LOCO2 Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Which drug can be used to determine how mineralised bone is? [1]

A

Tetracycline can be used to see how mineralised bone is. Tetracycline gets taken up on the calcium ions, and becomes deposited here and auto-fluoresces

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2
Q

A 36-year-old woman presents to her GP with pain in both hands. It is worse in the morning and occurs for more than 30 minutes.

A diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is suspected and blood tests are organised before the patient is referred to secondary care for a rheumatology opinion. The rheumatologist confirms the diagnosis and prescribes a first-line disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug: methotrexate.

What medication should be co-prescribed for this patient?

Fluorouracil
Folic acid
Furosemide
Nicotinic acid
Vitamin B12

A

Folic acid

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3
Q

A 76-year-old woman presents to her physician with non-healing mucosal ulcers and loose teeth. She has a past medical history of recurrent falls, bilateral hip replacement, diabetes and asthma.

Examination findings show periodontal disease.

Radiology reports show sclerotic lesions in the mandible and maxilla consistent with osteonecrosis.

Which one of the following drugs may be the cause of her presentation?

Insulin

Denosumab

Vitamin D supplements

Calcium supplements

Alendronate

A

Alendronate
Bisphosphonates can cause osteonecrosis of the jaw

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4
Q

You are a junior doctor working in orthopaedic surgery and have been asked to see a 44-year-old woman who is booked in for surgery tomorrow for repair of an open radial fracture sustained after falling from her bike. She has a past medical history of severe psoriasis, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, polycystic ovary syndrome and depression. You order some routine bloods prior to surgery, and are surprised by the following results:

Bilirubin 17 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 89 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 354 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT 61 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 34 g/L (35 - 50)

Which of her medications is most likely to be responsible for this derangement?

Combined oral contraceptive pill
Fluoxetine
Methotrexate
Morphine
Omeprazole

A

Methotrexate: cause hepatotoxicity

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5
Q

A 77-year-old woman is reviewed on the orthogeriatrics ward round 5 days following a hemiarthroplasty for a fractured neck of femur. The consultant decides to start her on a RANK ligand inhibitor for secondary prevention of osteoporosis.

Which of the following medications will you commence?

Alendronic acid
Denosumab
Letrozole
Raloxifene
Teriparatide

A

Denosumab

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6
Q

A 42-year-old woman complains to her General Practitioner of general fatigue during the last two months. She says the joints in both her hands and wrists are increasingly painful and stiff, especially in the morning and she finds it difficult to write. Her X-ray is diagnostic of rheumatoid arthritis and she is started on methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Which enzyme does methotrexate inhibit?

Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase
Cyclooxygenase 2
Dihydrofolate reductase
Matrix metalloproteinase 1
Serine hydroxymethyltransferase

A

Dihydrofolate reductase

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7
Q

A 27-year-old woman is referred to a rheumatology clinic as she has developed pain and stiffness in the small joints of her hands. She is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and is started on methotrexate.

Given her diagnosis and management, the risk of which side effect is reduced by giving a folate supplement?

Infection
Hepatitis
Myelosuppression
Pneumonitis
Teratogenesis

A

Myelosuppression

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8
Q

A 65-year-old retired firefighter presents to the general practice surgery with recurrent burning central chest pain. He finds the pain is worse after eating a take-away and drinking alcohol and he feels that he is belching more than usual.

Past medical history is significant for high cholesterol, type two diabetes and osteoarthritis. His medications are atorvastatin, metformin, gliclazide, naproxen and omeprazole which he often forgets to take.

Which of his medication is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

Atorvastatin
Gliclazide
Metformin
Naproxen
Omeprazole

A

Naproxen: Peptic ulcers are a side effect of NSAIDs

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9
Q

A 59-year-old female presents to the rheumatology clinic, she has a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis and has been started on a new medication to help prevent disease progression and joint destruction. However, with this she needs to take daily folic acid and have frequent blood tests. Which medication is she likely to be on?

Sulfasalazine
Prednisolone
Methotrexate
Rituximab
Etanercept

A

Methotrexate

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10
Q

A 46-year-old female with poorly controlled rheumatoid arthritis and a history of significant large bowel resection. She has just had sulfasalazine, a prodrug, added to her medications, however the consultant is worried that she will be unable to convert the prodrug into its active form with her shortened colon.

