Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Board Review > Law Review GENERAL Clinical > Flashcards

Law Review GENERAL Clinical Flashcards

0
Q

Rivabirin and pregnancy? how long after can a patient get pregnant?

A

contraindicated in pregnancy , even a guy who is taking hep C cant have sex with a girl cuz she might have a baby with defects
-must wait 6 months after stopping therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Rivabirin and the kidney

A

Contraindicated at ClCR less than 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pegasys to generic

A

peginterferon 2g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What happens when a patient gets anemia or neutropenia with hepatitis C treatment?

A

doctor can prescribe epoetin for anemia

or filgastrim for neutropenia (neupogen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Entecavir Brand

FOOD?

A

Baraclude

NO FOOD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

peginterferon + rivabirin Brand

A

Rebetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

interferons and medguides

A

always dispense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Boceprivir/teleprivir

  • indication
  • MOA
  • frequency
  • pregnancy
A

Hepatitis C
protease inihibitors
-every 7 to 9 hours around the clock
-need negative pregnancy test before initial refill and before each refill
-must use two non hormonal contraceptives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

NRTI class side effects

A

-lactic acidosis: muscle weakness, feet , cant move arms
-Headache fatigue, nausea, diarrhea
-skin rash
ALL possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Epivir to Generic

Epivir HBV to generic

A

lamivudine for HIV

epivir HBV has a lower dose that is indicated for hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what meds cover bacteroides fragilis

A 
tigecycline
metronidazole
Amp sulbactam 
cefoxitin, cefotetan 
ertapenem
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

nitrofurantoin

  • indication
  • Se
  • Serious side effect
  • renal adjustment
A

only for cystitis NOT systemic symptoms of UTI since does not reach good systemic concentraiton

  • causes yellow brown urine that sotpes when you DC
  • can cause serious lung problems
  • CI at ClCR less than 60
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

biaxin to generic
MOA/Class
SE
DDI

A

clarithromycin
macrolide inhibiting 50 s
GI abmnormalities
3A4 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

amphotericin B

  • compatibility
  • why use the lipid formulation
  • pregnancy
  • side effects
A

ONLY D5W

  • use lipid formulations to decrease infusion reactions and decrease nephrotoxicity
  • pregnancy category B
  • SE nephrotoxicity and electrolyte imbalances
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what do you give to someone who has Cdiff but it it refractory to vancomycin and metronidazole?

A

Fidaxomicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

main rifampin side effects

A

hepatotoxicity and red orange urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

treatment for cytomegalovirus

A

cidofovir
valgancyclovir
foscarnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

clindamycin brand

spectrum

A

Cleocin
Covers gram + strept/staph but not enterococcus, gram + anaerobes
gram - anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

daptomycin

  • type of killing
  • concentration or time dependent
  • renal
  • SE
  • compatibility
A
  • bacteriocidal
  • concentration dependent
  • Adjust renally
  • myopathy of adem… (?)
  • NS only
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

antibiotics with SLE - like side effects?

A

isoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

microdantin versus macrobid frequency

A

100 QID

100 BID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

sinusitis doxycyline dose

A

100mg twice daily for 7-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Does voriconazole cover aspergilis?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

oseltamivir dose

A

75mg po twice daily for 5 days ( within the first 2 days of symptoms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

malaria prevention

main schedule

A

take the PO meds before and after traveling to an infected region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

mefloquine dosing

A

2 weeks before travel and 4 weeks after travel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

vivotif berna storage

A

fridge NOT freezer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

primaquine

  • indication
  • test
  • pregancy
  • dose timing
A

for p vivax
make sure patient gets tested for G6PD deficiency
pregnancy X
take 1-2 days before travel and 7 days after travel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is typhoid fever transmitted ? how is it prevented?

