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Microbiology 156 > Lecture Exam 2 - Notes: pages 3-11 > Flashcards

Lecture Exam 2 - Notes: pages 3-11 Flashcards

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1
Q

__________ : study of disease

A

Pathology

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2
Q

__________ : cause of the disease

A

Etiology

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3
Q

__________ : manner in which a disease occurs

A

Pathogenesis

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4
Q

Structural and functional changes brought on by the disease

These are commonly referred to as __________ of disease

A

signs/symptoms

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5
Q

__________ : Invasion and colonization of the body with pathogens

A

Infection

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6
Q

Infection: Invasion and colonization of the body with __________

A

pathogens

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7
Q

__________ : When infection results in a change from the normal state of health

A

Disease

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8
Q

A UTI is an example of where the term __________ is used to mean disease

A

infection

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9
Q

A UTI is an example of where the term infection is used to mean disease

There is a difference though between an STI (__________) and an STD (__________)

A
  • infection

- disease

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10
Q

__________ Infection: Infection with signs/symptoms (—disease)

A

Clinical

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11
Q

__________ Infection: Infection without signs/symptoms (—infection)
A person with a subclinical infection is called a carrier

A

Subclinical

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12
Q

Subclinical Infection: Infection without signs/symptoms (—infection)
A person with a subclinical infection is called a __________

A

carrier

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13
Q

__________ disease: disease not caused by a microbe

A

Noninfectious

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14
Q

Noninfectious disease: disease __________ by a microbe

A

not caused

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15
Q

__________ disease: disease caused by a microbe

A

Infectious

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16
Q

Infectious disease: disease __________ by a microbe

A

caused

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17
Q

Example of a disease that was previously thought to be noninfectious but are now classified as infectious: __________

A

Ulcer

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18
Q

Ulcers: caused by __________ pylori

A

Helicobacter

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19
Q

The microbe __________ is the cause of 80% of gastric and duodenal ulcers

A

Helicobacter pylori

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20
Q

__________ found in people who have stomach cancer

A

Helicobacter pylori

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21
Q

Treatment of Ulcers includes a “cocktail” of __________ and antacids

A

-antibiotics

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22
Q

__________ cancer: Human Papilloma Virus

A

Cervical

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23
Q

__________ cancer: Hepatitis B Virus, Hepatitis C Virus

A

Liver

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24
Q

__________ : The study of the frequency and distribution of disease and other health related factors in defined human populations

A

Epidemiology

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25
Q

Epidemiology: The study of the frequency and distribution of __________ and other health related factors in defined human __________

A
  • disease

- populations

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26
Q

__________ : When and where disease occurs and how it is transmitted

A

Epidemiology

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27
Q

__________ is the primary government agency responsible for keeping track of infectious disease nationwide

A

CDC

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28
Q

__________ : By law cases of diseases within this category must be reported to public health authorities.

A

Reportable (Notifiable) Disease

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29
Q

Reportable (Notifiable) Disease: By law cases of diseases within this category must be reported to __________ authorities.

A

public health

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30
Q

Reportable (Notifiable) Disease: By law cases of diseases within this category must be reported to public health authorities.

(both sexually transmitted diseases)
- __________ Chlamydia
-

A
  • Genital

- Gonorrhea

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31
Q

__________ : Physician diagnosed disease

A

Case

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32
Q

__________ : Two or more cases from the same source

A

Outbreak

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33
Q

__________ : the earliest documented case of disease in an epidemiological study

A

Index case

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34
Q

__________ : Regardless of case reporting or public health screening, a large number of cases of infection in the community go undiagnosed and unreported. (actual number is 10-100 times the number of cases)

A

Iceberg Effect

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35
Q

Iceberg Effect: Regardless of case reporting or public health screening, a large number of cases of infection in the community go __________ and unreported. (actual number is __________ times the number of cases)

A
  • undiagnosed

- 10-100

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36
Q

MMWR: Morbidity and __________ Weekly __________

A
  • Mortality

- Report

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37
Q

__________ : Incidence of notifiable diseases

A

Morbidity

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38
Q

__________ : Deaths from notifiable diseases

A

Mortality

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39
Q

__________ : a person whose resistance to infection is impaired in some way.

A

Compromised host

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40
Q

__________ : also known as risk factors; any factor that increases risk for developing disease; these Include: gender, genetics, age, occupation, and lifestyle

A

Predisposing (risk) factors

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41
Q

Predisposing (risk) factors: also known as risk factors; any factor that increases risk for developing __________; these Include: gender, __________, age, occupation, and __________

A
  • disease
  • genetics
  • lifestyle
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42
Q

__________ : The characteristic route that the microbe takes when it enters the body; the most virulent microbes can cause disease by entering through any portal.