Which therapeutically active compound is her medication converted to in the colon?

TNF-alpha
6-mercaptopurine
Methotrexate
Sulfamethoxazole
5-ASA (5-aminosalicylates)

A

5-ASA (5-aminosalicylates)

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11
Q

A 74-year-old woman attends her GP following a diagnosis of osteoporosis after sustaining a radial fracture during a fall. The doctor explains that they would like to prescribe alendronic acid, a bisphosphonate, to help prevent further fractures.

What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

Increased cholecalciferol synthesis
Increased serum calcium levels
Osteoblast inhibition
Osteoclast inhibition
Osteoclast stimulation

A

Osteoclast inhibition

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12
Q

A 48-year-old male discusses his secondary prophylaxis medications after suffering from a myocardial infarction last week. Aspirin is included in the several drugs but he is hesitant due to suffering from multiple bouts of acid reflux despite gastric protection. Celecoxib another COX (cyclooxygenase) inhibitor is prescribed instead.

What best describes the mechanism of action of this drug?

Reversible COX-1 inhibitor
Reversible COX-2 inhibitor
Non-reversible COX-1 inhibitor
Non-reversible COX-2 inhibitor
Non-reversible COX-1 and 2 inhibitor

A

Reversible COX-2 inhibitor

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13
Q

A 63-year-old woman has been referred by her GP to the osteoporosis clinic for alternate bone-sparing treatment. She has recently had a bone density scan following a low impact distal radial fracture. Her T-score in her hip and spine has returned as -2.6 and -2.2 respectively. She was subsequently commenced on bone-sparing treatments but she developed significant gastrointestinal side effects despite the trial of different preparations of bisphosphate including alendronate and risedronate. A decision has been made at the clinic to commence patient on a receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-Β ligand (RANKL) inhibitor.

Which of the following is this treatment referring to?

Denosumab
Strontium ranelate
Teriparatide
Zoledronic acid
Raloxifene

A

Denosumab

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14
Q

An 81-year-old woman is admitted following a fall. Upon subsequent examination and imaging, she is diagnosed with a wrist fracture. This is deemed to be a fragility fracture given the low impact mechanism of injury.

Two weeks later, she is discharged on a new medication to increase bone density as per the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance.

What is the mechanism of the drug she has been prescribed?

Increases calcium availability to bone
Inhibits osteoblasts
Inhibits osteoclasts
Promotes osteoblasts
Promotes osteoclasts

A

Inhibits osteoclasts

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15
Q

A 68-year-old woman with breast cancer is started on a chemotherapy regimen including methotrexate.

Which enzyme is inhibited by this drug?

Thymidylate synthase
Methionine synthase
Dihydrofolate reductase
Methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase
Folylpolyglutamate synthase

A

Dihydrofolate reductase

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16
Q

RA

Methotrexate and Rituximab would be

First line treatment
Second line treatment
Third line treatment
Fourth line treatment

A

Third line treatment

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17
Q

RA

Methotrexate and a 2nd line DMARD would be

First line treatment
Second line treatment
Third line treatment
Fourth line treatment

A

First line treatment

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18
Q

RA

Methotrexate & a TNF-inhibitor would be

First line treatment
Second line treatment
Third line treatment
Fourth line treatment

A

Second line treatment

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19
Q

Methotrexate inhibits which enzyme? [1]

A

dihydrofolate reductase

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20
Q

RA

Sulfasalazine is a prodrug for [1]

A

5-ASA

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21
Q

Hydroxychloroquine blocks:

TLR7
TLR8
TLR9
TLR10
TLR11

A

TLR9

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22
Q

RA

Leflunomide inhibits which enzyme? [1]

What is the effect of this? [2]

A

Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase (DHODH): stops pyrimidine synthesis & therefore reduces pro-inflammatory cytokines: IL-1, TNF-A and IL-6; Blocks T cell proliferation

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23
Q

Which is the staple treatment for RA?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Which is the staple treatment for RA?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

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24
Q

Which treatment for RA inhibits dihydrofolate reductase?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Which treatment for RA inhibits dihydrofolate reductase?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