A

infected feces of people
make sure you eat safe food and water, wash hands
take the vaccine before traveling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Diamox generic

  • allergies
  • side effects
  • other recommendations
A

acetazolamide
CI in sulfa allergy
-photosensitivity
-remain well hydrated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

possible side effects of valacyclovir

A

well tolerated but …

nausea and headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

common blood condition with Rivabirin?

A

within 1-2 weeks of starting, can cause hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

epivir dosing for hepatitis B vs HIV

A

HIV 300 po QD

HBV 100 po QD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q 
Daytrana to generic
where to place 
can you swim in it
frequency
indication
A

methylphenidate patch
place on right hip on even days, left hip on odd days
yes can swim and bathe in it , make sure to hold patch in place for at least 30 seconds
place it once a day
it is for ADHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Recommended criteria for starting ADHD medications

A

MUST have inattention and symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity
symptoms must impair the person it at least 2 settings : home, work, school

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

can patients take ADHD meds at night to decrease appetite suppression?

A

not a good idea! stimulants can lead to insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which medications can be flushed down the toilet?

A 
duragesic- fentanyl
nucynta
opana- oxymorphone
oxycontin 
butrans 
diastat- diazepam 
avinza - morphine sulfate 
Onsolis- fentanyl
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Provigil to generic

  • indication
  • scheduled status
  • main adverse effects
A

modafinil
narcolepsy
CIV
severe rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Med guides and when to give them

  • stimulants?
  • atomoxetine
  • provigil
A

give med guides for new prescriptions and for each refill

  • Yes for all stimulants because of psychiatric and heart problems
  • yes for atomoxetine because of risk of suicidal thoughts for children and teens, heart probles
  • yest but for sever rash
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what to monitor in patients ADHD meds? when ?

A

Monitor Blood pressure & heart rate every month
height and weight every month or less often
ADHD symptoms and mood every month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ritalin to generic

A

methylphenidate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the starting dose of concerta?

concerta generic

A

18 m g once a day

methylphenidate ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

methylphenidate
stimulant side effects
usual schedule

A

-SE seeing, hearing non-real stuff, paranoia –> report
has an abuse potential
report chest pain, SOB or fainign
-usual schedule is start at low dose and increase dose with time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Nardil to generic

MOA

A

phenelzine

monoamine oxidase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

drug of choice for acute otitis media
dose
organism

A

amoxicillin 90mg/kg per day divided every 8 or 12 h

streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

moxatag to generic

  • indication
  • how to take
  • kidney function
A

ER amoxicillin for pharyngitis by streptococcus pyogenes

  • take within an hour of finishing a meal
  • not for patient that has ClCr less than 30
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

treatment of giardiasis

A

diarrheal illness by a parasite

metronidazole po 250-500 TID or QID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Ceftin generic

A

cefuroxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Extended dosing
gentamicin
tobramycin
amikacin

A

4 to 7 mg / kg/ dose

15mg/kg amikacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

penicillins and seizures

A

penicillins lower seizure threshold if they accumulate especially in renal impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Ketek generic

A

Telithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

minute time to infuse vancomycin

A

over two hours minimum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

rifampin and urine

rifampin and food

A

orange red discoloration of body secretions

NO food! decreases absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

treatment for syphillis based on duration of infection

A

penicillin G benzathine 2.4 million units x 1 for 3 weeks if unknown duration
if infection less than a year, just require one dose!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

quinopristin-dalfopristing and VRE

A

IV covers only VRE faecium not faecalis. Also covers MRSA IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

ethambutol main side effects

A

optic neuritis and decrease in visual acuity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

nitrofurantoin

  • role in treatment
  • when not to use
  • serious toxicity
  • food
A

for uncomplicated cystitis
NOT for less than 60 CL cr, not for systemic or complicated cystitis
pulmonary toxicity if used long term
take with food to increase absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Phenazopyridine

  • indication
  • OTC?
  • max day use
  • Food ? why?
A

to relieve pain from a UTI
yes OTC AZo and generics
maximum 2 day use because by then the antibiotics should be working by then so pain should be gone. If not gone, contact doctor cuz infection is not cured
-with food and 8 oz water because can cause stomach upset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

vancomycin concentration dependent or time dependent?

