Last Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

This is a mathematical model on the genotypic and allelic frequencies of a population

A

Hardy Weinberg law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the formula for the h-w law

A

P2 (squared) + 2pq+ q2 (squared)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Population is large

Randomly mating

Not affected by mutations, migration, or natural selection

A

Hardy Weinberg equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

GENE FREQUENCY

When you mate two roan shorthorns what is the possible outcome ratio

What is the frequency

A

1 RR : 2 RW : 1 WW

R = 0.5 
W= 0.5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
Assume a population of 100 shorthorns has 
49 red (RR). 42 roan (RW). 9 white ( WW) 
Calculate the frequencies
A

49 Red (RR) = 98 red. 0 W

42 Roan (RW) = 42 R 42w

9 White (WW)= 0 r 18W

Add up red and white= 140 red 60 w

Divide both by 200

R= .7
W= .3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do frequencies need to add up to to be right

A

1.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is the h-w law beneficial

Example

A

It is valuable when you can’t see the heterozygous genotype in your herd or flock

Exp: angus cattle

Genetic defects (PSS) (SLS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This is a mixing of populations

Large changes in frequencies can be made quickly

A

Migration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

This is a chemical change that alters DNA

It doesn’t occur often in a population

A

Mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two types of selections and their definitions

A

Natural selection- occurs in wild populations

Artificial selection- controlled by humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This is a loss or gain of traits due to changes in a gene pool that take place by chance.
Controlled by size of population (as population gets smaller then the increases)

A

Genetic drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This is used as a way to compare animals across herds

Usually within a breed

A

National genetic evaluation programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the three evaluation programs and what animals use them

A

EPDs = beef, swine, sheep

EBVs= sheep

PTAs = dairy, goats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some of the traits that the evaluation programs include

A
Reproduction 
Growth
Carcass
Milk production
Disposition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does EPD, EBV, PTA stand for

A

Expected progeny difference

Estimated breeding value

Predicted transmitting ability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

This is the predicted difference between an individuals progeny and all contemporaries for the progeny

A

EPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The genetic worth of an animal to a breed or flock

A

EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The expected difference in progeny averages it is equal to 1/2 the EBV

A

PTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This is a measure of the confidence in the estimate and ranges from 0-1
As this approaches 1 we have more confidence in the estimate of genetic worth

A

Accuracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This projects the genetic value of an animal as a parent based on past (ancestral) performance

It’s based on the progeny performance of a sire line

A

Expected progeny difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 3 most useful selection tools for herd improvement

A

Growth traits

Maternal traits

Carcass traits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

EPDs are used to ___________ animals

EPDs are specific to a ___________

A

Compare

Breed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

This is the key equation on making change in animal populations due to selection (the response animals will have to selection)

A

Genetic progress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does Genetic Progress =

A

Heritability times selection differential

R= h squared * S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

This is the portion that can be passed to offspring in the genetic progress formula

Or

The fraction of phenotypic differences between animals that is heritable from the parents

A

H squared

Heritabilityx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

This is the difference between the selected individuals in the herd and the herd average
In GP formula

A

Selection differential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

_____________ is the single most important parameter in the design of breeding programs

A

Heritability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are some low heritability traits <0.2

Moderate heritability 0.2 to 0.4

High heritability >0.4

A

Low: reproductive traits (litter size/twinning)

Mod: growth traits (yearling weight/feed efficiency/pasture gain)

High: carcass traits (fat thickness/muscle size/ marbling)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are limits to genetic progress?

A

Culling rates-the response of a population to selection will often level off at some point in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

You make the greatest progress when you have a high _______________ _______________

A

Selection differential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Genetic change per year =

A
Heritability times selection  differential
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Generation interval (yrs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

This is the average age of the parents when the offspring is born

A

Generation interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

This is the choosing of animals to be parents of the next generation

A

Selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

This is what decides which parents are mated together

A

Mating systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the two types of breedings and the examples of them

A

Inbreeding
- linebreeding

Outbreeding

  • outcrossing
  • grading up
  • crossbreeding
  • species crossing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the importance of mating system

A
  1. To maximize genetically superior animals within a herd or flock
  2. Preserve genetic material
  3. Utilize hybrid vigor- where offspring achieve more than the parents which = heterosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

This is mating animals that are closely related and what does it result in

A

Inbreeding

Results in increase of homozygosity of gene pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does inbreeding do?