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25
Q

Which treatment for RA reduces purine synthesis?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Methotrexate

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26
Q

Which treatment for RA reduces pyrimidine synthesis?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Leflunomide

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27
Q

Which treatment for RA is safe for pregnant people?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Sulfasalazine

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28
Q

Which treatment for RA is prodrug that operates in large intestine?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Which treatment for RA is prodrug that operates in large intestine?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

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29
Q

Which treatment for RA that targets TLR-9?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Hydroxychloroquine

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30
Q

Which treatment for RA that reduces dendritic cell activation?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Hydroxychloroquine

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31
Q

Which is a treatment for RA that inhibits dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Hydroxychloroquine

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32
Q

Which treatment for RA requires folate to be given alongside?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Methotrexate

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33
Q

Which treatment for RA is a tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) inhibitor?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Infliximab

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34
Q

Which treatment for RA is a monoclonal antibody?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Infliximab

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35
Q

Which treatment for RA is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody?

Etanercept
Adalimumab
Anakinra
Rituximab
Abatacept
Tolizumab

A

Rituximab

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36
Q

Which treatment for RA causes B cell depletion?

Etanercept
Adalimumab
Anakinra
Rituximab
Abatacept
Tolizumab

A

Rituximab

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37
Q

Which treatment for RA leads to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production?

Etanercept
Adalimumab
Anakinra
Rituximab
Abatacept
Tolizumab

A

Abatacept

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38
Q

Which treatment for RA is an IL-1 antagonist?

Etanercept
Adalimumab
Anakinra
Rituximab
Abatacept
Tolizumab

A

Anakinra

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39
Q

Which treatment for RA targets IL-6?

Etanercept
Adalimumab
Anakinra
Rituximab
Abatacept
Tolizumab

A

Tolizumab

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40
Q

Which treatment for RA targets upregulates CTLA-4, which switches T cell off?

Etanercept
Adalimumab
Anakinra
Rituximab
Abatacept
Tolizumab

A

Tolizumab

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41
Q

OA - fill in about colexcicb

A
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42
Q

State the treatment pyramid for RA:

Pain management: [2]

First line disease treament (Mild RA): [2]

Second line disease treatment (moderate RA) [2]

Second line disease management: (severe RA) [2]

A

Pain management: NSAID & Opioids

First line: Methotrexate & 2nd line DMARD

Second line disease treatment (moderate RA) Methotrexate & TNF-inhibitor

Second line disease management: (severe RA) Methotrexate & Rituximab

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43
Q

If have a flair of RA which drug might be used as adjunct therapy? [1]

A

Oral corticosteroid pulse (e.g. prednisilone)

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44
Q

How may you start DMARD treatment if have severe RA? [2]

A

Start with high dose and taper down once under control

OR

Add prednisilone

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45
Q

State 3 reasons why may not prescribe methotrexate [3]

A

Liver damage (methotrexate metabolised in liver)
Pregnant
Co-morbidities

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46
Q

State two factors that DMARDs improve [2]

What does DMARD not improve? [1]

A

Improves:
* early improves number of swollen
* improves radiographic progression

No effect:
* the patients fatigue severity

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47
Q

Explain MoA of methotrexate [4]

How is it administered? [1]

A

Oral dose (can change to subcut. or IM)

MoA:
* Folic acid antagonist which will limits DNA and RNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthetase
* Causes a reduction in purine synthesis
* Induce ROS
* Causes activation of apoptosis
* Inhibits pro-inflam cytokines IL-1 & NF-kB

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48
Q

State three side effects of methotrexate [2]

A

Can cause liver problems
Can affect blood count
Hair

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49
Q

Describe MoA of Sulfasalazine [5]

A

Mode of action in RA not well understood:
* Metabolised in the colon by gut bacteria to 5-ASA
* 5-ASA stays in large intestine lamina propria and has local anti-inflammatory actions
* Supresses generation of superoxide radicals and cytokine production by inflammatory cells
* IL8 decreased in synovial fluid and decreased production of IgM and IgG, and decreased angiogenesis
* Inhibits IL-1 and TNF-a

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50
Q

Describe the MoA of Hydroxychloroquine [2]