A

time dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Drug of choice for ESBL bacteria

A

carbapenems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

fidaxomicin

  • indication
  • effectiveness
A

clostridium dificille

as effective as vancomycin but less recurrence rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

zyban , Sexual dysfunction?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

adderall generic

A

dextroamphetamine / amphetamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

amphetamine toxicity treatment

A

if high blood pressure use BB
if super energetic give a sedative like lorazepam
if psychotic give an antipsychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is the OROS system ?
what ADHD med takes advantage of this ?
Age limit?

A
  • the outer layer dissolved right away for quick delivery but the inner layer is extended release
  • concerta requires once daily dosing 18mg QAM
  • 6 to 12 yo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

indication for dronedarone

A

maintaining sinus rhythm in recurrent Afib ad paroxismal Afib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

max use of afrin - oxymetazline (days)

why?

A

3 days

cuz of risk of rebound congestion and rhinits medicamentosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

triamcinolone for allergic rhinitis

A

Nasacort AQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Razadyne

A

Galantamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Beclomethasone for allergic rhinitis brand?

which is for asthma?

A

Q Nasl and Beconase AQ for allergic rhinitis

Q Var for asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

fluticasone for allergic rhinitis brands

A

Flonase

Veramyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

mometasone for asthma vs for allergies

A

Asmanex

Nasonex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

percent of elemental iron in

  • ferrous fumarate
  • ferrous sulfate
  • ferrous sulfate exsiccated
A
  • 33 %
  • 20%
  • 30%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

how long to taker iron for iron deficiency anemia

A

3 to 6 months after RBC, iron stores and other labs are normalized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what is the main indication for dabigatran

A

reduce the risk of stroke and blood clots in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation AKA: if you have irregular heart rhythm and not a prostesthetic valve, mitral valve repair or disease of mitral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Black box warning of dronaderone and WHY

A

class IV (4) heart failure and permanent heart failure , worse outcomes in these populations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

where to inject aranesp?

where to inject darbopoetin?

A
  • abdomen (not 2 inches around belly button)
  • front of middle thighs
  • outer area of buttox
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

formulations of allergic rhinitis are? why?

A

oral tablets , eyedrops: itchy eyes, oral solution: pediatrics, nasal spray for nasal symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

class 3 antiarrhythmics

A

sotalol

amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what test to do to send a patient home on clindamycin if pt has MRSA

A

D-t est for resistance of MRSA to clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Intuniv to generic

  • MOA
  • indication
  • DDI
  • food?
  • SEs
A

Guanfancine ER

  • central alpha 2 adrenegic receptor agonist
  • ADHD
  • 34a substrate
  • no high fat food
  • somnolence, bradycardia, GI pain, nausea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

drug of choice for perioperative prophylaxis

A
  1. first or second generation cephalosporins

2 if allergic: vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

endocarditis prophylaxis drug of choice and second line

A
  1. 2 grams amoxicillin 30-60 minutes before dental procedure
  2. clindamycin 600mg po 1 hours before procedure if Beta lactam allergy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

amphotericin B

  • potassium
  • magnesium
  • blood pressure
  • other side effects
A

decreases
decreases
decreases
chills and rigors, nephrotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Nizoral A-D to generic

