KIDNEY FUNCTION TEST Flashcards

1
Q

The functional units of each kidney or the nephrons are composed of five basic parts namely

A

glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of henle, distal convoluted tubule, and collecting duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what enzyme is primarily secreted in the kidney, catalyzes the synthesis of the active vitamin D

A

enzyme 1-a hydroxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how many liters of water are filtered daily in humans

A

180 liters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

in 180 liters of water filtered everyday, how many are reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule

A

150 liters - others absorbed 5 liters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the functions of the kidneys

A

elimination of waste products
maintenance of blood volume
maintenance of electrolyte balance
maintenance of acid-base balance
endocrine function (erythropoietin secretion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the human kidneys receive approx 25% of the blood pumped, what is the total renal blood flow

A

approx 1200 ml.mn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

the human kidneys receive approx 25% of the blood pumped, what is the total renal plasma flow

A

600-700 ml/mn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

this part of nephron is for immediate reabsorption of essential substances

A

PCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

this part of nephron is for final adjustment of the urinary composition

A

DCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

this part of nephron facilitates in major exchanges of water and salts place between the blood and the medullary interstitium; this exchange maintains the osmotic gradient concentration in the medulla, which is necessary for renal concentration

A

ascending and descending loop of henle in juxtamedullary nephron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

this part of nephron serves as nonselective filter of plasma substances

A

glomerulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

give the NPN’s and their corresponding percentage

A

urea - 45%
amino acid - 20%
uric acid - 20%
creatinine - 5%
creatine - 1%
ammonia - 0.2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

routine markers for GFR

A

clearance and cystatin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

secondary markers for GFR

A

beta-trace protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

considered the best overall indicator of the level of kidney function

A

GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

GFR decreases by _____ after age 20-30 yrs

A

1 ml/mn/yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how many liters of glomerular filtrate are produced daily

A

150 liters

must know:

180 liters of water are filtered daily
150 reabsorbed ng PCT (5 reabsorbed sa iba)

150 rin ang nagagawang glomerular filtrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the rate at which creatinine and urea are removed or cleared from the blood into the urine is termed as

A

clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

it represents the volume of plasma that would contribute in all the solute excreted

A

clearance test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

clearance test is expressed in

A

ml/mn

representing the volume of plasma that would be totally cleared of the solute in one minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

relationship of clearance and plasma concentration

A

inversely proportional - as clearance of substance declines the concentration in plasma increases

🔹 If the kidneys efficiently clear a substance (high clearance) → Less of it remains in the plasma, so its plasma concentration is low.

🔹 If clearance declines (low clearance) → The kidneys aren’t removing the substance well, so more stays in the plasma, leading to a higher plasma concentration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

volume of plasma from which a measured
amount of substance can be completely eliminated into the urine per unit of time expressed in
mililiters per minute

A

clearance test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

this clearance test is not routinely done because of the necessity for continuous intravenous infusion, which requires an intravenous infusion and timed urine collections over many hrs

A

inulin clearance - reference method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

doses of inulin clearance

A

priming - 25 ml of 10 % inulin solution
continuous - 500 ml of 1.5% inulin solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

disadvantage of inulin clearance test

A

use of IV infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ref range of inulin clearance test

A

male = 127ml/mn
female 118 ml/mn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

this clearance test provides an estimate of the amount of plasma that must flow tru the kidney glomeruli per minutes

A

ESTIMATE - creatinine clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

It is an excellent measure of renal function; ________is freely filtered by the glomeruli, minimally secreted in
the tubules but not reabsorbed.

A

creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

creatinine is not reabsorbed by the tubules but some are minimally secreted, how can we prevent the secretion to increase accuracy?

A

inhibition of tubular secretion using cimetidine - improves clearance estimate of GFR in patients with mild to moderate renal impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

increased creatinine clearance is found in what circumstances

A

high cardiac output
pregnancy
burns
carbon monoxide poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

decreased creatinine clearance is found in what circumstances

A

impaired kidney function
shock, dehydration
hemorrhage
congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

this clearance test become the standard lab method for determining GFR

A

creatinine clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

one of the first clearance test but is not used nowadays as it’s not accurate

A

urea clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

this clearance can demonstrate progression of renal disease or response to therapy.

A

urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

in advance renal failure, this clearance test is a better estimate of GFR than creatinine

A

urea clearance test

as renal function diminishes, the fraction of urea reabsorbed declines progressively, while the tubular secretion of creatinine increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

relationship of urine flow to urea concentration

A

inversely - the faster the rate of urine flow, the less urea is reabsorbed and vice versa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

is used to evaluate potential living kidney transplant donors

A

Iothalamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

is a nearly ideal substance for the measurement of clearance

A

creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

It is an endogenous metabolic product synthesized at a constant rate for a given individual and cleared essentially
only by glomerular filtration

A

creatinine clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

it is a low molecular weight protease inhibitor

A

cystatin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

produced in constant rate of all nucleated cells

A

cystatin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

cystatin C - its synthesis is strongly influenced by what interleukins

A

IL 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

it is COMPLETELY REABSORBED and catabolized by the PCT, hence, its presence in the urine denotes damage of that tubule

A

Cystatin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

serum level is an indirect estimate of GFR

A

cystatin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

why do serum creatinine is higher in males than females?

A

due to muscle mass correlation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

it is a reliable marker for a starting renal disease especially in predisposed individuals such as those with diabetes mellitus

A

cystatin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

recommended to assess GFR among pediatric, elderly, and renal transplant patients

A

cystatin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

increased cystatin C is observed in

A

acute and chronic failure, and diabetic nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

the modified cystatin C equation is used in what population

A

if a child is younger than 14 yrs old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

a low molecular weight glycoprotein

A

beta trace protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

belongs to lipocalin protein family and functions as prostaglandin D synthase

A

beta trace protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

aside from cystatin C that is completely absorbed by the tubules and catabolized by the proximal convoluted tubules, what is the other clearance protein that has the same characteristics?

A

beta trace protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

beta trace protein’s plasma concentration originates from

A

brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The National kidney foundation recommends what clearance test to be calculated each time creatinine level is reported

A

estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

the equation for eGFR used to predict GFR is based on

A

serum creatinine, age, body size, gender, and race without the need for a 24 hr urine collection, which when improperly collected causes inaccurate test results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what clearance test does not need a 24 hr urine collection, and can replace traditional testing such as creatinine clearance test and result in earlier detection of CKD

A

eGFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

this formula is one of the first formulas used to estimate GFR

A

cockcroft-gault formula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

this formula of GFR predicts creatinine clearance and the results are not corrected for body surface area

A

cockcroft-gault formula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

this equation or formula for GFR assumes that women will have 15% lower creatinine clearance than men at the same level of serum creatinine

A

cockcroft-gault formula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

this formula for GFR was developed in the study of chronic renal insufficiency

A

MDRD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The __ formula was validated in a large population that included both Black and White
individuals

A

MDRD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

this GFR formula does not require patient weight and is corrected for body surface area.

A

MDRD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The four-variable MDRD equation
includes___ as variables

A

age, race,gender, and serum creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

is a low-molecular-weight protein produced at a steady rate by most body tissues and is used as clearance test

A

cystatin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Levels of __rise more quickly than creatinine levels in acute kidney injury (AKI)

A

cystatin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

this clearance test Plasma concentrations appear to be unaffected by diet, gender, race, age, and muscle mass.

A

cystatin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

defined as the random fluctuation around a homeostatic setting point

A

biologic variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is the difference between “within-subject” and “between-subject”

A

within-subject means
- biologic fluctuation around the homeostatic setting point for a single individual

between-subject means
- differences between the homeostatic setting points of multiple individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

given the biologic variation of creatinine and cystatin C, what can u say to both?

A

creatinine is more helpful in monitoring renal function over time for a given individual

cystatin C is potentially more useful for detecting minor renal impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

is a small, nonglycosylated peptide found on the surface of most nucleated cells

A

b2-microglobulin/;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

β2-M is easily filtered by the glomerulus, and __% is reabsorbed by the proximal tubules and catabolized

A

99.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Measurement of serum __ is used clinicaly to assess renal tubular function in renal transplant patients, with elevated levels indicating organ rejection.

A

β2-M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

is a low-molecular-weight protein (16.9 kDa) associated with acute skeletal and cardiac muscle injury.

A

myoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

__functions to bind and transport oxygen from the plasma
membrane to the mitochondria in muscle cells.

A

Myoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

also referred to as microalbuminuria

A

albuminuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Urine albumin measurement is important in the management of patients with __

A

diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

is the first FDA-cleared test used to determine if critically ill patients are at risk for developing moderate to severe AKI in the 12 hrs following administration of the test

A

NeproCheck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

this kidney function test permits a detailed, in depth assessment of renal status with an easily obtained specimen

A

urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

kidney function test that serves as a quick indicator of an individual’s glucose status and hepatic-biliary function

A

urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

is a 25-kDa protein expressed by neutrophils and epithelial cells including those of the proximal tube

A

neutrophil gelatinase-associated lipocalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

if the urine is not being able to test within the time limit, it can be stored at what temp for how many hrs

A

2-8 for 8 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

markers for renal blood flow

A

urea, creatinine, uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

major end product of protein (dietary) and amino acid catabolism

A

blood urea nitrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

it is 45% of the total NPN and approx. 80% of the nitrogen excreted

A

BUN - urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

how blood urea nitrogen is synthesized

A

synthesized in the liver from carbon dioxide and ammonia or deamination of amino acids through the ornithine or kreb’s henseleit cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

you know that urea is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule passively right?

then how do urea being reabsorbed actively and where?

A

in the collecting duct using urea transporter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

the FIRST metabolite to elevate in kidney disease

88
Q

is urea easily removed during dialysis?

89
Q

good indicator of nitrogen intake and the state of hydration

90
Q

about how many gram of urea is excreted daily in stable nitrogen balance?

91
Q

formula to obtain UREA from BUN

A

2.14 * BUN = urea mg%

92
Q

ref range of BUN

A

8-23 mg/dl (2.9-832 mmol/L)

93
Q

BUN:Creatinine ratio

A

10:1 - 20:1

94
Q

anticoagulant that must NOT be used in BUN determination

A

fluoride and citrate - inhibits urease

96
Q

what are added in BUN determination to enhance color development

A

thiosemicarbazide and ferric ions

97
Q

what is forbidden in patients to drink before BUN determination

A

alcohol intake - ethanol lowers urea by more than 10%

fasting not required

98
Q

direct method of BUN

A

diacetyl monoxime method

99
Q

diacetyl monoxime method of BUN will produce what ___

A

yellow diazine derivative

100
Q

urease are prepared from __

A

jack beans

101
Q

In enzymatic method (indirect method) of BUN determination, after urease reaction, the ammonia produced are can be treated with ___ reagents

A

berthelot reagents

102
Q

what’s the UV enzymatic method of BUN called

A

GLDH - glutamate dehydrogenase method

103
Q

the reference method of BUN determination

A

isotope dilution mass spectrometry (IDMS )

104
Q

It determines unique spectroscopy fragments through mass spectrometry and quantification using isotopically labeled compound

A

isotope dilution mass spectrometry

105
Q

despite being the reference method of BUN - IDMS is not recommended for the reason of ____

A

the assay is expensive

106
Q

increased BUN is found in

A

chronic renal disease
stress
burns
high protein diet
dehydration

107
Q

decrease BUN is found in

A

poor nutrition
hepatic disease
impaired absorption (celiac disease)
pregnancy

108
Q

clinically, BUN rises in response to

A

renal dysfunction

109
Q

low BUN is not generally considered abnormal renal fucntion

true or false

110
Q

why is there a decreased BUN when there’s severe hepatic disease

A

because of a decline in the capacity of the liver to generate urea from ammonia

111
Q

it is the end product of muscle metabolism derived from creatine (a-methyl guanidoacetic acid)

A

creatinine

112
Q

what are the 3 amino acids that produces creatinine

A

methionine, arginine and lysine

113
Q

is creatinine easily removed by dialysis

A

nope - not easily

114
Q

is creatinine can be reused in the body’s metabolism

A

nooo - solely a waste product

115
Q

commonly used to monitor renal function; an index of of overall renal function

A

creatinine

116
Q

a measure of the completeness of 24 hr urine collection

A

creatinine

117
Q

creatinine is can be used to determine fetal age, aside from that it can determine ___ in of a fetal as well

A

fetal kidney

118
Q

the amount generated in an individual is proportional to the mass of skeletal muscle present

A

creatinine

119
Q

is a functional or structural abnormalities or markers of kidney damage including abnormalities in blood, urine, or tissue tests or imaging studies present for less than 3 months

A

acute kidney injury

120
Q

acute kidney injury is also called as

A

acute kidney failure

121
Q

A 24-hour urine sample with < 0.8 g/day of creatinine indicates

A

that some of the urine was probably discarded

122
Q

patients taking what antibiotic may have falsely increased results when the jaffe reaction is used

A

cephalosporin

123
Q

what is the principle behind the direct jaffe method of creatinine

A

creatinine + alkaline picrate = red-orange tautomer of creatinine picrate

124
Q

interferences of direct jaffe method for creatinine determination that will result to false increased level

A

ascorbate
glucose
uric
a-keto acids

125
Q

interferences of direct jaffe method for creatinine determination that will result to false decreased level

A

hgb and bilirubin

126
Q

what are the chemical methods of creatinine determination

A

folin wu method
lloyd or fuller’s earth method
jaffe reagent
kinetic jaffe method

127
Q

folin wu method

sensitive or specific?

A

sensitive
not specific

128
Q

what are the adsorbent of lloyd or fuller’s earth method

A

lloyd’s reagent - sodium aluminum silicate
fuller’s earth reagent - aluminum magnesium silicate

129
Q

purpose of adsorbent in lloyd or fuller’s earth method

A

removes interferences present in the specimen

130
Q

are utilized to separate creatinine from the adsorbent which is then made to react with the freshly made jaffe reagent

A

elution techniques

131
Q

disadvantage of llod or fuller’s earth method

A

a time-consuming method and not really automated; not routinely performed

132
Q

composition of jaffe reagent (alkaline picrate)

A

saturated picric acid
10% NaOH

133
Q

principle of kinetic jaffe method

A

serum is mixed with alkaline picrate solution and the rate of change in absorbance is measured between two points

134
Q

interferences in kinetic jaffe method

A

a-keto acids and cephalosporins

135
Q

this type of method for creatinine determination is used to eliminate non-specificity of the jaffe reaction and is more specific than jaffe test

A

enzymatic method

136
Q

what are the enzymatic method of creatinine determination

A

creatinine aminohydrolase - CK method
creatinase-hydrogen peroxide method
creatinine amidohydrolase/iminohydrolase method

137
Q

what is the reference method of creatinine determination

A

IDMS - isotope dilution mass spectrometry

138
Q

this enzymatic method of creatinine determination requires large volume of pre incubated samples and is not widely used

A

creatinine aminohydrolase- CK method

139
Q

this enzymatic method of creatinine determination has the potential to replace jaffe method and is more specific than jaffe method

A

creatinase-hydrogen peroxide method

140
Q

creatinase is also known as

A

creatinine aminohydrolase/iminohydrolase

141
Q

this enzymatic method of creatinine determination used the consumption of NADH to measure the concentration of creatinine at decrease absorbance at 340 nm

A

creatinine amidohydrolase/iminohydrolase method

142
Q

principle of IDMS for creatinine determination

A

a known amount of a C13 isotope-enriched creatinine is added to the sample and the mass spectrum is determined

143
Q

increased serum creatinine is found in

A

impaired renal function
chronic nephritis
congestive heart failure

144
Q

decreased serum creatinine

A

decreased muscle mass
advanced and severe liver disease
pregnancy
inadequate dietary protein

145
Q

why do elevated plasma creatinine concentration is associated with abnormal renal function, especially the glomerular function

A

since creatinine is freely filtered out of the blood and not reabsorbed,

If plasma creatinine is high, it suggests that the kidneys are not effectively filtering creatinine out of the blood, which indicates impaired glomerular function (GFR is reduced)

146
Q

plasma creatinine is a relatively insensitive marker and may not be measurably increased until renal function has deteriorated more than _____%

147
Q

describe the creatinine level of a plasma if the renal function is normal but has muscular disease

A

within the reference limit or normal

148
Q

kapag may muscle disease usually increased and creatinine, however, in severe muscle wasting, production of creatinine could be reduced to less than ____% of the amount predicted from the body weight

149
Q

___ and ___, in the face of elevated BUN and creatinine, is indicative of renal disease,
strongly suggest tubular failure

A

Hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia

Hyperphosphatemia → Proximal tubule dysfunction (↓ phosphate excretion).

Hypocalcemia → Impaired vitamin D activation (by the proximal tubules), thus failed reabsorption of calcium

150
Q

low ratio (BUN:CREA) <10:1

A

low protein diet - kasi diba from protein ang urea
acute tubular necrosis - tubular necrosis di nare-reabsorbed si urea
repeated dialysis - readily removed kasi si urea sa dialysis
hepatic disease - hindi nacoconvert ni liver si ammonia to urea

ending mababa si urea

151
Q

high ratio (BUN:CREA) >20:1 with normal creatinine

A

pre renal azotemia
dehydration
catabolic states
GI hemorrhages
high protein diet

pre-renal azotemia means
—-> Less blood reaching the kidneys → Less filtration → BUN accumulates in plasma.
—> due to low perfusion, kidney will keep sodium and water to maintain the volume, and urea follows water. Thus, increase in urea

dehydration
—> kidney will keep sodium and water, urea will follow water thus increase on its level

GI HEMORRHAGES
–> In GI bleeding, blood is digested in the stomach and intestines, breaking down into proteins (hemoglobin → amino acids), then metabolized in the liver

high protein diet
–> alam mo na yan, labyu, syempre dahil breakdown ng protein si urea, duh, basic

152
Q

causes of high ratio (BUN:CREA) >20:1 with high creatinine

A

post renal azotemia - usually caused by urinary obstruction by stones/tumors.
Preventing urine getting out the kidney ang ending elevated bun and crea

prerenal azotemia with renal disease
renal failure

153
Q

it is the major product of purine (adenine and guanine) catabolism

A

blood uric acid

154
Q

final breakdown of nucleic acids catabolism in humans

A

blood uric acid

155
Q

how do uric acid are formed

A

formed from xanthine by the action of xanthine oxidase in the liver and intestine

156
Q

95% of uric acid exist as

A

monosodium urate

157
Q

uric acid is derived from 3 sources, what are they

A

catabolism of ingested nucleoproteins
catabolism of endogenous nucleoproteins
direct transformation of endogenous purine nucleotides

158
Q

conditions that has hyperuricemia

A

gout
increased nuclear metabolism
chronic renal disease
lesch-nyhan syndrome
other causes

159
Q

conditions that has hypouricemia

A

fanconi’s syndrome
wilson’s disease
hodgkin’s disease

160
Q

it is a disease found primarily in males and first diagnosed between third and fifth decades of life

161
Q

a condition characterized by pain and inflammation of the joints (acute inflammatory arthritis)

162
Q

it is characterized by the presence of “birefringent crystals in the synovial fluid” - definitive diagnosis

163
Q

persons with gout are highly susceptible to what type of stone

A

nephrolithiasis - kidney stones

164
Q

value or amount of serum uric acid to form and considered as gout

165
Q

hyperuricemia condition that is seen in leukemia, lymphoma, multiple myeloma or polycythemia, and hemolytic and megaloblastic anemias

A

increased nuclear metabolism

166
Q

what is the treatment for increased nuclear metabolism

A

allopurinol drug

167
Q

a hyperuricemia that is due to decreased GFR and tubular secretion

A

chronic renal disease

168
Q

a hyperuricemia that is an inborn error of purine metabolism and is characterized by the deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase

A

lesch-nyhan syndrome

169
Q

from the book of rodriguez, what are the conditions under hypouricemia

A

fanconi’s syndrome
wilson’s disease
hodgkin’s disease

170
Q

describe the plasma uric acid of a newborn

A

elevated and gradually decreasing in the succeeding year

171
Q

Uric acid is stable in both serum and urine for how many days at room temperature

172
Q

the anticoagulant that cannot be used for uric acid determination

A

potassium oxalate

173
Q

major interferences of uric acid determination

A

ascorbic acid and bilirubin

174
Q

what is the principle behind the chemical methods of blood uric acid determination

A

reduction-oxidation reaction

175
Q

what are the method under chemical method that uses sodium cyanine

A

folin, brown, newton, and benedict method

176
Q

what are the method under chemical method that uses sodium carbonate

A

archibald, caraway, henry method

177
Q

is the incubation period of chemical method for uric acid determination after the addition of an alkali to inactivate non uric reactants

178
Q

principle behind the enzymatic method - uricase method

A

the enzyme uricase will oxidizes uric acid to form allantoin. Then spectrophotometry at 293 mm, allantoin can’t absorb light at this wavelength, so the sudden decrease of absorbance after the initial absorbance is proportional to the concentration of uric acid.

at initial absorbance, di naman mamemake sure if uric acid lang ba ang nandon, kapag na spectro yon, makikita ung absorbance ng buong solution at hindi specific to uric acid lang, so mag add ng uricase to oxidize uric acid, then magiging allantoin na si uric acid. Next is re-read at 293, mao-observe doon magkakaron ng changes sa absorbance. So initial absorbance - absorbance after adding of uricase, kaya sinabi na THE DECREASE OF ABSORBANCE IS PROPORTIONAL TO THE CONCENTRATION OF URIC ACID IN THE SAMPLE

179
Q

enzymatic method of uric acid uses what enzyme

180
Q

ref method of uric acid determination

181
Q

it is the elevated concentrations of nitrogenous substances such as urea and creatinine in blood

182
Q

a clinical syyndrome comprised of a marker elevation in plasma urea and other nitrogenous waste products, accompanied by acidemia and electrolyte imbalance

183
Q

uremia is characterized by

A

anemia (normocytic normochromic)
uremic frost (dirty skin)
generalized edema
foul breath
sweat is urine like odor

184
Q

what does uremia caused to red blood cell appearance

A

changes in red cell shape
- burr cells (echinocytes)
- ellipsoidal cells

185
Q

the presence of burr cells during the course of illness may signal the development of ___

A

renal dysfunction

186
Q

acc to rodriguez, what are the excretion tests

A

para-amino hippurate (PAH)/ diodrast test
phenosulfonthalein (PSP) dye test

187
Q

this excretion test measures the renal plasma flow

A

para-amino hippurate (DIODRAST TEST )

188
Q

this excretion test measures the excretion of the dye proportional to renal tubular mass

A

phenosulfonthalein DYE test

189
Q

this excretion test is for renal plasma flow that’s why it’s ref range is 600-70 ml/mn

190
Q

this excretion test is for renal total blood flow that’s why its ref range is 1200 ml/mn

A

PSP dye test

191
Q

this test reflects the function of the collecting tubules and the loops of henle

A

concentration test

192
Q

this test used to assess the quantity of solutes present in urine which reflects the ability of the kidneys to produce a concentrated urine

A

concentration test

193
Q

this test can detect renal damage that is not yet severe enough to cause elevated plasma urea and creatinine levels

A

concentration test

194
Q

monitoring the concentration of what inorganic compounds in urine reveals the ability of the kidney to concentrate the ultrafiltrate in tubules

A

sodium and chloride

195
Q

what are the most prevalent solutes excreted

A

urea, chloride, and sodium

196
Q

sample used for concentration test

A

first morning urine

197
Q

the simplest test of renal concentrating ability

A

specific gravity

198
Q

it compares the weight of a fluid with that distilled water at a reference temperature

A

Specific gravity q

199
Q

main determinant of the SG of plasma

200
Q

“fixation” of SG at 1.10 indicates

A

sever loss of concentrating ability of the kidneys

201
Q

SG iso osmotic plasma = _____
SG iso osmotic urine = _____

A

SG iso osmotic plasma = 1.020 - 1.030
SG iso osmotic urine = 1.010

202
Q

it is an expression of concentration in terms of the total number of solute particles present per kg solvent

A

osmolality

203
Q

affected only by the number of solutes present, thus more accurate than specific gravity in assessing tubular function

A

osmolality

204
Q

osmolality is regulated by the changes in ___

A

water balance

205
Q

urine osmolality is due primarily to what substance

206
Q

serum osmolality is due primarily to what substance

A

chloride and sodium

207
Q

in terms of molecular weight, what is the difference from SG to osmolality

A

osmolality is not affected by high molecular weight substances as opposed to SG such as proteins and lipids

208
Q

normal ration of urine osmolality to serum osmolality is

209
Q

primary organ responsible for osmotic regulation

A

hypothalamus

210
Q

how hypothalamus respond in 1-2% increase of serum osmolality

A

four fold increase of AVP concentration

211
Q

how hypothalamus respond in 1-2% decrease of serum osmolality

A

shuts off AVP synthesis

212
Q

polydipsia can cause (lower, higher) plasma osmolality and will suppress __ and ___

A

lower plasma osmolality; thirst and AVP

213
Q

describe the serum and urine osmolality of diabetes insipidus

A

increased serum osmolality
decrease urine osmolality

214
Q

describe the serum and urine osmolality of SIADH

A

decrease serum osmolality and normal/increase urine osmolality