A

Increase homozygosity which = more AA and as genotypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are positives of inbreeding

A
  1. Crossing of inbred lines results in heterosis
  2. Can increase frequency of desirable traits
  3. Inbred animals with superior performance breed true
40
Q

What are the negatives of inbreeding

A
  1. Generally causes lower production called inbreeding depression
  2. Reveals undesirable genes and could increase expression of lethal genes
41
Q

What is an example of inbreeding in angus cattle?

A

Anthrogryposis multiplex

Or curly calf syndrome

42
Q

This is a mild form of inbreeding

It concentrates on note or more ancestors in a pedigree (less of an increase in homozygosity)

A

Line breeding

43
Q

What’s an example of line breeding in horses

A

Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP)

44
Q

This is mating of unrelated animals = increases heterozygosity (Aa)

A

Outbreeding

45
Q

The mating of unrelated animals in the same breed

A

Outcrossing

46
Q

Improving a stock of Animals for some productive function by consecutive matings with animals considered genetically superior

Mating of commercial female to pure breed sires

A

Grading up

47
Q

Mating of animals in different breeds

They tend to be more vigorous, fertile, and healthy, grow faster than avg. of parental stock

A

Crossbreeding

48
Q

An example of this is a mule

A

Species crosses

49
Q

What is the advantage of crossbreeding

A

Heterosis

50
Q

What does heterosis affect

A

Heritability

If heritability is low= high heterosis

51
Q

In a terminal breeding system what happens to progeny

A

All progeny are sold

Which means all new females must be purchased or generated for herd

52
Q

This is selection for specific alleles using markers such as linked DNA sequences

Exp include?

A

Marker assisted selection

Decrease mastitis in dairy industry

Selecting for or against double muscling

Increase carcass cut ability in hogs

53
Q

Anatomy and physiology of repro

This is a branch of vet medicine concerned with vet obstetrics and with the diseases and physiology of animal reproductive systems

A

Theriogenology

54
Q

What are the primary functions of reproductive organs

A

Production of gametes

Production of hormones(helps go into heat)

Fertilization

Development of embryo and fetus during pregnancy

Parturition

55
Q

Reproduction is only possible as a result of physiological ________________

A

Compatibility

Species who are not compatible cannot reproduce

56
Q

When is an animal first able to produce

Also known as the age at which an animal is first capable of producing fertile gametes

What is it for males and females

A

Puberty

M= appearance of spermatids

F= 1st ovulation

57
Q

Age at puberty is influenced by an interaction between __________ and body composition (weight) and ________

A

Age and nutritio

Mostly age

58
Q

The first ovulation is also known as the __________ ovulation because they usually don’t get breed during the first ovulation

A

Silent

59
Q

What does the anatomy of the make repro tract consist of?

A

Tested (sperm production)

Duct system

Accessory sex glands

Penis

60
Q

What are the major functions of the male repro tract

A

Production/maturation, stoargband transportation of Sperm

Production of the male sex hormone testosterone

61
Q

This is an egg shaped organ which consists of seminiferous tubules and rete testis

What do the semi and rete do

A

Testicle

Semi- site of spermatogenesis(creation of sperm)

Rete- collecting ducts for the Newly formed spermatozoa

62
Q

What is a sac which enclosed testes?

And what does it do

A

Scrotum

Radiates heat and contracts or relaxes to adjust temp

Temp for optimal spermatogenesis is below normal body temp

63
Q

A ___________ results when one( ____________) or both (bilateral) testicles fail to descend into the ___________

A

Cryptorchid

Unilateral

Scrotum

64
Q

Bilateral cryptorchids are ____________ but possess normal sexual activity and male appearance

Unilateral Only one dropped and can sometimes be ________

A

Sterile

Fertile

65
Q

Sperm travel from rete testis to the head of the ________________ which is a long continuous tube with three regions called the head (caput), _________ (corpus), and tail (cauda).

A

Epididymis

Body

66
Q

What is the

Caput

Corpus

Cauda

A

Head

Body

Tail

67
Q

What does the epididymis do

A

Involved in maturation and storage

Then widens into larger tube known as vas deferens

68
Q

What does the vas deferens do

Where does this become enlarged and site of join with urethra

A

Transports sperm to urethra

Ampulla which is a temp storage depot for sperm

69
Q

This is the passage for both urinary and male repro system

It begins at opening of ________
And continuous with the ________

A

Urethra

Bladder

Penis

70
Q

Where are male accessory sex glands located

What substances are added to nourish and simulate Sperm

A

Beginning of the urethra

Fructose for buffering capabilities

71
Q

This provides substances which neutralize urine residue and adds volume and may stimulate sperm activity

A

Seminal vesicles

72
Q

This is a donut shaped gland that surrounds the urethra near the opening of the bladder
Also provides nourishment and stimulates sperm activity

A

Prostate

73
Q

These are walnut shaped glands that secret a substance that gels or thickens to coagulate semen they are very large in boars

A

Bulbourethral (cowpers gland)

74
Q

This is a mixture of speed, fluids, and nutrients found in the ejaculate

A

Semen

75
Q

This is the external copulatory organ. Consists of the glands penis, urethra, erectile tissue and prepuce
Varies in shape among species
Becomes engorged with blood during erection
Posterior section is S shaped (sigmoid flexure)

A

Penis

76
Q

Males have the ability to produce an ___________ number of gametes (sperm)

A

Infinite

77
Q

What do leydig cells produce

A

Testosterone

78
Q

This is the general passageway to urinary and reproductive

The clitoris lies on the base

A

Vestubule

79
Q

This is folds of skin that cover the opening to the vestibule
The exterior portion of female reproductive tract

A

Vulva

80
Q

This is the sheath for acceptance of penis during copulation
Where semen is deposited in sheep and cattle during copulation
In horses and pigs some semen is deposited in the cervix and the uterine body

A

Vagina

81
Q

Smooth muscle sphincter that is tightly closed except during estrus
Series of circular ridges in most species except mare
Passageway for sperm
Storage reservoir for sperm
Barrier between external and internal environment

A

Cervix

82
Q

Site of implantation and fetal development

The wall consists of mucous membrane smooth muscle and outer peritonem
Humans don’t have uterine horn

A

Uterus

83
Q

This is the catchers mit/surrounds portion of oviduct

A

Infundinulum

84
Q

Where does fertilization occur

Another name for this is

A

Oviduct

Fallopian tubes

85
Q

What produces estrogen and progesterone

It has follicles indifferent stages of development

A

Ovaries

86
Q

What stimulates FSH and LH release

What is FSH

A

GnRH

FSH is the growth of follicles on the ovary

87
Q

Without adequate FSH follicles undergo __________

This is when follicles regress and die and most follicles undergo this

A

Atresia (degeneration

88
Q

What do developing follicles produce

What is estrogen responsible for

Elevated estrogen causes ________ surge from the anterior pituitary

A

Estrogen (the bigger they get the more the produce)

Reproductive behavior

LH

89
Q

_________ causes breakdown of follicle wall and release of the ovum or also know as

A

LH

OVULATION

90
Q

After ovulation, follicle becomes a ________________________

This thing produces progesterone

A

Corpus luteum

91
Q

This is produced by uterus and cause ________________ which is the breakdown of the corpus liteum
The developing embryo produces factors that ________ production of PGF2a

A

Protoglandin F2a

Luteolysis

Suppress

92
Q

______________ is released from posterior pituitary in response to nerve stimulus due to pressure on cervix

A

Oxytocin

93
Q

What is the follicle called when it is really big

A

Antral follicle

Graafian

94
Q

What are the 4 stages of folliculogenesis

Few follicles reach the size to produce enough estrogen to result in an _________ surge

A

Recruitment
Selection
Dominance
Atresia (for the follicles that donot ovulate)

LH

95
Q

What is the luteal faze

Follicular faze

A

Development of corpus luteum

Follicular faze is: estrogen which results in heat