A

ketoconazole 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

telithromycin main side effects

A

acute hepatic failure
visual problems
QTprolongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

rifaximin

  • indication
  • DDIs
A

treatment for Traveler’s diarrhea from non invasive ecoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

typhoid vaccine

  • route
  • storage
  • when to get vaccinated
A

4 capsules or IM injections
refrigerated
1 to 2 weeks before travel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

vivotif generic

and dosing

A

typhoid vaccine

1 capsule 1 hour before a meal with cold, luke warm water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

pediarix to generic

A

hepatitis b and DTAP and Polio vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

name of the tetanus booster

how frequent to take it

A

Td

every ten years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

children Dtap schedule

A 
DT is for children who cant tolerated the pertussis vaccine
start at 15- 18 months
2 years lold 
4 years old 
4-6 years old 
6 years old

a total of 5 doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

who should use Tdap and who should be using TD

A

Tdap is to prevent a tetanus infection after a cut or a burn, also for people who have not gotten a dose previously
Td should be used if Tdap is not available
-a person who already got Tdap (a dose)
-or a person 65 years or older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

MCV 4 vs MPSV4

  • route
  • age range
A

MCV 4 is given IM to patients 2 - 55 yo

MPSV4 is SC and 55 or older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

which vaccine brands contain just hepatits B vaccine

A

engerix B

recombivax B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

can you use acetaminophen during a vaccine

A

not before or after , but a while later is cool for mild pain or fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

in DTaP what do the captial versus the lower case letters mean

A

lower case d or p means a lower dose of diptheria or pertussi versus a capital D . The “a” means acellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

which vaccines go in the freezer and require reconstitution?

A

MMRV = Proquad
Zostavax
Varivax

98
Q 
Herpes zoster vaccine brand 
what temperature to store 
how quick to use vaccine 
route
what needle
A

Zostavax
keep at -15 degrees celsius
use within 30 min of reconstitution or discard
SC with a 5/8” needle

99
Q

three main symptoms of tetanus

A

muscle rigidity
painful muscle spasms
high fever

100
Q

who should get the hpv vaccine

A

women 11 to 12 yo up to age 26

men up to age 21

101
Q 
where are the following injected 
polio
Tdap/Td
TPV
Pnuemovax
Hep A/B
MCV 4
flu shot
HPV
A 
polio: SC or IM
Td /Tdap IM
TPV SC or IM
Pneumovax SC or IM
HepA/B : IM 
MCV 4 IM
flu shot IM
HPV IM
102
Q

Flublok

  • age range and indication
  • how is it different from the normal flu vaccine
A

for 18 to 49 years old

can be used in egg allergies cuz not made in chickens, made with recombinant DNA techniques

103
Q

Comvax to generic

A

Hepatitis B and Hemaphilus influenza

104
Q

side effects of pegintron and indication

A

peginterferon plus rivabirin for hepatitis C
NV and loss of appetite
feeling of having the flu for 1 to 2 days after injections
fee low, worried, anxious
vision changes , hair
rash
IF SOB go to the doctor

105
Q

sandostatin to generic

indication and MOA

A

ocreotide for variceal bleeding in portal hypertension

vasoconstriction of splanchnic vessels

106
Q

itraconazole tabs vs oral solution FOOD

A

Tabs or capsules should be after a meal because they require acid
oral solution should be on an empty stomach

107
Q

in gentamicin and tobramycin dosing

what dosing parameter affects the peak versus the trough

A

peak: Mg of the dose
trought: dosing frequency

108
Q

one cephalosporin with anaerobic coverage

A

cefotetan

109
Q

clindamycin renal adjustment

A

NO

110
Q

moxifloxacin renal adjustment

A

NO

111
Q

VFEND

sun?

A

voriconazole

yes photosensitivity

112
Q

antibiotics with IV to PO 1 to 1 conversion

A 
quinolones 
tetracycline 
smx tmp
linezolid 
rifampin
metronidazole
113
Q

lyme disease treatment

A

doxycycline

alternative amoxicillin

114
Q

what can be used for VRE

A

Tigacyl : tigecyline
Cubicin: daptomicin
Zyvox : linezolid

115
Q

levofloxacin tablets versus oral solution

food?

