key terms lifespan

Question 1

__________ describe(s) temperament as constitutionally based individual differences in reactivity and self-regulation.

Answer 1

Rothbart and Derryberry

Question 2

Rothbart distinguished between three aspects of temperament:

Answer 2

Surgency/extraversion and negative affectivity are the two components of reactivity and effortful control is the single component of self-regulation.

Question 3

The five components of gender identity identified by S. K. Egan and D. G. Perry are

Answer 3

knowledge of one’s own gender category,
self-perceived gender typicality (similarity),
felt contentment with one’s gender,
felt pressure for gender conformity, and
intergroup bias.

Question 4

Erikson identified ____ as the positive outcome of the autonomy vs. shame stage of psychosocial development.

Answer 4

will (initiative and self-determination)- can remember from willpower

Question 5

Based on their research, Kagan and his colleagues (Kagan et al., 2007) concluded that __________ is a temperament characteristic that has a biological basis and is relatively stable over time.

Answer 5

behavioral inhibition

Question 6

Freud’s psychosexual theory states five stages of human development:

Answer 6

oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital.

Question 7

In terms of age, Freud’s latency stage corresponds to Erikson’s ________ stage.

Answer 7

industry versus inferiority

Question 8

In response to the “Heinz dilemma,” some of Kohlberg’s research subjects said it was wrong for Heinz to steal a drug to try to save his dying wife because Heinz would get caught and sent to jail. This response is characteristic of Kohlberg’s __________ level of moral development.

Answer 8

preconventional

Question 9

___concluded that moral development ends with the onset of the autonomous stage in late childhood, and this claim has been criticized and challenged by the results of research on moral development during adolescence and adulthood.

Answer 9

piaget

Question 10

Self-defining memory (SDM) is a component of episodic memory and consists of memories that contribute to the construction and maintenance of one’s personal identity. According to Singer (2005), SDMs have five characteristics:

Answer 10

emotional intensity, vividness, high levels of repetition, linkage to similar memories, and connections to enduring concerns or unresolved conflicts.

Question 11

The studies have found that sensitivity to depth cues develops in infancy in a stage-like sequence, with sensitivity to ________ cues developing first.

Answer 11

kinetic

Question 12

Research has found that the greatest age-related atrophy in the adult cortex occurs in the:

Answer 12

frontal and parietal lobes

Question 13

Babies first exhibit intentional, goal-directed behaviors and imitation of the novel behaviors of others during substage ___ of Piaget’s sensorimotor stage.

Answer 13

4

Question 14

canonical babbling as occurring by __ months of age, first words by ___months, meaningful two-word combinations by ___months of age, and appropriate pronoun use by ___months of age.

Answer 14

6-8; 15; 24; 36

Question 15

The ability to imitate a complex action after a period of time when the model is no longer present is referred to as deferred imitation. According to Piaget, deferred imitation occurs between ____months of age.

Answer 15

18 and 24

Question 16

Instead of “I went there,” 30-month-old Mandy says, “I goed there.” This is an example of which of the following?

Answer 16

overregularization

Question 17

Piaget used the term ___ to describe the gradual acquisition of abilities within a stage (e.g., the gradual development of conservation skills within the concrete operational stage).

Answer 17

horizontal decalage

Question 18

Piaget described the substages of the sensorimotor stage as including primary, secondary, and tertiary circular reactions. ___emerge between 12 and 18 months of age and involve exploring the properties of objects by, for example, using it to move another object and seeing what happens to it when it’s dropped.

Answer 18

Tertiary circular reactions

Question 19

Volitional (versus reflexive) auditory localization emerges after _________ of age and then improves to nearly adult levels by about 12 months of age:

Answer 19

4 mos

Question 20

Rett syndrome is

Answer 20

an X-linked dominant disorder that is most often caused by mutations in the MECP2 gene.

Question 21

Data collected by Bouchard and McGue (1981) indicate that the median correlation coefficient for IQ scores is lowest for

Answer 21

biological parent and child living apart

Question 22

Of the Big Five personality traits, level of __________ has been most consistently identified as an accurate predictor of level of marital satisfaction/dissatisfaction and stability/instability.

Answer 22

neuroticism

Question 23

Bronfenbrenner (2004), the _____ refers to interactions between elements of the child’s microsystem – for example, the influence of family relationships on a child’s relations with peers and teachers at school, and vice versa.

Answer 23

mesosystem

Question 24

Chromosomal deletion syndromes are caused by the loss of a segment of a chromosome and include ___

Answer 24

cri-du-chat, Prader-Willi, and Angelman syndromes.

Question 25

Prader-Willi syndrome is most often caused by:

Answer 25

deletion of a segment on paternal chromosome 15.

Question 26

An infant with congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) is most likely to develop which of the following?

Answer 26

sensorineural hearing loss

Question 27

Data collected by Bouchard and McGue (1981) indicate that the correlation coefficient for IQ is largest for

Answer 27

identical twins reared apart

Question 28

Full siblings, fraternal twins, and other first degree relatives share about ___ of their genetic material

Answer 28

50%

Question 29

Unlike mosaic and standard trisomy 21, which are both caused by an error during cell division, ____ can be caused by an error during cell division or heredity.

Answer 29

translocation trisomy 21

Question 30

Phenylketonuria (PKU) occurs in individuals who are:

Answer 30

homozygous for a recessive allele.