Lecture 9 Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

F-actin is a _______ filament, able to grow and shorten (________)

A

Polar, treadmilling

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2
Q

The side that F-actin grows at is what end

A

Barbed or + end

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3
Q

The side that F-actin shortens at is what end

A

Pointed or - end

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4
Q

An unbound actin is called what

A

G-actin (globular)

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5
Q

Filamentous actin relies on what

A

ATP to bind to a G-actin and exchange it for ADP

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6
Q

A actin bundle is called what

A

Stress fiber

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7
Q

What is a focal adhesion

A

Sites of attachment linking actin,
transmembrane proteins and the
extracellular matrix

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8
Q

Myosin/ F-actin binding facilitates what

A

Intracellular movements

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9
Q

What class of myosin/ F-actin is involved in muscle contraction

A

Class 2

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10
Q

What is dystrophin

A

Actin-binding protein that links actin filaments
to transmembrane proteins of the muscle cell plasma membrane providing a link to the
extracellular matrix and stability during muscle contractions.

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11
Q

Microtubules are composed of what

A

Tubulin dimers

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12
Q

alpha/beta-tubulin heterodimer form head-to-tail polymers to form ______

A

Microtubules

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13
Q

Microtubules are composed of what

A

alpha/ beta dimers paired into13 linear protofilaments arranged in parallel

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14
Q

What controls microtubule polymerization

A

GTP hydrolysis

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15
Q

alpha/beta-tubulin dimer with GTP bound to
beta-tubulin binds on what end of the microtubule

A

Positive end

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16
Q

Centrosome or ________ anchors
microtubules

A

Microtubule organizing center (MTOC)

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17
Q

MTOC positive and negative ends are where

A

Positive to periphery and negative near nucleus

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18
Q

What stabilizes the negative ends near the nucleus of the microtubules

A

2 centrioles arranged orthogonally

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19
Q

Anti-tubulin therapeutics disrupt _______ formation

A

Mitotic spindle

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20
Q

Colchicine:

A

Binds a- and b-tubulin, inhibits polymerization (gout)

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21
Q

Vincristine

A

Causes nonspecific tubulin aggregation (tumors)

22
Q

Taxol

A

Promotes microtubule stabilization; cells “stuck” in mitosis (tumors)

23
Q

Mebendazole:

A

Binds b-tubulin of parasitic worms and less so to mammalian microtubules, disrupts microtubule function (Antihelminthic therapy)

24
Q

_______ and _______ move
along microtubule tracks
in opposing directions, what direction do they move in

A

Dynein (towards negative end) and Kinesin (towards positive end)

25
Axonemal microtubules: central shaft (or axoneme) of ______
Cilia and flagella
26
An axoneme has what pattern
9+2
27
Axonemal movement powered by ______
Dynein
28
Kartagener syndrome:
Dynein defect in flagella (sperm) and cilia (respiratory tract), decrease in fertility in males (immotile sperm) and females (dysfunctional fallopian tube cilia)
29
What are intermediate filaments for & what are 3 examples
Structural support & mechanical strength Keratin (epithelial cells) Vimentin (fibroblasts) Neurofilaments (neurons)
30
What is the order of size of intermediate filaments, F-actin, and microtubules
Microtubules> intermediate filaments> F-actin
31
Desmosomes and hemidesmosomes anchor _______
Intermediate filaments
32
Desmosomes provide cell-to-cell contacts by linking _______
Intermediate filaments and transmembrane proteins
33
Hemidesmosomes:
Provide cell-to extracellular matrix anchoring
34
Mutations to keratin intermediate filaments prevent assembly of strong IF networks in epithelial cells and can cause what
Epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS)
35
What are the 2 roles of the Golgi
Post-translational modifications, protein sorting to final intracellular or extracellular destinations
36
What is the mechanism that proteins get localized to the ER
1- KDEL sequence signals return to ER 2- KDEL receptors recognize sequence 3- Resident ER proteins return to ER
37
The secretory pathway is the ________________ and used when
Default pathway, when localization signal is absent (this pathway is constitutively active [always on])
38
Regulated exocytosis is always mediated through what & stored until when
Calcium signalling, stored until they get an extracellular signal
39
For regulated exocytosis what open the calcium channels
Depolarization
40
Newly synthesized lipids/ proteins from ER continuously arrive and fuse at the ____
Cis-golgi network
41
Where does protein come out in linear fashion
ER
42
What is the site of macromolecule degradation
Lysosome
43
What maintains the pH of a lysosome
H+ATPase (H pump)
44
What is the tag that targets proteins for lysosome
Mannose 6 phosphate
45
What is the process for a M6P tag being put on
1-ER adds N-linked glycosylation 2- N-acetylglucosamine phosphates are added to mannose residues in cis-golgi 3- N-acetylglucosamine is removed leaving M6P 4-M6P is recognized by receptors in trans golgi 5- Receptor mediated transport to late endosome 6- Dissociation at acidic pH 7- Removal of phosphate 8- pH becomes more acidic through ATP dependent proton pump, activating hydrolases, converting endosome to lysosome
46
What is the underlying mechanism of I-cell disease
* Mannose 6-PO4 tag failure in Golgi * Acid hydrolases are not incorporated into lysosome * Undegraded macromolecules accumulate
47
What is the lysosomal enzyme deficiency and the accumulating sphingolipid involved with Gaucher disease
Deficiency: Glucocerebrosidase Accumulating sphingolipid: Glucosylceramide
48
What is the lysosomal enzyme deficiency and the accumulating sphingolipid involved with Niemann- Pick disease (childhood alzheimer's)
Deficiency: Sphingomyelinase Accumulating sphingolipid: Sphingomyelin
49
What is the lysosomal enzyme deficiency and the accumulating GAG involved with Hurler syndrome
Deficiency: alpha-Iduronidase Accumulating GAG: Heparan sulfate and dermatan sulfate
50
Gaucher disease facts
-Most common lysosomal storage disease -Carriers of this disease are common among individuals with Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry (1 in 10) -Affects spleen and liver macrophages due to their ingestion of large amounts of lipids -Type 1: Liver and spleen enlargement -Therapy: enzyme replacement therapy
51
Acid hydrolases in a lysosome are around what pH
5