A

tablets are with or without food

but the oral solution is NO food

116
Q

risk factor to get tendonitis for fluoroquinolones

A

greater than 60 years old
transplant history
corticosteroid use

117
Q

ceftaroline coverage

A

really good gram positive coverage including MRSA and VRE

gram negative coverage is just like ceftriaxone

118
Q

oral candidiasis dosing for fluconazole IV

A

fluconazole IV 200mg IV qd for 7- 14 days

119
Q

what is tuloremia? treatment ?

A

infection by francicella tularensis after getting bitten by animals or other ways like breathing stuff
gentamicin / tobramycin 5mg/kg/ day divided every 8 hours for 7 to 14 days

120
Q

antibiotics that cover atypicals

A

Fluoroquinolones
doxycycline
azithromycin

121
Q

Y site administaration of Ceftriaxone: with what is it to be avoided

A

Calcium containing solutions use cefotaxime instead

122
Q

which cephalosporin has disulfuram like reaction with alcohol

A

cefotetan

123
Q

can patients use condoms /diaphragms / have sex when suing antifungal vaginal suppositories

A

NO because damage to the condom or diaphragm,

only sanitary napkins not tampons are ok

124
Q

rifaximin
indication
ddis

A

for travelers diarrhea from non invasive ecoli or for overt hepatic encephalopathy
doest not get absorbed systemically so not strong heaptic enzyme induction

125
Q

first line treatment for status epilipticus

A

lorazepam or diazepam

126
Q

side effects of depakote , generic

A

divalproex sodium
GI upset, nausea
weight gain
hair loss and thinnning

127
Q

can phenytoid cause SJS / TEN

A

YES if toxic levels occurs

Phenytoid needs to be separate 2 hours from tube feedings (AKA needs to be separated from meals)

128
Q

what diluent to use for phenytoin ONLY

A

normal saline

129
Q

topamax pregnancy category

A

pregancy D due to risk of cleft palate

130
Q

when to discontinue seizure treatment

A

if zero seizures within the last 2 to 4 years

if seizure from head injury , needs to be if zero seizures in 6 to 12 months can discontinue

131
Q

main indication for ethosuximide

A

absence seizures

132
Q

felbatol to generic

  • indication
  • Black box warning
A

felbamate for seizures

can cause hepatic failure, aplastic anemia

133
Q

valproate / valproic acid to brand
divalproex age limit
-brand dose
-main side effects

A

depakene
Depakote ER 125 to 150 BID
can cause liver damage

134
Q 
oxcarbazine 
DDIs 
biggest risk 
normal side effects 
cross reactivity to carbamazepine sensitivity
A

CYP inducer
SJS
dizzy , sleepy, tired , nausea
yes can cross react

135
Q

starting dose of topamax for seizures

MAx dose

A

25mg BID

200mg BID

136
Q

primodone belongs to which drug class

A

barbiturate

137
Q

what is the biggest warning for anticonvulsants

A

increased risk of suicidal ideation

138
Q

lamotrigine starting dose

DDI with VPA

A

25 mg daily for 2 weeks

VPA will increase lamotrigine level

139
Q

long term treatment with phenytoin , what are the side effects
how to treat two of them

A 
causes hirsutism and gingival hyperplasia
SLE
Hepatitis
macrocytic anemia: give folic acid 
osteoporosis: give calcium and vitamin D
140
Q

Keppra to generic

lamictal to generic

A

levotiracetam

lamotrigine

141
Q

WTF is oligohydrosis?
which anticonvulsants leand to oligohydrosis
who does it primarily affect

A

decreased sweating
topiramate/ zonisamide
children

142
Q

main indication for levitiracetam

A

first line for partial or generalized tonic clonic seizures

143
Q

if a patient got a rash with carbamazepine can they use oxcarbazine?