A
  • Accumulates in lysosomes increasing the pH decreasing protein modifications
  • Blocks Toll-like receptor 9 which recognises DNA containing immune complexes decreases activation of dendritic cells: less autoantobodies produced
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51
Q

Describe MoA of Leflunomide [3]

A

Pro-drug: gets metabolised in liver

Inhibits dihydroorotate dehydrogenase (DHODH) and therefore stops pyrimidine biosynthesis

Reduces pro-inflammatory cytokines: IL-1, TNF-A and IL-6

Blocks T cell proliferation

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52
Q

Name two TNF-a blockers for RA [2]

A

Etanercept
Infliximab

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53
Q

Explain MoA of Etanercept:

What is etanercept a fusion protein for? [1]

What is etanercept Fc for? [1]

A

When TNF-a is released: finds receptors on cells, activates and causes signal transduction

Etanercept is a fusion protein human TNF receptor 2 and Fc human IgG.

Etanercept binds to TNF-a before TNF-a can get to cell and cause inflammatory, signalling

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54
Q

Describe MoA of Infliximab [1]

A

Monoclonal antibody against TNFα

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55
Q

Infliximab often prescribed alongside which drug? [1]

A

Infliximab and methotrexate

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56
Q

Name another TNF-inhibitor used in RA [1]

A

Adalimumab

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57
Q

Name a Human recombinant IL-1 receptor antagonist to treat RA

A

Anakinra

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58
Q

Despite good efficacy, why is Anakina not as commonly prescribed for RA? [1]

A

Requires subcut daily injections

59
Q

Describe MoA of Anakinra [1]

A

Monoclonal antibody that is a IL-1 antagonist

60
Q

Describe MoA of Rituximab

A

Monoclonal antibody that targets CD20 on B cells

Means B cell can’t become activated

Destroys normal and malignant B cells

61
Q

AEs of Rituximab?

A

Risk of infection as B cells destroyed

62
Q

How long does Rituximab take before positive effect? [1]

A

3 months after infusions

63
Q

Describe MoA of Abatacept

A

Blocks T cell activation which thus means macrophages and B cells cannot be activated.

Competes with CD28 binding to CD80/86 by upregulating CTLA-4, which switches T cell off

Reduces production of TH17 cells
Thus reducing inflammation

64
Q

Tocilizumab targets which IL? [1]

Describe MoA [2]

A

Interleukin 6

Monoclonal antibody that binds to IL-6 cytokine before it reaches target receptor

65
Q

What drug class is the first oral biological? [1]

A

JAK inhibitors

66
Q

State three JAK inhibitors used to treat RA [3]

A

Tofacitinib, baricitinib and upadacitinib

67
Q

Describe the MoA of JAK inhibitors

A

Targets Janus kinase (JAK) pathways: means that multipe cytokines are blocked

68
Q

Describe the MoA of JAK inhibitors

A

Targets Janus kinase (JAK) pathways: means that multipe cytokines are blocked

69
Q

Explain the mechanism of neutralising ADAs [2] & non-neutralising ADAs [2]

A

Because they are chimeric / humanised antigens you get anti-drug antibodies:

Neutralising ADA
* Directly interferes with the biological drugs ability to work
* Bind to the antibody/biological directly and stop it being able to bind to TNF-alpha, IL-1, etc

Non-neutralising ADA
* May form immune complexes around injection site reducing drug concentration and pharmacokinetics
Increased clearance

70
Q
A
71
Q

leflunomide has a similar mechanism of action to

Etanercept
Infliximab
Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine

A

Methotrexate

Both block block on RNA and DNA synthesis via different, synergestic pathways

72
Q

State which of the following blocks pyrimidine or purine synthesis:

Methotrexate
Leflunomide

A

Methotrexate: stops purine synthesis
Leflunomide: stops pyrimidine synthesis

73
Q

Which of the following acts quicker:

Infliximab
Etanercept

A

Infliximab
Etanercept

74
Q

Describe efficacy of IL-1 antagonists c.f TNF-alpha blockers

A

IL-1 receptors antagonists are not as effective in RA as TNF-alpha blockers

75
Q

State why biologicals, despire their efficacy are not used straight away for RA treatment? [2]

A

Due to the develop of anti-drug antibodies that will develop no matter what - decrease efficacy

76
Q

RA

Methotrexate and Rituximab would be

First line treatment
Second line treatment
Third line treatment
Fourth line treatment

A

Third line treatment

77
Q

RA

Methotrexate and a 2nd line DMARD would be

First line treatment
Second line treatment
Third line treatment
Fourth line treatment

A

First line treatment

78
Q

RA

Methotrexate & a TNF-inhibitor would be

First line treatment
Second line treatment
Third line treatment
Fourth line treatment

A

Second line treatment

79
Q

Methotrexate inhibits which enzyme? [1]

A

dihydrofolate reductase

80
Q

RA

Sulfasalazine is a prodrug for [1]

A

5-ASA

81
Q

Hydroxychloroquine blocks:

TLR7
TLR8
TLR9
TLR10
TLR11

A

TLR9

82
Q

RA

Leflunomide inhibits which enzyme? [1]

What is the effect of this? [2]

A

Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase (DHODH): stops pyrimidine synthesis & therefore reduces pro-inflammatory cytokines: IL-1, TNF-A and IL-6; Blocks T cell proliferation

83
Q

Which is the staple treatment for RA?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Which is the staple treatment for RA?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

84
Q

Which treatment for RA inhibits dihydrofolate reductase?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Which treatment for RA inhibits dihydrofolate reductase?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

85
Q

Which treatment for RA reduces purine synthesis?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Methotrexate

86
Q

Which treatment for RA reduces pyrimidine synthesis?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Leflunomide

87
Q

Which treatment for RA is safe for pregnant people?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Sulfasalazine

88
Q

Which treatment for RA is prodrug that operates in large intestine?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Which treatment for RA is prodrug that operates in large intestine?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

89
Q

Which treatment for RA that targets TLR-9?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Hydroxychloroquine

90
Q

Which treatment for RA that reduces dendritic cell activation?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Hydroxychloroquine

91
Q

Which is a treatment for RA that inhibits dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Hydroxychloroquine

92
Q

Which treatment for RA requires folate to be given alongside?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Methotrexate

93
Q

Which treatment for RA is a tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) inhibitor?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Infliximab

94
Q

Which treatment for RA is a monoclonal antibody?

Methotrexate
Sulfasalazine
Hydroxychloroquine
Leflunomide
Infliximab

A

Infliximab

95
Q

Which treatment for RA is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody?

Etanercept
Adalimumab
Anakinra
Rituximab
Abatacept
Tolizumab

A

Rituximab

96
Q

Which treatment for RA causes B cell depletion?

Etanercept
Adalimumab
Anakinra
Rituximab
Abatacept
Tolizumab

A

Rituximab

97
Q

Which treatment for RA leads to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production?

Etanercept
Adalimumab
Anakinra
Rituximab
Abatacept
Tolizumab

A

Abatacept

98
Q

Which treatment for RA is an IL-1 antagonist?

Etanercept
Adalimumab
Anakinra
Rituximab
Abatacept
Tolizumab

A

Anakinra

99
Q

Which treatment for RA targets IL-6?

Etanercept
Adalimumab
Anakinra
Rituximab
Abatacept
Tolizumab

A

Tolizumab

100
Q

Which treatment for RA targets upregulates CTLA-4, which switches T cell off?

Etanercept
Adalimumab
Anakinra
Rituximab
Abatacept
Tolizumab

A

Tolizumab

101
Q

State a non-pharmological adjunct for OA pain relief [1]

A

Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)

102
Q

State 6 surgical interventions for OA [6]

A

Arthroscopic lavage
Arthroscopic lavage plus debridement
Microfracture
Mosiacplasty (osteochondral transplant)
Chondrocyte grafts
Joint replacement

103
Q

Treatment for OA

Which IL can you target / block to treat OA? [1]

A

IL-1 blockage

104
Q

OA treatment

Adalimumab targets which cytokine? [1]

A

TNF inhibition

105
Q

How would you treat acute gout / gout attack? [4]

A

NSAIDs:
* Start with highest dose for 2-3 days & taper down over 2 weeks

Colchicine:
* 2nd line (narrow therapeutic window and risk of toxicity)

Corticosteroids
* For those that can’t use NSAID or colchicine

IL1 biologicals
* Rilonacept, canakinumab, anakinra
* Reduces length of attack and reoccurrences
* Used for patients who have severe and frequent flares

106
Q

How long should gout symptoms be absent for before stopping NSAID treatment for gout? [1]

A

2 days

107
Q

Which IL1 biologicals can be used to treat acute gout? [3]

A

Rilonacept, canakinumab, anakinra

108
Q

Why are IL-1 biologicals not as useful for treating gout than RA? [1]

A

have to be used daily, yet with gout flares they are only used acutely for short periods of time. Only used if a patient has severe and frequent flare due to their extreme cost.

109
Q

Describe how you treat chronic gout [5]

A

Allopurinol:
* Blocks xanthine oxidase, which is responsible from converting xanthine (which comes from purines in the diet) to urate

Febuxostat:
* non-purine selective inhibitor of xanthine oxidase

uricosuric:
* increases uric acid excretion

Probenecid:
* increases the secretion of uric acid
* fewer side effects than allopurinol.

Rasburicase:
* Catalyses conversion of uric acid to allantoin

110
Q

Which ARB can be used to treat chronic gout? [1]

A

Losartan

111
Q

Name drug A used to treat osteoporosis [1]

A

Denosumab

112
Q

Name drug A used to treat osteoporosis [1]

A

Teriparatide

113
Q

What is first line treatment for osteoporosis? [1]
Describe MoA [3]

A

Bisphosphonates:

  • inhibits osteoclast activity
  • promotes osteoclast apoptosis
  • Decreases RANKL expression (so osteoblasts don’t turn into osteoclasts [?])
114
Q

Describe complications of bisphosphonates

A

Kills off osteoclasts: don’t remove old bone: thickened bone

Get giant osteoclasts: poisoned osteoclasts

Osteonecrosis occurs

115
Q

Osteoporosis treatment

Describe the MoA of Teriparatide [2]

A

Teriparatide is a recombinant PTH:

  • PTH upregulates RANKL - signals osteoblast to differentiate when have low Ca2+: work indirectly on osteoclasts to boost bone making potential
  • Intermittent exposure to PTH activates osteoblasts more than osteoclasts
116
Q

Osteoporosis treatment

Describe the MoA of Denosumab [2]

A

PTH normally inhibits OPG.

Denosumab is a an osteoprotegrin artificial antibody & acts as a monoclonal antibody to RANK:

Denosumab: human monoclonal antibody that inhibits RANKL and helps regulate turnover in healthy bone. Denosumab binds with high specificity and affinity to the cytokine RANKL, inhibiting its action; as a result, osteoclast recruitment, maturation and action are inhibited, and bone resorption slows

117
Q
A

Colchicine - inhibits microtubule polymerization by binding to tubulin, interfering with mitosis. Also inhibits neutrophil motility and activity

118
Q

Describe treatment regime of dermatomyositis [4]

A

Prednisilone (type of corticosteroid):
* 1 mg / kg per day until creatine kinase normal

Azthioprine

Methotrexate

Rituximab

119
Q

Describe treatment regime of dermatomyositis [4]

A

Prednisilone (type of corticosteroid):
* 1 mg / kg per day until creatine kinase normal

Azthioprine

Methotrexate

Rituximab

120
Q

Treatment for DMD? [2]

A

Prednisilone
Gene alterations

121
Q

Name and describe how two therapeutic drugs cause myopathy [2]

A

Corticosteroids; cause dose dependent type 2 atrophy

Hydroxychloroquine: not dose dependent atrophy; lysosomes damaged

Hydroxychloroquine causing lysosome damage

122
Q

Treatment options for fibromyalgia? [4]

A

Amitriptyline (TCA)
Fluxetine (SSRI)
Exercise
Complementary therapy

123
Q

How do you treat chronic osteomyelitis? [5]

A

Puncture drainage if abscessed

Surgical debridement

Reconstruct bone (allograft/ autograft)

Antibiotics (4-6wks, at least 2 IV):
* Vancomyocin cement beads
* Flucoxallin (gram +ve)
* Clindamycin
* Piperacillin
* Ciprofloxacilin

124
Q

Describe treatment of chronic osteomyeltis [5]

A

Puncture drainage if abscess identified

Reconstruct bone (allograft or autograft)

Surgical debridement to remove dead bone

Antibiotics for 4-6 weeks (at least 2wks IV):
* vancomycin cement beads: dissolve and give steady supply of vancomycin

Bone graft (& muscle graft)

125
Q

Which antibiotics would you give for chronic osteomyelitis [1]

A

Vancomycin cement beads

126
Q

Management of infections that have occurred from joint replacement infections? [2]

A

Removal of prosthesis, antibiotics for 6wks, re-implantation of new prosthesis 4 weeks after removal - 90%+ success

Long term suppressive antibiotics

127
Q

Treatment for folliculitis? [3]

A

Oral antibiotic
Retinoic acid & Vit. A: reduces amount of sebum

128
Q

Tx of impetigo?:

Simple cases [1]
Severe cases? [1]
Most people? [1]

A

Oral or topical antibiotic for severe cases that have spread to other body areas

NICE recommends 1% hydrogen peroxide cream for simple cases

But most people will get better without treatment within 3 weeks

129
Q

Treatment of scalded skin syndrome? [2]

A

Treatment:
* Conservative: rehydration antipyretics
* Parenteral antibiotics

130
Q

Therapy for Necrotising fascitis? [3]

A

Treatment:
* Surgical debridement
* Empiric antibiotics
* Hyperbaric oxygen (Add on therapy)

131
Q

Treatment for HPV: viral warts and veruccas? [5]

A

Topical salicylic acid
Fluorouracil cream
Cryosurgery
Surgical curettage
Laser treatment (CO2 laser 582nm)

132
Q

Treatment of Molluscum contagiosum? [1]

A

Usually resolves without treatment
If severe or in genital area then OTC wart treatments, cryo-surgery

133
Q

Treatment of Pityriasis versicolour (tinea versicolour)? [3]

A
  • Antifungal shampoo (ketoconazole)
  • Selenium sulphide (off-label)
  • For small areas antifungal creams
134
Q

Treatment of scabies? [3]

A

Treatment:
* permethrin
* ivermectin
* crotamiton

135
Q

Treatment for leprosy? [3]

A

Rifampicin, dapsone and clofazimine

136
Q

How do you treat enthesitis:

  • If mechanical? [2]
  • If Inflammatory [5]
A

Mechanical:
* RICE
* NDSAIDs

Inflammatory:
* Sulfasalazine
* Methotrexate
* Anti-TNF therapy (restricted use for severe autoimmune enthetitis)
* Local radiotherapy
* Corticosteroid injection
* Hyperosmolar dextrose (initiates proliferation of intrinsic fibroblasts - race to repair damage c.f. osteoblasts)

137
Q

Which drug class is used for ankylosing spondylitis enthesitis? [1]

A

Anti-TNF treatment

138
Q

Treatment for tenosynovitis?
Treatments [4]
Surgery - for trigger finger [1] and De Quervains [1]

A

Treatment:
* RICE
* Splinting
* Anti-inflam
* Corticosteroids

Surgery:
* TF: cut annular ligament
* DQ: shave styloid processs or cut sheath

139
Q

DMARD treatments for SLE? [4]

A

Cylcophosphamide
Mycophenolate mofetil
Methotrexate
Tacrolimus

140
Q

Describe two biological DMARDs for SLE? [2]

A

Belimubab: inhibits BAFF (B cell activating factor)
Rituximab: CD20 blocker

141
Q

How can you treat resistant urticaria and asthma?

A

Omalizumab: binds free IgE in the serum, forming trimers and hexamers

142
Q

Treatment of Pemphigus Vulgaris? [3]

A

Oral steroids

Immunosuppresion: mycophenolate mofetil or azathioprine

Rituximab (targeting CD20 on B cells)

143
Q

New drug class treatments for AA and Vitiligo? [1]

Name an example drug [1]

A

JAK Inhibitors

E.g Ruxolitinib

144
Q

Two potential AEs of JAK inhibitors? [2]

A

Thromboembolic events
Cancer related events