A

Portal of Entry

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43
Q

Portal of Entry: The characteristic route that the __________ takes when it enters the body; the most __________ microbes can cause disease by entering through any __________.

A
  • microbe
  • virulent
  • portal
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44
Q

Portals of entry include:

  • __________ through the parenteral route (puncture):
  • __________ tract:
  • Respiratory tract:
  • Urogenital tract
A
  • Skin

- Gastrointestinal

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45
Q

Portals of entry include:

  • Skin through the parenteral route (puncture):
  • Gastrointestinal tract:
  • __________ tract:
  • __________ tract
A
  • Respiratory

- Urogenital

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46
Q

-Portals of entry-

Skin through the parenteral route (puncture): __________

A

tetanus

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47
Q

-Portals of entry-

Gastrointestinal tract: __________ difficle causing pseudomembranous __________

A
  • Clostridium

- colitis

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48
Q

-Portals of entry-

Respiratory tract: __________

A

tuberculosis

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49
Q

-Portals of entry-

Urogenital tract:
This is the most common portal for __________

A

sexually transmitted diseases (STD)

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50
Q

__________ : The specific avenue that microbes take when they leave the body.

A

Portal of Exit

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51
Q

Portal of Exit: The specific avenue that microbes take when they leave the __________.
In many but not all cases the portal of exit is the __________ as the portal of entry

A
  • body

- same

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52
Q

-Portal of Exit-

Respiratory and Salivary portals: __________

A

tuberculosis

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53
Q

-Portal of Exit-

Skin scales: __________

A

Warts

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54
Q

-Portal of Exit-

Gastrointestinal: __________

A

Clostridium difficle

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55
Q

-Portal of Exit-

Urogenital tract: __________

A

HIV/AIDS

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56
Q

-Portal of Exit-

Removal of blood or bleeding: __________

A

Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)

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57
Q

__________ : Pathogens that infect during pregnancy and birth

A

Vertical Transmission

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58
Q

-Vertical Transmission-

  • Some microbes will cross the __________ barrier
  • Other microbes will infect while the baby passes through the __________
A
  • placental

- birth canal

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59
Q

Diseases that are transmitted vertically are classified under the acronym __________

A

STORCH

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60
Q

-STORCH-

S= \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 
T = Toxoplasmosis
O = Other:  Hepatitis B, AIDS, Gonorrhea, Listeriosis, and Chlamydia
R = Rubella
C = Cytomegalovirus
H = Herpes Simplex Virus 2 (HSV-2)
A

Syphilis

61
Q

-STORCH-

S= Syphilis
T = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 
O = Other:  Hepatitis B, AIDS, Gonorrhea, Listeriosis, and Chlamydia
R = Rubella
C = Cytomegalovirus
H = Herpes Simplex Virus 2 (HSV-2)
A

Toxoplasmosis

62
Q

-STORCH-

S= Syphilis
T = Toxoplasmosis
O = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ :  Hepatitis B, AIDS, Gonorrhea, Listeriosis, and Chlamydia
R = Rubella
C = Cytomegalovirus
H = Herpes Simplex Virus 2 (HSV-2)
A

Other

63
Q

-STORCH-

S= Syphilis
T = Toxoplasmosis
O = Other:  Hepatitis B, AIDS, Gonorrhea, Listeriosis, and Chlamydia
R = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 
C = Cytomegalovirus
H = Herpes Simplex Virus 2 (HSV-2)
A

Rubella

64
Q

-STORCH-

S= Syphilis
T = Toxoplasmosis
O = Other:  Hepatitis B, AIDS, Gonorrhea, Listeriosis, and Chlamydia
R = Rubella
C = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 
H = Herpes Simplex Virus 2 (HSV-2)
A