A

its not recommended cuz rish rash still there

144
Q

max infusion rate of phenytoin

A

50mg per min

145
Q

main toxicity from phenytoin overdose

A

ataxia : lack of coordination walking like you are drunk

146
Q

fosphenytoin

  • formulation
  • advantage
  • how long to work
A

injection IM with NS or D5W
thought to controll seizures faster cuz causes less hypdation than phenytoin
take 15 to 30 minutes to work so not really faster

147
Q

what is gabapentin FDA approved for

A

epilepsy and restless leg syndrome

also for post herpetic neuralgia

148
Q

carbamazepine testing

A

if asian descent HLA B1502

149
Q

BBW for valproate or divalproex

A

hepatic failure
pancreatitis
teratogenicity

150
Q

Gabitril to generic

A

tiagabine

151
Q

Hydrea
Droxia
to generic

A

hydroxyurea

152
Q

MOA of hydroxyurea with sickle cell disease

A

increases hemoglobin which blocks RBC sickling action

153
Q

exjade administration

A

drop- stir - drinkk tab must be dissolved
use OJ, AJ, H20
stir till even and then drink

154
Q

how is dabigatran cleared?

A

renally

155
Q

how is enoxaparin cleared

A

renally

156
Q

high potassium leads to what

A 
muscle weakness
bradycardia 
chest pain 
arrythmias
paresthesias
157
Q

ACE inhibitors and kidney dysfunction

A

start if no contrainidications at stage 3 ClCR 30-59

158
Q

kidney disease stages

A 
stage 1 is 120 or greater 
stage 2 is 60- 119
stage 3 is 30- 59
stage 4 is 15- 29
stage 5 is less than 15
159
Q

act FAST

A

face is droopy
arms don’t raise the same way
speech is slurred
time - actu quickly

160
Q

indication of nimodipine

only route of administration

A

for subarachnoid hemorrage
only PO max 21 days
BBW for IV (DO NOT USE IV)

161
Q

what is the maximum dose of alteplase

A

90 mg

162
Q

three approved regimens to prevents ischemic stroke

A
  1. ASA
  2. Clopidogrel
  3. ASA + dipyridamole
163
Q

phenytoin level in blood target

IM injection ?

A

10 to 20

AVOID

164
Q

number one reason patients get strokes

A

cuz they have hypertension and dont take their medicines regularly

165
Q

side effects of hydroxyurea

A

leukopenia and neutropenia
HA dizziness
hyper-pigmentation of nail or skin

166
Q

dose of folic acid for children

A

0.1mg to 0.4mg per day in 1 to 10 YO, can do 1mg a day, max 5mg a day

167
Q

hydroxyurea and pregnancy

A

use gloves when handling if pregnant and wash hands afterwards cuz this is category D

168
Q

why use deferasirox over deferoxamine

A

it Is PO vs the other is an injection . So it is better tolerated
it is less time consuming to administer

169
Q

buspar versus wellbutrin in terms of 3a4

A

buspirone is substrate of 3a4 while buproprion is not

170
Q

lithium and elderly patients

A

caution!

171
Q

nuvigil to generic
MOA
inidication

A

armodafinil
not known
narcolepsy

172
Q

tagamet to generic

A

cimetidine

173
Q

drug of choice if asthmatic and pregnant

A

budesonide plus albuterol
budesonide = pulmicort, flexhaler or respule
budesonide is also the drug of choice for infants with asthma but only the respules

174
Q

bacterial vaginosis and pregnancy treatment

A

DOC is clyndamycin PO and 2nd line is metronidazole PO

topical metronidazole and Clindamycin are not indicated in pregancy

175
Q

pregnancy and macrolides

A

azithromycin and erythromycin are category B, Clarithromycin is category C

176
Q

the folic acid name as a vitaimin name

A

vitamin B9

177
Q

do prenatal vitamins contain enough calcium for pregnancy?

A

no ! 200mg is not enough you need at least 1000mg

178
Q

chlor-trimeton

A

chlorpheniramine

179
Q

what to treat motion sickness, nausea in pregnancy

A

vitamin B6 which is pyridxime, you can also use an antihistamine

180
Q

trichomoniasis , metronidazole treatment dose?

pregnancy?

