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VPH > L15: A review of wildlife zoonoses > Flashcards

L15: A review of wildlife zoonoses Flashcards

1
Q

Which organisiation undertakes wildlife disease surveillance?

A

APHA

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2
Q

Which other organisations are also involved in disease surveillance?

A

SAC, Institute of Zoology, FERA, CEFAS

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3
Q

Who do APHA provide quarterly and annual reports to?

A

OIE

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4
Q

What does passive surveillance involve?

A

Submissions to APHA

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5
Q

What are three diseases under active surveillance?

A

Avian influenza, west nile fever, bat Lyssa viruses

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6
Q

How do wildlife disease organisations interact at the EU level?

A

European Wildlife Disease Association

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7
Q

What % of emerging diseases are wildlife derived?

A

72%

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8
Q

What can be spread in Herring gull faeces?

A

Salmonella, Campylobacter, Crypto, Verotoxigenic E Coli, avian influenza

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9
Q

Under what situation do young animals increase pathogen shedding?

A

During stress e.g. rescues

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10
Q

What can be spread by owls?

A

Salmonella, Campylobacter, Listeria, Spirochaetes

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11
Q

Which ectoparasites are carried by hedgehogs?

A

Ticks and fleas

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12
Q

What can be spread by hedgehog urine?

A

Lepto

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13
Q

What can be spread by hedgehog faeces?

A

Crypto, Salmonella, Yersinia, Chlamydophila

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14
Q

What strains of Salmonella are especially spread by badgers?

A

S typhimurium and agami

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15
Q

What 4 diseases may badgers spread?

A

TB, Salmonella, Crypto, Lepto

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16
Q

What are the two types of Lyssavirus which cause bat rabies?

A

EBL1 and EBL2

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17
Q

How many deaths from bat rabies have there been since 1977?

A

A couple

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18
Q

Which license is required before disturbing a bat colony?

A

Defra

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19
Q

What can hares spread (but not in the UK)?

A

Francisella tularensis

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20
Q

What three diseases may wild rabbits spread?

A

Verotoxigenic E Coli, M paratuberculosis, E cuniculi

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21
Q

What 6 diseases can ticks carry?

A

Lyme, Ehrlichiosis, tick-borne encephalitis (Louping Ill), tularaemia, Crimean Congo Haemorrhagic Fever, Babesiosis

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22
Q

What are the symptoms or Ehrlichiosis?

A

Fever, granulocytosis

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23
Q

What kind of a virus is Louping Ill?

A

A flavivirus

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24
Q

What country is tularaemia found?

A

France

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25
Q

What are the symptoms of Babesiosis?

A

Fever, anaemia

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26
Q

What organism causes Lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdoferi

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27
Q

What do you treat Lyme disease with?

A

Doxycycline

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28
Q

What % of Lyme cases are in the summer?

A

50%

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29
Q

What are symptoms of Lyme disease?

A

Erythema migrans (bullseye), fever, headache, muscle pain, arthritis, encephalitis, myocarditis

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30
Q

What disease is associated with wooden fish crates?

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

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31
Q

What may fish tanks harbour unusual serotypes of?

A

Salmonella

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32
Q

What causes Aquarist’s nodule?

A

Mycobacterium marinum

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33
Q

How do you identify Mycobacterium marinum?

A

Cross-reaction with Heaf test

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34
Q

What may marine mammals harbour?

A

Brucella

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35
Q

What % of polar bears are seropositive for Brucella?

A

5%

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36
Q

What can you get from undercooked freshwater fish?

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

37
Q

What can you get from undercooked sea fish?

A

Anisakis spp

38
Q

What is found as a fluke in freshwater fish or otters in saltwater fish?

A

Pseudamphistomum spp

39
Q

How much screening is there for wildlife imports?

A

Minimal

40
Q

What viruses may wild-caught imported animals carry?

A

Herpes B, hepatitis, SIV, Ebola

41
Q

What bacteria may wild-caught imported animals carry?

A

Lepto, Salmonella, Shigella, Mycobacteria

42
Q

What parasites may wild-caught imported animals carry?

A

Entamoeba, toxoplasma, helminths, ectoparasites, dermatophytes

43
Q

What pathogens do bites from wild animals usually give?

A

Pasteurella or Aeromonas

44
Q

Where is mycoplasma phococerebrale found?

A

URT commensal/opportunistic pathogen of seals

45
Q

What does a mycoplasma phococerebrale lesion look like?

A

Painful, progressive, orf-like lesion

46
Q

How do you treat mycoplasma phococerebrale

A

Tetracycline

47
Q

How do you get infected with mycoplasma phococerebrale?

A

Scratching or bites

48
Q

What is the only poisonous UK snake?

A

Adder

49
Q

What % of adder bites give mild symptoms only?

A

70%

50
Q

How do you treat adder bites?

A

Antihistamines, anti-inflammatory, fluids, antivenom

51
Q

What are the components of adder venom?

A

Protease and hyaluronidase

52
Q

What do adder bites cause?

A

Swelling and pain, compartment syndrome, cardiotoxicity, coagulopathy

53
Q

How can botulism cause mass deaths?

A

From spreading manure

54
Q

What species is type C botulism from?

A

Birds

55
Q

What species is type E botulism from?

A

Marine

56
Q

Where are types A and B botulism from?

A

Meat/veg

57
Q

Which species are avian botulism outbreaks a threat to?

A

Cats, dogs, cattle

58
Q

What are the symptoms of botulism in humans?

A

Initial diarrhoea in humans then constipation, blurred vision, dry mouth, paralysis

59
Q

How do birds get avian botulism?

A

Toxin ingestion or rarely gut, wound or crop infections

60
Q

Which organisation surveys mass garden bird mortality?

A

Garden Bird Health Initiative

61
Q

How do you reduce mass garden bird mortality?

A

Educate public on dead bird handling and disposal

62
Q

What may cause mass garden bird mortality?

A

Trauma, toxicity, Trichomonas, S typhimurium

63
Q

Which parasites are carried by wild game?

A

Crypto, Trichinella, spoilage organisms

64
Q

Which bacteria are carried by wild game organisms?

A

TB, Campylobacter, Salmonella, Clostridia, E Coli, Listeria etc

65
Q

Which metals may be found in game in some parts of the world?

A

Lead, mercury, cadmium

66
Q

What does the risk of heavy metals depend on?

A

The amount consumed

67
Q

How quickly must wild game be gutted?

A

As soon as possible

68
Q

What kind of inspection does private processing require?

A

None

69
Q

What do you need if wild game is being put for sale?

A

Hunter’s ante-mortem declaration, skinned, dressed and inspected

70
Q

What two things does traceability of game involve?

A

Tagging of carcases and serial tags

71
Q

Where is PM inspection done for game?

A

At approved Game Handling Establishments

72
Q

What must feral wild boar be tested for?

A

Trichinella

73
Q

What are inspection requirements like for wild game?

A

Less prescriptive e.g. visual inspection

74
Q

When was red squirrel parapox virus first recorded?

A

1995

75
Q

How does red squirrel parapox virus cause death?

A

Secondary effects e.g. bacterial infection or exhaustion

76
Q

Why is parapox virus potentially zoonotic?

A

Homology with Orf

77
Q

Where are there highest rates of red squirrel parapox virus?

A

Where red and grey squirrel coexist

78
Q

How does red squirrel parapox virus affect grey squirrels?

A

Shed virus with subclinical infection

79
Q

What is transmission of red squirrel pox virus like?

A

Highly susceptible but don’t support onward transmission

80
Q

Which are the only wildlife which are owned?

A

Young which belong to landowner until able to leave nest

81
Q

What are the exceptions to WACA 1981?

A

Care/recovery, killing for welfare, foxes, weasels, hedgehogs

82
Q

Which records must you keep to prove legality when rescuing?

A

The circumstances of rescue

83
Q

How soon must you release wildlife?

A

As soon as fit enough

84
Q

Which species must you have a license to release?

A

Pest

85
Q

What must the release not compromise?

A

Welfare

86
Q

Under which 4 situations do you need a Defra license when rehabilitating animals?

A

Schedule 4 birds, open to public, dangerous animals, destructive animals

87
Q

How long is the grace period for schedule 4 birds?

A

6 weeks

88
Q

Which animals are considered dangerous under the act?

A

Adders, wildcats

89
Q

Which species are considered destructive under the act?

A

Grey squirrels, mink, non-European rabbits

VPH (32 decks)

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