Cytomegalovirus

65
Q

-STORCH-

S= Syphilis
T = Toxoplasmosis
O = Other:  Hepatitis B, AIDS, Gonorrhea, Listeriosis, and Chlamydia
R = Rubella
C = Cytomegalovirus
H = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Herpes Simplex Virus 2 (HSV-2)

66
Q

-Syphilis-

Etiology: __________ pallidum

A

Treponema

67
Q

-Syphilis-

Reservoir: __________

A

Human

68
Q

-Syphilis-

Mode of Transmission: __________

A

STD or STI

69
Q

-Syphilis-
Mode of Transmission: STD or STI
Direct contact: contact must occur with the __________

A

syphilis sore

70
Q

-Syphilis-

__________ with the disease can pass it to the babies (vertical transmission)

A

Pregnant women

71
Q

Syphilis cannot be spread by __________

A

fomites

72
Q

__________ : contaminated inanimate object

A

Fomite

73
Q

__________ syphilis:

  • single sore (called a chancre)
  • heal on its own
A

Primary

74
Q

__________ syphilis:

  • rash, does not itch
  • The rash often appears as rough, “copper penny” spots on both the palms of the hands and the bottoms of the feet
A

Secondary

75
Q

__________ syphilis:

  • clear up on their own
  • multiple chancres
  • more contagious
  • The secondary stage will gradually subside
A

Secondary

76
Q

At the end of the Secondary stage of syphilis:

Approximately one third of infected persons will recover __________ , meaning they are not infectious and there is no further evidence of disease.
Another one third of individuals will revert back to __________ syphilis and then to tertiary syphilis
The final third will progress first into __________ and then into tertiary syphilis

A
  • fully
  • secondary
  • latent
77
Q

The __________ (hidden or dormant) stage follows secondary syphilis

A

latent

78
Q

Syphilis __________ be transmitted person to person while its latent

A

can not

79
Q

Syphilis __________ transmitted Vertically (during pregnancy and birth)

A

Can be

80
Q

Latent syphilis:

__________ signs or symptoms are present, but there are high levels of __________ in serum

A
  • No

- antibodies

81
Q

Tertiary syphili:

  • gummas
  • __________ stage
A

destructive

82
Q

-Tertiary syphilis-

__________ - when it affects the brain

A

Neurosyphilis

83
Q

-Tertiary syphilis-

__________ syphilis - when it affects the heart

A

Cardiovascular

84
Q

__________ syphilis (Vertical transmission)

  • syphilitic stillbirth
  • treated after 4th month of pregnancy
A

Congenital

85
Q

Congenital syphilis (Vertical transmission)

  • __________ stillbirth
  • treated after ___ month of pregnancy
A
  • syphilitic

- 4th

86
Q

Syphilis Treatment:

  • __________ penicillin
  • Treatment is not effective during the__________ stage of the disease
A
  • antibiotic

- tertiary

87
Q

Syphilis Prevention:

  • __________ use
  • To reduce the incidence of congenital syphilis pregnant women are given a blood test and if the test is (+) she would be treated with __________
A

-Condom

antibiotics

88
Q

__________ : Caused by Toxoplasma gondii; this is a protozoon

A

Toxoplasmosis

89
Q

Toxoplasmosis: Caused by Toxoplasma gondii; this is a __________

A

protozoon

90
Q

__________ = where organism is naturally found

A

reservoir

91
Q

-Toxoplasmosis-

The reservoir for the organism is animal (__________)

A

rodents

92
Q

-Toxoplasmosis-

It is __________ in rodents. From rodents it gets transmitted to __________

A
  • enteric

- cats

93
Q

-Toxoplasmosis-

__________ are the intermediate host

A

Cats

94
Q

-Toxoplasmosis-

From cats it can be transmitted to __________ by fecal-oral transmission (__________)

A
  • humans

- ingested

95
Q

-Toxoplasmosis-

Most people have a __________ infection (no signs or symptoms) to this, but the microbe can become __________ in some people