A

2G x 1 OR 500 BID x 7 OR 250 tid x 7 –ALL ok, even for pregnacy
Higher doses means higher side effects

181
Q

pregnancy and chlamydia

A

zithromax can be used at 1g x 1, but if also going to treat gonorrhea can use 2g x 1

  • Can also use amoxil
  • clarythromycin is not safe in pregnancy
182
Q

pregnancy and hyperthyroidism

A

can use PTU and methimazole but PTU is in the first trimester, then methemazole in 2nd and third trimester

183
Q

which anticonvulsants also can be used for migraine prophylaxis

A

topamax

depakote- divalproex

184
Q

drugs that increase the risk of seizures

A

demerol - meperidine
Ultram- tramadol
primaxin - imipenem/cylastin
zyban - bupoprion

185
Q

what need to supplement with carbamazepine?

biggest concern with CBZ

A

vitamin and folate levels

scared of SJS or TEN

186
Q

clindamycin renal dose adjustment

A

none MO-FO!

187
Q

vitamin D3
vitamin D2
why use doxercalciferol?
why use paricalcitol?

A

cholecalciferol = rocaltrol= calcitione
ergocalciferol
they decrease changes of hypercalcemia

188
Q

phosolo generic

A

calcium acetate

189
Q

at what Clearance createnine to avoid alendronate

A

less than 35

190
Q

tadalafil and severe renal impairment

A

less than 30 for prn use 5mg every 72 hours max

less than 30 for chronic daily treatment : DO NOT USE

191
Q

meperidine is cleared how?

A

renally and end metabolite is cleared renally too, so its metabolite can accumulate

192
Q

how is tigecycline cleared

A

50 % bile and 30 % urine

193
Q

how is metoclopramide cleared

A

renally

194
Q

pregabalin cleared

A

renally

195
Q

why do renal disease patients get problems with bones

A

increased phosphate levels leads to increased pth excretion which leads to breakdown of bone. Solution is to decrease phosphate intake

196
Q

rivaroxaban cleared?

A

renal cleared?

197
Q

how is voriconazole cleared

A

renally

198
Q

bicitra to generic
indication
cytra-z
SEs

A

sodium citrate/citric acid
for chronic metabolic acidosis
cytra z i s the same
SE are diarrhea

199
Q

xarelto to generic

DDIs

A

Rivaroxaban

3A4 substrate

200
Q

buspar DDI

A

cyp 3a4 substrate

201
Q

biaxin to generic

class

A

clarithromycin

macrolide inhibition of 50s ribosome

202
Q

what is the DDI of valproate with lamotrigine?

can you still give them together?

A

VPA inhibits metabolism of lamotrigine which increases the risk of rash
the lamictal dose titration can be used but need to use even lower doses

203
Q

demadex to generic

A

torsemide

204
Q

theophylline with respect to 3a4

A

subtrate

205
Q

dyazide to generic

MOA

A

triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide

inihitbs the sodium in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to decreased H2o and increased potassium retention

206
Q

inspra to generic

A

eplerenone

207
Q

MOA of tetracyclines

A

inhibit the 30s subunit of ribosome leading to decreased protein synthesis

208
Q

QT prolongation of

  • antibiotics
  • TCA
  • opoids
A

Quinolones and macrolides
amytryptiline
methadone

209
Q

can a patient on an MAOI take pseudophed?

alprazolam?

A

no pseudofed or analagos

yes alprazolam

210
Q

Grepefruit juice and transplant medications

A

Do not use due to tacrolimus/cyclosporine DDI

211
Q

common PGP substrates

A

cyclosporine/ TAC

dabigatran (pradaxa) /rivaroxaban (xarelto)

212
Q

which statin has least DDI risk

A

pravastatin

213
Q

meds that cause hearing damage

A 
salicylate
vancomycin
tobramycin and gentamycin
ethacrynic acid
bumethanide
214
Q

neoral to generic

A

cyclosporine

215
Q

symptoms of serotonin syndrome

A

tremor, agitation, confusion, hallucination
tachycardia, sweating
diarrhea
muscle rigidity, shivering

216
Q

sustiva to generic
atripla to generic
emtriva to generic

A

efavirenz
efavirenz with tenofovir and emtricitabine
emtricitiabine

217
Q

kaletra to generic

food?

A

lopinavir and ritonavir

oral soluation must be with food but the tabs doesnt matter

218
Q

one preferred regimen for pregnant woman with HIV

A

ZDV/3TC + Lopinavir/RTV

219
Q

prophylaxis for toxoplasma in HIV, CD4 count

A
220
Q

pneumocystitis CD4 count to start prophylaxis

A

less than 200

221
Q

pregnancy category of efavirenz ?

A

D

222
Q

treatment for mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) opportunistic infection

A

azithromycin 1200 mg po every week

223
Q

epzicom to generic

A

ABC/3TC (abacavir/ lamivudine)

224
Q

Ziagen to generic

  • Bbw
  • test
  • class
A

abacavir
hypersensitivity if
positive for HLAB5701
NRTI

225
Q

class side effects of protease inhibitors

A

fat redistribution
dyslipidemia
insulin resistance

226
Q

tacrolimus

  • monitoring
  • DDIs
  • MOA
A

monitor trough levels
cyp 3A4 substrate and pgp substrate
calceneurin inhibitor

227
Q 
cyclosporine to brands
common side effects
monitoring 
ddis
MOA
A 
Neoral (caps and tabs), Sandimmune 
increase in blood glucose, nephrotoxicity, qt prolongation 
trough levels 
3a4 and pgp substrate 
calcineurin inhibitors
228
Q

renal transplant

blood pressure goal

A

less than 130 /80 (check JNC 8)

229
Q

belatacept bbw

A

post translplant lyphoproliferative disorder: lyphocytes grow out of control
only for EPV negative patients only

230
Q

what can cyclosporine solution be diluted with

A

apple juice or orange juice

231
Q 
mycophenolate to brand
pregnancy category 
food interaction 
frequency 
common side effects
A

CellCept (mofetil) Myfortic (delayed release)
D fetal harm
empty stomach / separate from multivitamins /questra/
give every 12 hours exactly
diarrhea

232
Q

How are these transmitted

  • dengue
  • African sleeping sickness
  • Japanese encephalopathy
  • malaria
  • yellow fever
A

All through mosquito bites except African sickness

233
Q

Xenical should be separated from what ?

A

Separate from ADEK vitamins , take at different times of the day

234
Q

Lorcaserin to brand
Pregnancy
MOA
Phase IV trials

A

Belviq
Category x
Serotonin receptor agonist
Monitor cardiovascular effects using lorcaserin

235
Q

Most common side effects of orlistat

A

Flatulence with discharge

Fatty stool

236
Q

Xenical to generic

A

Orlistat

237
Q

Weight loss guidelines recommendation to have bariatric surgery

A

Yes if the Bmi is great than 40 or greater than 35 with obesity related conditions

238
Q

Lorcaserin side effects

A 
Headache and dizziness 
Fatigue 
Dry mouth 
Constipation
Risk of hypoglycemia if diabetic
239
Q

Qsymia to generic
Contraindication
Scheduled?

A

Phetermine and topiramate
Contraindicated in pregancy, lactation, MAOI within14 days, hyperpathyroidosis
Scheduled IV

240
Q

Lorcaserin
Indication
Dose
DDI with serotonergic agents

A

Weight loss
Patients with bmi must be obese or overweight with at least one weight related condition
10mg bid
Increased risk of serotonin syndrome

241
Q

What kind of environment is required for atazanavir absorption

A

Acidic required

242
Q

Post exposure prophylaxis for HIV

A

Tenofovir emtricitabine to raltegravir for 4 weeks

Board Review (65 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions