthetic devices– MOA?

A

Produces adherent biofilms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Novobiocin sensitive?

A

staph epi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

novobiocin resistant?

A

staph saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Staph saprophyticus can cause?

A

UTIs in sexually active women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Treatment of staph epi

A

Vancomycin (think Van behind plumber)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

alpha hemolytics?

A

pneumoniae and viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Optochin sensitive?

A

strep pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Quellung positive group A

A

strep pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Optochin resistant?

A

strep viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Can cause dental carries?

A

Strep mutans which is part of viridan group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Can cause subacute bacterial endocarditis at damaged valves?

A

Viridans–s. sanguis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

MOA of sanguis?

A

Sticks to damaged valves by making glycocalyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Susceptible in sickle cell disease to what bacteria?

A

Strep pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Strep pneumo causes?

A

MOPS; meningitis, otitis media, pneumonia, sinusitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Lancet shaped diploccoi

A

strep pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Rusty sputum

A

strep pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Strep pneumo virulence?

A

Capsule– NOT VIRULENT WITHOUT CAPSULE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Treatment of strep pneumo?

A

Cetriaxone and macrolides (axes and birds at knight tournament)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Strep pneumo vaccine in adults produces?

A

IgM response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Strep pneumo vaccine in children produces?

A

IgG response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Virulence factor of rheumatic fever? MOA?

A

M protein (m on bakers hat)– inhibits phagocytosis and creates molecular mimicry against mitral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Bacitracin sensitive?

A

strep pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Detection of recent pyogenes infection?

A

ASO titer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Widspread rash sparing the face; pharyngitis?

A

Scarlet fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Honey crusted lesions?

A

strep pyogenes– impetigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Causes lyses of RBC, gm+ catalase negative

A

Streptolysin O in strep pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Jones criteria of rheumatic fever?

A

Joints (first thing); heart (shape); nodules (subcutaneous); erythema marginatum; sydenhams chorea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Strep pyogenes causes 3 main things and subtypes

A

1) pyogenic: pharyngitis; cellulitis; impetigo2) Toxigenic: scarlet fever; toxic shock like syndrome; necrotizing fasciitis3) Immunologic: rheumatic fever; acute glomerulonephritis (cola colored urine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Capsule in strep pyogenes is made of ?

A

Hyaluronic acid

126
Q

Impetigo in strep pyogenes generally preceeds?

A

Glomerulonephritis

127
Q

Job of streptokinase?

A

Activates circulating plasminogen to plasmin to degrade clots

128
Q

Superantigen in strep pyogenes?

A

exotoxin A

129
Q

Bacitracin resistant?

A

Strep agalactiae

130
Q

Strep agalactiae produces what?

A

CAMP factor– enlarges area of hemolysis formed by s. aureus

131
Q

CAMP factor

A

strep agalactiae

132
Q

1 cause of neonatal meningitis?

A

strep agalactiae

133
Q

when do we screen for group B strep

134
Q

Pregnant mom with strep agalactie– what do you do?

A

treat with penicillin

135
Q

Test for strep agalactiae?

A

hippurate (think of hippo on ground in galactic baby scene)

136
Q

Hippurate positive

A

strep agalactiae

137
Q

Penicillin G resistant and cause UTIs

A

Enterococcus

138
Q

Biliary tract infections– bug?

A

Enterococcus– salmonella typhi also causes gallbladder problems I believe

139
Q

grow in bile and NaCl

A

Enterococcus

140
Q

Growth in bile and not NaCl

A

Strep bovis

141
Q

Enteroccus faecalus is ?

A

More common and less dangerous

142
Q

Enterococcus faecium

A

Less common more dangerous (think of scary guy carrying sign that says No more FEES)

143
Q

Patient presents with biliary tract infection– what can we grow his bug sample on?

A

enterococcus– grow on bile and nacl

144
Q

Treatment of enterococcus resistant to Vanco?

A

Tigecycline and Linezolid (think TIGer police tape and LINE around parameter)

145
Q

Osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease?

A

salmonella

146
Q

Osteomyelitis in teens

A

Neisseria–sexually active

147
Q

Osteomyelitis in diabetics of IV drugs users

A

Pseudomonas

148
Q

Osteomyelitis leading to vertebral body problems

A

Pott disease– tuberculosis

149
Q

Virulence of C. diptheriae

A

exotoxin inhibits ADP riBOWsalation of EF-2

150
Q

psuedomembranous pharyngitis

A

corynbacterium diptheriae

151
Q

Myocarditis and arrhythmias gm+ rod

A

Corynebacterium diptheria

152
Q

Metachromatic blue and red granules

A

Corynebacerium diptheriae

153
Q

Eleks test

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

154
Q

Test for toxin in corynebacterium diptheriae?

155
Q

How is diptheria spread?

A

through respiratory droplets (think bull with droplets coming out of nose and eyes)

156
Q

Club shaped

A

corynebacterium (think morracas in bull fight)

157
Q

Chinese character bacteria?

A

Corynebacterium

158
Q

Teleuride and loughlers medium

A

Corynbacterium (Tele and Laughing)

159
Q

Spores are composed of what?

A

dipicolinic acid at the core

160
Q

Clostridia specias are…bacilli?

A

obligate anaerobic bacilli

161
Q

MOA of tetanus toxin?

A

Protease that cleaves releasing proteins (SNARES) for neurotransmitters

162
Q

Protease that cleaves snares?

A

Tetanus or botulinum

163
Q

Tetanus blocks which two NT?

A

GABA and glycine (inhibitory neurotransmitters)

164
Q

Two inhibitor neurotransmitters? Vaccine binds?

A

GABA and glycine– blocked in c. tetani

Vaccine binds toxoid

165
Q

GABA and glycine are released from which cells?

A

Renshaw (monkey with wrench)

166
Q

Renshaw cells?

A

C. tetani– renshaw cells release gaba and glycine which are inhibitory neurotransmitters

167
Q

Risus sardonicus

168
Q

Opisthonos

A

Overarching of back seen in C tetani

169
Q

C. botulinum inhibits?

A

ACh release at neuromuscular junction

170
Q

Adult disease in c botulinum is caused by

A

preformed toxin!

171
Q

Child disease in c botulinum is caused by?

172
Q

2 month old presents with paralysis of arms that started in face, drooping eyes

A

C. botulinum caused by the spore of honey or canned goods

173
Q

Lymphadenopathy, myocarditis, membranous stuff on pharynx

A

corynebacteria

174
Q

Produced alpha toxin? whats in alpha toxin

A

C perfringens– lecithinase (a phospholipase)

175
Q

Toxin produced by c perfringens? whats in toxin?

A

Alpha toxin–lecithinase (phospholipase)

176
Q

Myonecrosis and hemolysis?

A

C perfringens

177
Q

Double zone of hemolysis on blood agar?

A

C perfringens

178
Q

Person working on a farm develops myonecrosis

A

C. perfringens–spore found in soil

179
Q

Where is C. perfringens found?

180
Q

C perfringens associated with what type of accident?

A

motorcycle accidents

181
Q

Two toxins of C. diff and functions of toxins

A

Toxin A= enterotoxin; binds to brush border (think choc. factory brushing choc on apples (a)) of gutToxin B= Cytotoxin; destroys cytoskeletal structure of enterocytes–>pseudomembranous colitis

182
Q

pseudomembranous colitis

183
Q

C diff usually secondary to use of which antibiotic?

A

Clindamycin or ampicillin

184
Q

How do we detect C. diff?

A

Toxins in stool (NOT BACTERIA)

185
Q

Treatment of C. diff?

A

Vanco or metronidazole (think Van and metro in chocolate factory)

186
Q

Bacteria with polypeptide capsule? what does it contain?

A

Anthrax– contains D glutamate (poly D symbol on viking chest)

187
Q

D glutamate capsule?

188
Q

Black painless eschar?

189
Q

Rods and chains bacteria?

190
Q

Pulmonary hemorrhage, fever– what else would we see? How does one get this?

A

Anthrax– see mediastinitis (think shape of ax with blood on it); transmitted via spores from contaminated wool (wool on armor)

191
Q

Edema factor–>?

A

Increased cAMP (via Ca2+)–> increase in fluid–>helps bug evade phagocytosis– bacillas anthracis

192
Q

Lethal factor–>?

A

Snips off N-terminus of MAPK– bacillas anthrax

193
Q

Two enzymes of Anthrax?

A

Edema factor and Lethal factor

194
Q

Treatment of Anthrax?

A

Fluoroquinolones and doxycyline (think of flower on vikings shoulder along next to tire on boat)

195
Q

Toxin of bacillus cereus?

A

Cereulide– preformed toxin

196
Q

watery, nonbloody diarrheam GI pain, reheated food

A

B. cereius– cereulide toxin

197
Q

How does listeria move?

A

via actin rockets (rocket on christmas); tumbling motility (Santa tumbling down fireplace

198
Q

cat+; gm+ rod; beta hemolytic

199
Q

Granulomatosis infantiseptica?

200
Q

Treat Listeria with?

A

Ampicillin in infants (AMP with guitar for christmas)

201
Q

Actinomyces?

A

Gm+ aNaerobe (think soldier with gas mask); filamentous branching rods

202
Q

Nocardia?

A

gm+ aerobe (bellow

203
Q

Gm+ filamentous branching rods?

A

actinomyces and nocardia

204
Q

Oral and facial abscesses that form yellow sulfur granules

A

actinomyces (soldier with facial abscesses)– drain through sinus tracts

205
Q

Patient presents with oral abscess after dental work?

A

Actinomyces (yellow sulfur granules– yellow sand in israel)

206
Q

Treatment of actinomyces?

A

Penicillin G– think of israeli solider with pencilin against tree

207
Q

Pulmonary infection in cancer patient. bug is found in soil?

A

Nocardia (no card game for old men); acid fast (mycolic acids)

208
Q

HIV patient undergoes a bicycling accident and develops indurated lesions on the skin; bug is acid fast; how would we treat him?

A

Nocardia causes cutaneous infections in immunocompromised after trauma— TREAT with Sulfonamides (eggs on counter in no card game for old men contains lot of sulfonamides)

209
Q

6 causes of osteomyelitis

A

1) Staph
2) N. gonorrhaea
3) Salmonella–sickle cell disease
4) Pseudomonas
5) Pasteurella
6) TB

210
Q

Connection between sickle cell and osteomyelitis

A

Salmonella can cause osteomyelitis in sickle cell patient

211
Q

Budding yeast in macrophages?

A

Histoplasmosis– bird or bat droppings– mississippi ohio river valley

212
Q

Broad based bud

A

Blastomycosis– east of mississippi; forms granulomas; pneumonia; ulcerating pimple

213
Q

Patient from North Carolina presents with pneumonia and ulcerating pimple– fungi?

A

Blastomycosis

214
Q

HIV patient presents with pulmonary infection, arthralgias and rash. He’s from New mexico– describe the organism?

A

Coccidioidomycosis– thick walled spherule with endospores– southwestern US

215
Q

Thick walled spherules with endospores?

A

Coccidioidomycosis– cutaneous lesions; pulmonary infections

216
Q

Budding yeast with central circle

A

Paracoccidioidomycosis

217
Q

Patient complains of a rash that develops after she comes back from the beach. On KOH prep there is a stringy clumpy appearance– disease and process?

A

Malassezia furfur– degradation of fats produce acids that damage the melanocytes and cause hypopigmentation. The suntan made the hypopigmentation more noticeable

218
Q

Pseudohyphae and budding yeast at 20C

A

Aspergillas

219
Q

Drug user develops endocarditis on tricuspid valve. Organism exhibits germ tubes when grown at 37C–organism? Treatment?

A

Candida– amphotericin B for systemic disease; fluconazole for oral/esophageal.

220
Q

Candida– random facts

A

Increased risk of infection with candida in patient with neutropenia; pseudohypae at 20c; germ tubes at 37c

221
Q

Patient who is a farmer says he is deficient in NADPH oxidase and Asthma. He presents with wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath– describe organism?

A

Aspergillus– 45 degrees; not dimorphic; Causes allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis; grown on vegitation
May cause aspergillomas in lung cavities
Aspergillus most common in immunocompromised and those with CGD

222
Q

45 degree branching and radiating chains of spores

A

Aspergillus– seen in farmers because grows on vegetables; looks like stalk with colorful round thing at the end

223
Q

Aspergillus produce aflatoxin which is associated with?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

224
Q

HIV patient living on the streets presents with meningitis. The organism stains with India ink. What agar would you use? What woudl latex agglutination test detect? What will you see in brain

A

Cryptococcus– Sabourauds agar; latex would show polysaccharide capsular antigen; has large capsule

See soap bubble lesions in brain

225
Q

Treatment of cryptococcus?

A

Flucanozole

226
Q

Patient presents with slow deep breaths, purulent discharge, black eschar on face, and orbital pain. Organism? Treatment?

A

Mucor and Rhizopus– branch at 90 degrees.
Most common in ketoacidotic diabetic (the fungi likes ketones and glucose)
Penetrates the cribriform plate and enters brain.
Treat with amphotericin b

227
Q

Fungi that affects paranasal sinuses?

A

Mucor Rhizopus

228
Q

HIV patient presents with interstitial pneumonia. How is the organism spread?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii is spread via inhalation

229
Q

Disc shaped yeast forms on methenamin silver stain of lung?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

230
Q

Treatment of pneumocystis jirovecii

A

TMP SMX, pentamidine, dapsone

231
Q

Child dives into a bunch of bushes at home to catch a football. He develops reddish pinkish round nodules on his arm. Organism? Describe organism?Treatment

A

Sporothrix Schenckii– rose gardners disease; caused by prick from thorn. Grows on vegetation. Dimorphic cigar shaped budding yeast; forms subQ nodules
Treat with itraconazole or potassium iodide (Plant Rose in the pot)

232
Q

Dimorphic, budding yeast, skin rash; Lives on vegetation?

A

Sporothrix Schenckii

233
Q

Pseudohyphae and budding yeast; causes diaper rash in children?

234
Q

Differential for bird droppings?

A

Histoplasmosis (because lives in histiocytes) or cryptococcus

235
Q

Granulomas+ulcerating pimple?

A

Blastomycosis; broad based budding; Blasto buds broadly

236
Q

Chronic Granulomatous disease+ bug?

A

Aspergillus

237
Q

Bug associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Aspergillus– produced aflatoxin

238
Q

Patient presents with bloody diarrhea after a camping trip. The patients stool shows mobile bug with ingested RBC–what will histology show? Where did the bug come from? Treatment?

A

Entamoeba presents with dysentery, liver abscess. Can get it from cysts in the water. Histology will show flask shaped ulcer if submucosal abscess of colon ruptures. Treatment is with metronidazole (forms free radical toxic metabolites– causes disulfiram reaction sometimes)

239
Q

Serology shows trophozites with RBCs in cytoplasm?

A

Entameoba– cysts ingested and differentiate to trophozites in ileum (trophozites have 4 nuclei cysts)

240
Q

Differential for protozoal diarrhea?

A 
Bloody= entamoeba
Watery= cryptosporidium
Fatty= Giardia
241
Q

20yoF presents 2 weeks after a camping trip with foul smelling stools– what will trophozites look like?

A

2 nuclei with 4 pairs of moustache flagella

242
Q

2 nuclei, and 4 pairs of moustache flagella?

243
Q

HIV patient presents with severe diarrhea that is non bloody. The patient had previously visited a farm. What diagnosis tool should be used for this trophozite?

A

Acid fast stain

244
Q

Patient with CF, from Iowa– works on a farm, presents with wheezing and coughing– bug?

A

Aspergillus (septa hyphae branches at 45 degrees); one long stick with bunch of tiny little round things at end (fruiting body). Can cause allergic bronchipulmonary aspergillosis in asthma and CF

245
Q

Patient presents with vaginal greenish, watery foul smelling discharge. How is organism spread? What does it look like on wet mount?

A

Spread through sexual contact. Cannot survive outside environment because it LACKS a CYST. Looks like a tear drop (5 flagella, 1 nucleus)

246
Q

Causes brain abscess in HIV patient?

A

Toxoplasmosis– seen as ring enhancing lesions– treat with sulfadiazine ad pyrimethamine

247
Q

Neonate presents with retinal inflammation, increased ICP, and intracranial calcifications. Where did mother get bug from? Treatment? What does it look like on histology?

A

Cysts in meat or cats; mother is asymptomatic
Sulfadiazine+pyrimethamine
Crescent shaped trophozites

248
Q

Patient presents with dilated cardiomyopathy, megaesophagus after visiting south america? Transmission? Treatment?

A

Trypnasoma cruzi; Chagas’ disease: megacolon and romanas sign can be seen also (causes achalasia).

Transmitted via the reduviid bug (kissing bug), painless bite much like a kiss

Treat with nifurtimox

249
Q

Treatment of trypnasoma cruzi?

A

Nifurtimox

250
Q

Trypnasoma transmited via?

A

Reduviid bug

251
Q

Pt from tropical country presents with weight loss and fever. PE revelas massive hepatosplenomegaly with edema and hyperpigmented skin patches. CBC shows thrombocytopenia, and anemia– bug? Transmission? Histology? Treatment?

A

Leishmania (kalazar– means black illness for hyperpigmented skin lesions): spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia

Transmitted via sandfly
See macrophages containing amastigotes

Treat with sodium stibogluconate

252
Q

Macrophages with amastigotes?

A

Lesihmania; transmitted via sandfly

253
Q

Treatment of leishmania?

A

sodium stibogluconate

254
Q

Pt from Africa presents with chronic fatigue, enlarged lymph nodes, and recurrent fevers? Transmission? Treatment?

A

Trypansoma brucei: african sleeping sickness due to antigenic variation which allows protozoa to evade immune response
Transmitted via tsetse fly; painful bite

Treated with suramin for blood borne disease
Melarsoprol for CNS penetration

255
Q

Dormant form of malaria?

A

P. vivax/ovale– treatwith chloroquine which blocks heme polymerase– use mefloquine if resistant

256
Q

Worst form of malaria?

A

Falciparum (“Fal”ing fast”)

257
Q

Test patients for blank before giving malarial meds?

A

G6PD deficiency

258
Q

How is Listeria distinguished from beta hemolytic strep?

A

Listeria is catalase+

259
Q

These bacteria resemble fungi due to branching filaments?

A

Actinomyces and nocardia

260
Q

Sore throat and acute hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

Adenovirus (no envelope); conjunctivitis; and pneumonia as well

261
Q

Pink eye?

A

Adenovirus (“Adam NO! farting on your brother, you’ll give him pink eye”)

262
Q

causes aplastic crisis in sickle cell disease? What is special about this DNA virus?

A

Parvovirus (no envelope)– SINGLE STRANDED

RBC APLASIA AND RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS IN ADULTS

263
Q

JC virus? BK?

A

Polyomavirus– JC: Junky cerebrum

BK: bad kidney

264
Q

Flesh colored dome lesions with central dimple?

265
Q

Most common cause of sporadic encephalitis in us?

A

Temporal lobe encephalitis due to HSV 1

266
Q

Owl eye inclusion bodies on histology?

267
Q

1yo presents after having a seizure. The child has had a fever for the past several days. She now has a diffuse macular rash

A

HHV6 Roseola

268
Q

Pico viruses?

A

PERCH

Polio; Echo; Rhino; Coxsackie; HAV

269
Q

MCC of viral gastroenteritist in children?

A

Rota virus

270
Q

MCC of viral gastroenteritis in adults?

A

Norovirus– part of calicivirus family (people in California shit a lot)

271
Q

Influenza virus is part of what family?

A

Orthomyxovirus

272
Q

Paramyxoviruses? 3

A

Parainfluenza, RSV, Measles, Mumps

PaRaMyxo

273
Q

High fever, black vomitus, and jaundice?

A

Yellow fever causes black vomit (Flavivirus)

274
Q

Describe rotavirus?

A

dsRNA; segmented–>villous destruction with atrophy leads to dec absorption of Na and loss of K+

275
Q

Rash that starts at the head and moves down; postauricular adenopathy; deafness

A

Rubella virus– congenital rubella looks like blueberry muffin

276
Q

F protein?

A

Paramyxovirus– fusion protein causes respiratory epithelial cells to fuse and form multinucleated cells

277
Q

Palivizumab?

A

Prevents pneumonia caused by RSV infection in premature infants

278
Q

Koplick spots?

A

Measles– paraMyxo

279
Q

Cough, coryza, conjunctivitis?

280
Q

Rubella rash vs measles rash?

A

Rubella=truncal

Measles= involves hands and feet

281
Q

Severe pneumonia; fever; GI and CNS symptoms–bug? how do we detect?

A

Legionella; detect clinically by antigen in urine; silver stain; grows on charcoal extract with iron and cystein

282
Q

pericardial knock

A

constric. pericarditis

283
Q

bipolar staining

284
Q

how is yersenia secreted?

A

via type III secretion system

285
Q

Swollen tender lymph nodes on skin

A

bubbos- yersenia

286
Q

seafood contaminated by?

A

vibrio subtypes

287
Q

Pt has difficulty urinating; swarming motility when plated?

A

Proteus– struvite stones– fishy odor

288
Q

anal pruritus

A

enterobius vermicularis treat with mybuttazole

289
Q

Intestinal infection leading to bilirubin stones– fecal oral

A

ascaris lumbricoides

290
Q

Larvae in soil penetrate the skin

A

Strongyloides; intestinal infection, vomiting diarrhea anemia– treat with IVermectin (ivan is a STRONG man)

291
Q

Black flies, black skin nodules, black sight

A

Onchorcer volvulus– black volvo drove into river000 treat with “iver”mectin for river

292
Q

brain cysts; seizures; intestinal infection; from undercooked pork

A

Taenia solium– treat with praziquantel

293
Q

b12 deficiency; tape worm; trasmitted from fresh water fish

A

Diphyllobothrium laktum– praziquantel

294
Q

liver and spleen granulomas; fibrosis and inflammation; squamous cell carcinoma of bladder

A

schistosoma– treat with praziquantel

295
Q

Biliary tract inflammation–>pigmented gallstones– cuased by undercooked fish

A

Clonorchis sinensis associated with cholangiocarcinoma

296
Q

undercooked crab meat; lung inflammation and HEMOPTYSIS

A

paragonimus westermani

297
Q

liver cysts parasite

A

Echinococcus

298
Q

parasite microcytic anemia

A

necator and ancylostoma

299
Q

Catalase +

A

PLACESS pseudomonas, listeria, aspergillus, candida, ecoli, staph serratia

300
Q

epiglottitis, meningitis, otitis media, pneumonia

A

HaEMOPhilus– caused by capsular type B

301
Q

Treat haemophilus with?

A

cephtriaxon; – vaccine contains b capsular polysaccharide conjugated to diptheria toxoid

302
Q

Carbol fuschin stain

303
Q

Cord factor

304
Q

freshwater lakes– rapidly fatal meningioencepahlitis

A

naegleria fowleri

305
Q

All DNA are linear except

A

papilloma, polyoma and hepadna

306
Q

All RNA are SS except

307
Q

Naked nucleic acids of negative strands

A

are not infectious

308
Q

All viruses are haploid except

A

retrovirus

309
Q

DNA viruses replicate in?

RNA viruses replicate in?

A

DNA= nucleus except pox (has own DNA dependent RNA polymerase)

RNA= cytoplasm except influenza and retro

310
Q

Segmented viruses

A

BOAR

Bunya, ortho, arena, reo

311
Q

H. influenza

A

gram negative coccobacillus that needs NAD and CoA

Elliot Step 1 (32 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions