MCQ day Flashcards

1
Q

Most likely site of mets from Paget’s disease causing primary bone tumour

A

Lungs

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2
Q

Most likely site of mets from sarcoma

A

Lungs

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3
Q

Most likely cause of abdo pain with prev history of intussception

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

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4
Q

Tissue found in Meckel’s

A

Gastric and pancreatic tissue

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5
Q

Organism causing gas in biliary tree/urinary system

A

E. coli

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6
Q

Where are cells responding to an initial decrease in BP

A

Carotid sinus

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7
Q

What does the GFR have to decrease by before a rise in creatinine?

A

50%

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8
Q

Which cell changes do not have increased risk of malignancy?

A

Women - apocrine metaplasia of breast
Men - BPH

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9
Q

HbA1c to carry out elective operating

A

<69

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10
Q

Organism causing blue gallbladder

A

Salmonella typhi

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11
Q

Which blood test is needed prior to haemodialysis?

A

Hep B

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12
Q

Which nerve is encountered superficially during a midline incision of popliteal fossa?

A

Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh

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13
Q

Which investigation is needed prior to commencing trastuzumab?

A

Echo

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14
Q

Which structure is visualised first on TOE?

A

L atrium

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15
Q

When do you have to stop dipyramidole prior to surgery?

A

2 days

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16
Q

Which drug causes irreversible inhibition of platelets?

A

Aspirin

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17
Q

Which embryological structure gives rise to eyes?

A

Surface ectoderm

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18
Q

What is likely biochemical derangement in continued diuresis?

A

Hypokalaemia
Hypernatraemia
Metabolic alkalosis

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19
Q

What type of cell does tetani act on?

A

Interneuron

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20
Q

Most likely causative organism of osteomyelitis of foot

A

Pseudomonas

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21
Q

Cause of hyponatraemia following head injury

A

Supra optic nucleus

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22
Q

Possible consequence of pre op blood transfusion

A

Decreased 2-3 BPG

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23
Q

Which cells allow liver regeneration?

A

Stabile cells

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24
Q

What is the anterior border of posterior abdominal wall hernia?

A

IQ 12
Internal oblique - anterior/lateral
Quadratus lumborum - medial
Lower border of 12th rib - superior

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25
Q

Electrolyte findings in tumour lysis syndrome

A

Hyperphosphataemia
Hypocalcaemia

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26
Q

Which skin cancer in more common on top/bottom lip?

A

BullShit
BCC on top
SCC on bottom

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27
Q

What is the pleural vs serum protein findings in malignant pleural effusion?

A

Pleural protein : serum protein > 0.5 in malignant pleural effusion

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28
Q

Decreased amount of which gas leads to post-op atelectasis?

A

Nitrogen

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29
Q

Which diabetes drugs need to be omitted pre-op?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors
Dapagliflozin

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30
Q

Cause of woody thyroid in young person

A

Reidel’s thyroiditis

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31
Q

Cause of woody thyroid in elderly person

A

Anaplastic thyroid ca

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32
Q

Location of lymph nodes in cancer of tip of tongue

A

Submental

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33
Q

Location of lymph nodes in eyelid cancer

A

Preauricular

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34
Q

Cause of recurrent ear infection in child

A

Levator veli palatini

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35
Q

Clotting factor produced outside liver parenchyma

A

VIII

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36
Q

Which muscle likely affected in supracondylar fracture?

A

FPL (AIN)

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37
Q

Which muscle likely affected in distal radius fracture?

A

EPL

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38
Q

Lymphatic drainage and blood supply of upper 1/3rd of oesophagus

A

Deep cervical lymph nodes
Inferior thyroid artery

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39
Q

Lymphatic drainage of middle 1/3rd of oesophagus

A

Mediastinal lymph nodes

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40
Q

Lymphatic drainage of lower 1/3rd of oesophagus

A

L gastric and coeliac lymph nodes

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41
Q

Drug causing thrombocytopenia

A

Linezolid

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42
Q

Cause of anaemia in resection of terminal ileum

A

Macrocytosis
Low B12

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43
Q

What method of fracture fixation leads to primary bone healing?

A

Compression plating

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44
Q

Cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell anaemia

A

Salmonella

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45
Q

ERAS

A

Remove NG tube post operatively

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46
Q

Lateral leg numbness, weakness of dorsiflexion

A

L4-L5

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47
Q

ECG findings in hypocalcaemia

A

Long QT
Long ST

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48
Q

ECG findings in hypercalcaemia

A

Short QT
Short ST

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49
Q

ECG findings in hyperkalaemia

A

ST elevation
Tall T waves
Long PR
Widened qrs

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50
Q

ECG findings in hypokalaemia

A

Depressed ST
Inverted T wave
U wave

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51
Q

Cause of extrinsic compression of oesophagus

A

Aortic arch

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52
Q

Imaging used to detect venous thrombus

A

MRI

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53
Q

Most likely location of perforation in coeliac disease

A

Ileum

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54
Q

Where are Peyer’s patches found

A

Ileum

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55
Q

Where is iron absorbed?

A

Duodenum

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56
Q

Where is B12 absorbed?

A

Terminal ileum

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57
Q

Where is folic acid absorbed?

A

Jejunum

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58
Q

Farmer with bloody diarrhoea and erythema nodosum

A

Yersinia enterocolitis

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59
Q

Wound infection following appendicitis/diverticulitis

A

Bacteroides fragilis

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60
Q

Minimum body temp before returning patient from theatre to ward

A

36

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61
Q

Which reflexes return first in spinal shock?

A

Deep plantar

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62
Q

Condition to test for before initiation of infliximab

A

TB

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63
Q

What type of drug is infliximab?

A

TNF factor inhibitor

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64
Q

SE of nitrofurantoin

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

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65
Q

Most common location of anal fissure

A

Posterior midline, distal to dentate line

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66
Q

Flagellated bacteria

A

Salmonella

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67
Q

Most likely location of bowel cancer with fatigue and iron deficiency anaemia

A

R sided bowel ca

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68
Q

Enzymes broken down by lactulose

A

Fructose and galactose

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69
Q

Active location of lactulose

70
Q

Most common cell type found in granuloma

A

Epitheloid histiocyte

71
Q

Location of lymphatic spread with uterine fundus tumour

A

Para-aortic

72
Q

Type of amyloid found in carpal tunnel mass

A

Beta 2 microglobulin

73
Q

Type of amyloid found in heart

A

ATTR, transthyretin

74
Q

Life span of platelet

75
Q

Location of Ludwig’s angina

A

Submandibular space

76
Q

Muscle dividing submandibular space

77
Q

Drug cause vasoconstriction of efferent arteriole

A

Angiotensin II

78
Q

Test for gastrinoma

A

Secretin stimulation test

79
Q

Most common location of ectopic testes

A

Superficial inguinal pouch

80
Q

Cause of decreased respiratory rate with increased oxygenation in COPD

A

Carotid body stimulation

81
Q

Location of Peyer’s patches

82
Q

Location of oesophageal varices

83
Q

Location of Brunner’s glands

A

Submucosa (duodenum)

84
Q

Location of muscle weakness leading to haemorrhoids

85
Q

Cause of cleft lip

A

Failure of fusion of maxillary and inter maxillary processes

86
Q

Cause of dumping syndrome

A

Release of insulin

87
Q

Which part of muscle does not change size during contraction?

88
Q

What is the difference between omphalocoele/gastroschisis?

A

Omphalocoele - overcoat, central
Gastroschisis - no peritoneum, R sided

89
Q

Which bone likely to be dislocated when presenting with median nerve palsy?

90
Q

Damage to which nerve causes change in pitch?

A

Superior laryngeal nerve

91
Q

Cause of bilious vomiting with scaphoid abdomen

A

Duodenal atresia

92
Q

Injury to which tendon causing lack of flexion of DIP

93
Q

Thumb dermatome

94
Q

Middle finger dermatome

95
Q

Location of renin production

A

Juxta glomerulosa

96
Q

Location of aldosterone production

A

Zona glomerulosa

97
Q

Location of sodium concentration

A

Macula densa

98
Q

Electrolyte disturbance in gastric outlet obstruction

A

Hypochloraemia
Hypokalaemia
Alkalosis

99
Q

Anterior neck mass causing ear pain

A

Vagus nerve

100
Q

Cause of red, non-painful arm swellings in a gardener

A

Sporothrix Schenkii (fungus)

101
Q

ECG findings in hypothermia

A

Prolonged PR
J wave

102
Q

Lymph node spread in uterine body ca

A

External iliac nodes

103
Q

Lymph node spread in cervical ca

A

Internal iliac nodes

104
Q

First component of blood to be affected following splenectomy

A

Reticulocytes

105
Q

Post splenectomy GI pathology

A

Gastric dilatation

106
Q

Post splenectomy resp pathology

A

Basal atelectasis

107
Q

First site of resistance on catheter insertion

A

Membranous urethra

108
Q

Tumour characterised by nuclear pseudopalisades

A

Glioblastoma multiforme

109
Q

3 pops in LP

A

Supraspinous ligament
Interspinous ligament
Ligamentum flavum

110
Q

Cells found in CSF in bacterial meningitis

A

Neutrophils

111
Q

Cells found in CSF in viral meningitis

A

Lymphocytes

112
Q

Pre malignant cell change

113
Q

Origin of stapes

A

2nd pharyngeal arch

114
Q

Which nerve is at risk in carotid endarterectomy?

A

Hypoglossal nerve

115
Q

MOA ciprofloxacin

A

DNA gyrase
Gyrating on dance floor = ruptured achilles heel

116
Q

Paeds fluids calculation

A

40mls first 10kg
20ml next 10kg
1ml/kg thereafter

117
Q

AAA repair

A

Thrombosis of artery of Adamkiewicz

118
Q

Where does urine drain to in extraperitoneal bladder rupture?

A

Retropubic space

119
Q

Blood supply of L colon

120
Q

Best M&M predictor following lung resection

121
Q

Supply to head of femur in children

A

Ligamentum teres

122
Q

Nerve involved in turning head

A

Accessory nerve

123
Q

Innervation of external urethral sphincter

A

S2, S3, & S4

124
Q

Post-synaptic fibres to supply lacrimal gland

A

Pterygopalantine ganglion

125
Q

Nerve roots affected in Horner’s syndrome

126
Q

Nerve at risk during posterolateral approach to ankle

A

Sural nerve

127
Q

Cause of increased BP and decreased HR in head injury (Cushing’s reflex)

A

Sympathetic stimulation due to raised ICP

128
Q

IgG

A

Plasma cell

129
Q

Muscle covering lateral border of T12 to L4

A

Psoas major

130
Q

Port-wine urine

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

131
Q

Gene involved in MEN1

132
Q

Gene involved in MEN 2a & 2b

133
Q

Order of structures anterior to posterior at renal hilum

134
Q

Where do R&L pulmonary arteries arise from

A

6th pharyngeal arch

135
Q

Which transport system does aldosterone activate

A

Na+/K+ in collecting ducts

136
Q

Where does vertebral arch arise from

A

Subclavian

137
Q

Cause of dark irregular gallstones

A

Unconjugated bilirubin

138
Q

Post splenectomy bloods

A

Howell-Jolly
Thrombocytosis

139
Q

Cause of gastric fundus varices

A

Splenic vein thrombosis

140
Q

Structure at risk in injury to medial third of R clavicle

A

R subclavian

141
Q

Vein involved in varicocele

A

Testicular win

142
Q

Which layer surrounds hydrocele

A

Tunica vaginalis

143
Q

Bony finding in multiple myeloma

A

Osteolytic lesions

144
Q

Level of IVC formation

145
Q

Level of aorta bifurcation

146
Q

Which respiratory parameter does BMI impact

A

Functional residual capacity

147
Q

Where does R testicular vein drain into

148
Q

Where does L testicular vein drain into

A

L renal vein

149
Q

Where is EPO produced

A

PCT in peritubular cells

150
Q

Where is vit D1 hydroxylated

151
Q

Where is vit D25 hydroxylated

152
Q

Why is urine output decreased after surgery

A

Increased vasopressin release

153
Q

Location of ischiorectal abscess

A

Medial to pudendal canal

154
Q

Location of annular pancreas

A

Second part of duodenum

155
Q

What does warfarin inhibit

A

Prothrombin

156
Q

Location of safe emergency airway

A

Stab incision in cricothyroid membrane

157
Q

Benign breast condition in smoker

A

Subareolar mastitis

158
Q

Cause of post-op paralytic ileus

A

Substance P receptor

159
Q

Cause of yellow granules

A

Actinomyces

160
Q

Nerves at cerebellopontine angle

161
Q

Surface markings of internal jugular vein

A

Lower lobe of ear to sterno clavicular joint

162
Q

Primary metabolic effect if adrenalin

A

Glycolysis

163
Q

Which structure blocked if all ventricles dilated

A

Superior sagittal sinus

164
Q

Where about on the bladder do the ureters pierce

A

Posterior surface

165
Q

Well circumscribed mass on greater curvature of stomach

166
Q

Artery supplying Little’s area

A

Sphenopalantine artery

167
Q

Recurrent mastoid infection, surgical management, altered taste

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

168
Q

Cause of cardiac muscle contraction

A

Influx of calcium through sarcolemma

169
Q

Painful goitre

A

Subacute thyroiditis

170
Q

Normal pulse pressure

171
Q

Enzyme involved in autodigestion of pancreas

172
Q

Which vessels dilate to lower BP following exercise

A

Pre capillary sphincters