A
  • subclinical

- latent

96
Q

-Toxoplasmosis-

Those who are severely compromised can develop __________ or go blind

A

encephalitis

97
Q

-Toxoplasmosis-

This microbe will transmit __________ resulting in miscarriage, __________, or brain damage

A
  • vertically

- blindness

98
Q

-Toxoplasmosis-

CDC recommendation is that pregnant women and __________ should not clean out a __________ or in general should be aware of the danger of this disease from cats. (Especially cats that go outdoors)

A
  • immunocompromised

- cat box

99
Q

-Toxoplasmosis-

__________ - Infected but develops immunity

A

Seropositive

100
Q

-Toxoplasmosis-

__________ - Never been exposed before

A

Seronegative

101
Q

There has been a strong correlation between __________ and changes in behavior

A

toxoplasmosis

102
Q

__________ caused by Listeria monocytogenes (Food poisoning)

A

Listeriosis

103
Q

Listeriosis caused by Listeria monocytogenes (__________ )

A

Food poisoning

104
Q

-Listeriosis-

Due to poor quality control, many pre-cooked products have been __________ such as hot dogs and deli meat, and bagged __________

A
  • contaminated

- salad

105
Q

__________ : This pathogen will grow at room temperature and the fridge, but it will grow faster in the refrigerator.

A

Listeriosis-

106
Q

Heat will kill __________, so cooking food will destroy this microbe

A

Listeria

107
Q

-Listeriosis-

Most people who consume an I.D. have a __________ infection unless __________

A
  • subclinical

- immunocompromised

108
Q

-Listeriosis-

People with immune deficiency will develop __________ ; treatment is antibiotics

A

meningitis

109
Q

-Listeriosis-

If a pregnant woman consumes an I.D., she will usually have a subclinical infection, but the microbe will cross the placental barrier and cause __________. Transmission can also occur in the __________ leading to meningitis or septicemia

A
  • miscarriage

- birth canal

110
Q

-Listeriosis-

C.D.C. recommendation is that people in high risk groups should not consume __________, hot dogs, bagged salad, or __________ cheeses unless the food is cooked

A
  • deli meat

- unpasteurized

111
Q

Chlamydia:

The etiology is Chlamydia __________

A

trachomatis

112
Q

Cause of genital chlamydia also known as __________ urethritis (NGU) [not caused by gonorrhea]

A

nongonococcal

113
Q

-Chlamydia-

This is an __________ —most people have an __________

A
  • STD/STI

- STI

114
Q

__________:
When vertically transmitted it will cause inclusion conjunctivitis (eye infection) that without treatment (Repeated Infections) will lead to the eyelids turning inwards.

A

Chlamydia

115
Q

Chlamydia:
When vertically transmitted it will cause inclusion __________ (eye infection) that without treatment (Repeated Infections) will lead to the __________ turning inwards.

A
  • conjunctivitis

- eyelids

116
Q

Chlamydia:

inclusion conjunctivitis (eye infection) that without treatment (Repeated Infections) will lead to the eyelids turning inwards
This is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and is the leading cause of preventable blindness in the world.  [preventable had it been treated with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_]
A
  • Trachoma

- antibiotics

117
Q

Chlamydia:

The eyelashes scrape the cornea causing ulceration – __________-

A

blindness

118
Q

Trachoma is sporadic in America because of the use of __________ ointment which is the treatment for __________ conjunctivitis

A
  • antibiotic

- inclusion

119
Q

Chlamydia:

Inclusion conjunctivitis can also be transmitted by:

  • __________
  • __________ i.e. towels
  • Auto inoculation (self inoculation- touching something then touching eye)
  • Public pools (“swimming pool” conjunctivitis)
  • Chlorine will kill Chlamydia
A
  • Flies

- Fomites

120
Q

Chlamydia:

Inclusion conjunctivitis can also be transmitted by:

  • Flies
  • Fomites i.e. towels
  • Auto __________ (self inoculation- touching something then touching eye)
  • Public pools (“swimming pool” conjunctivitis)
  • __________ will kill Chlamydia
A
  • inoculation

- Chlorine

121
Q

Gonorrhea:

Etiology is __________ gonorrhea

A

Neisseria

122
Q

-Gonorrhea-

When vertically transmitted it causes ophthalmic __________ (large amount of puss)

A

neonatorum

123
Q

-Gonorrhea-

Without treatment this will lead to __________

A

blindness

124
Q

-Gonorrhea-

__________ drops used to be applied as prophylaxis in the eyes of newborns to control this, but this prophylaxis has been changed to __________ ointment.

A
  • Silver nitrate

- antibiotic

125
Q

-Gonorrhea-

Silver nitrate prevents __________ neonatorum but not inclusion __________

A
  • ophthalmic

- conjunctivitis

126
Q

Antibiotic ointment prevents both conditions.

  • __________ neonatorum
  • __________ conjunctivitis
A
  • ophthalmic

- inclusion

127
Q

Rubella virus is the cause of __________ , also known as the 3 day measles (usually does not kill)

A

German measles

128
Q

__________ :

very mild childhood disease that usually causes subclinical infection; signs and symptoms include fever and rash

A

Rubella

129
Q

Rubella: very mild childhood disease that usually causes __________ infection; signs and symptoms include __________ and rash

A
  • subclinical

- fever

130
Q

Rubella:

The disease is sporadic in America due to __________

A

vaccination

131
Q

Rubella:

The vaccine is __________; attenuated vaccine

A

MMR

132
Q

Rubella:

If the virus transmits vertically (__________) during the 1st trimester the consequences include:

  • __________ (blindness)
  • Brain damage
  • Deafness
  • Miscarriage
A
  • seronegative

- Cataracts

133
Q

Rubella:

If the virus transmits vertically (seronegative) during the 1st trimester the consequences include:

  • Cataracts (blindness)
  • __________
  • Deafness
  • __________
A
  • Brain damage

- Miscarriage

134
Q

Rubella:

virus transmits vertically (seronegative) during the 1st trimester, it is known as __________ Rubella Syndrome

A

Congenital

135
Q

Congenital Rubella Syndrome will not occur if the pregnant woman has immunity to Rubella (__________ ), as the fetus will be protected by maternal __________. This is why vaccination is so important.

A
  • seropositive

- antibodies

136
Q

A pregnant woman who is seronegative to Rubella would not be vaccinated since the vaccine is __________ and reversion could occur; leading to developmental __________

A
  • attenuated

- defects

137
Q

__________ :

This is a type of Herpes virus (latent (dormant) virus)

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

138
Q

__________ :

It is found in saliva, tears, mucus, urine, feces, semen, and cervical secretions of carriers

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

139
Q

-Cytomegalovirus (CMV)-

Most people become infected during __________ or once __________ activity begins (STI).

A
  • childhood

- sexual

140
Q

-Cytomegalovirus (CMV)-

Usually cause as __________ infection; a significant majority of adults are antibody (_) to CMV

A
  • subclinical

- +

141
Q

-Cytomegalovirus (CMV)-

If the virus transmits __________ it will cause brain damage, blindness, __________, or miscarriage

A
  • vertically

- deafness

142
Q

-Cytomegalovirus (CMV)-

There is __________

A

no vaccine

143
Q

In immunocompromised people CMV is __________. It will activate from its __________ state.

A
  • opportunistic

- latent

144
Q

-Cytomegalovirus (CMV)-

The consequences include __________ and retinitis.

A

pneumonia

145
Q

__________ :This is the leading cause of blindness in AIDS patients

A

-Cytomegalovirus (CMV)-

146
Q

H = HSV 2 (Herpes Simplex Virus 2) - [cause of genital __________ ]

A

herpes

147
Q

-H = HSV 2 (Herpes Simplex Virus 2)-

Consequences of vertical transmission include:
Herpes __________ (brain)
Herpes __________ (eyes)
Cigarette burn appearance

A
  • encephalitis

- keratitis

148
Q

-H = HSV 2 (Herpes Simplex Virus 2)-

Pregnant women in __________ period - __________ transmit

A
  • latent

- can not

149
Q

-H = HSV 2 (Herpes Simplex Virus 2)-

The recommendation is that a pregnant woman with a history of __________ should deliver by
C-section

A

genital herpes

Microbiology 156 (17 decks)

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