June 9th Flashcards

1
Q

Focal myocardial inflammation with multinucleate giant cells

A

Aschoff bodies of Rheumatic fever

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2
Q

Eosinophilic cytoplasmic globules near nucleus in liver

A

Mallory bodies of alcoholic liver disease

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3
Q

Desquamated epithelial casts in sputum

A

Kershmans spirals of bronchial asthma

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4
Q

Onion skin periosteal reaction

A

Ewing sarcoma

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5
Q

Psuedopalisading tumor cell arrangement

A

Glioblastoma

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6
Q

Elevated serum uric acid

A

Gout
Lesch Nyhan
Myeloproliferative disorders
Diuretics (Loops/TZDs)

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7
Q

Equation for Gibbs Free Energy

A

^G= ^H-T-^S

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8
Q

Decreased NADPH due to lack of HMP enzyme

A

G6PD

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9
Q

Inherited defect in tubular amino acid transporter

A

Cystinuria

Hartnup

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10
Q

Deficiency of homogenetisic acid oxidase

A

Alkaptonuria

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11
Q

Blocked degradation of branched chain amino acids

A

Maple Syrup Urine Disease

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12
Q

Multiple Myeloma urinalysis

A

Urinalysis negative

Urine protein electrophoresis shows M-spike for Bence Jones Proteins

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13
Q

Most common leukemia in kids

A

ALL

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14
Q

Most common leukemia in adults

A

CLL

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15
Q

Auer rods

A

AML M3 subtype

t(15,17)

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16
Q

Myelodysplastic syndromes progress to

A

AML blast crisis

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17
Q

Myeloproliferative syndromes progress to

A

AML

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18
Q

More than 20% blasts in marrow or >20% blasts in peripheral blood

A

Acute leukemia

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19
Q

Mature cells with

A

Chronic leukemia

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20
Q

Hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy

A

Chronic leukemia

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21
Q

Tdt+ acute leukemia

A

ALL

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22
Q

Bone pain

A

ALL/MM

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23
Q

Numerous basophils, splenomegaly, - LAP

A

CML

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24
Q

t(9,22) always

A

CML

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25
Q

Acute leukemia + peroxidase

A

AML

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26
Q

Solid sheets of lymphoblasts in marrow

A

ALL

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27
Q

Always associated with bcd-abl gene

A

CML

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28
Q

Smudge cells

A

CLL

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29
Q

Punched out lytic bone lesions

A

MM

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30
Q

RBCs clumped together like coins

A

MM

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31
Q

Monoclonal Ab spike

A

MM
MGUS
Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

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32
Q

Reddish pink rods in cytoplasm of leukemic blasts

A

AML M3 subtype

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33
Q

Most cells are CD13/33+

A

AML

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34
Q

Increased risk for Downs

A

ALL

AML

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35
Q

Elderly adults

A

CLL

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36
Q

B cell markers

A

CLL

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37
Q

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

CLL

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38
Q

May progress to AML

A

CML

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39
Q

Chronic myeloproliferative disorders mutation and its function

A

JAK2 mutation

Hematopoietic growth factor signaling

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40
Q

Teardrop RBCs

A

Myelofibrosis

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41
Q

Obliteration of marrow with fibroblast activity

A

Myelofibrosis

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42
Q

Translocation of AML that increases risk of downs

A

t(8,21)

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43
Q

Sx of MM

A
CRAB 
Hypercalcemia 
Renal insuffiency 
Anemia 
Bone lytic lesions, bone pain
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44
Q

Waldenstron macroglobulinemia

A

M spike
No lytic bone lesions
No CRAB Sx

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45
Q

MGUS

A

Monoclonal expansion of plasma cells
ASx
no CRAB
1-2% develop MM every year

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46
Q

Neutrophil with bilobed nuclei with thin strand connecting them

A

Pseudo-Pelger Heut anomaly
Seen after chemotherapy
Myelodysplastic syndromes

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47
Q

Solid tumor of B cells in nose

A

Extra medullary plasmacytoma

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48
Q

Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss

A

Meniere’s disease

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49
Q

Glaucoma Dx with

A

Tonometry

Fundoscopy cup:disc >2:1

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50
Q

Non-eveloped RNA viruses

A
"my Real Heavy Picture of California was Ruined without an envelope" 
Reovirus 
Hepevirus 
Picornavirus 
Calcivirus 
RNA 
No envelope
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51
Q

Non-enveloped DNA viruses

A
"PaPa and Aunt Polly Didn't have an envelope"
Parvovirus 
Papillomavirus 
Adenovirus 
Polygomavirus 
DNA 
No envelope
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52
Q

Influenza recombines via

A

Reassortment

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53
Q

Live viruses considered for HIV patients

A

Rotovirus in all infants with HIV

VZV and MMR in patients with CD4>200

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54
Q

Non linear dsDNA viruses

A

ssRNA = parvovirus

circular DNA = polyomavirus, papillomavirus & hepadnavirus

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55
Q

Tx of Afib with hyperthyroid

A

Tx aFib with b-blockers

Tx Hyperthyroid with methamizole

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56
Q

Stress effects on adipocytes

A

Rapid breakdown of triglycerides and mobilization of fatty acids for energy
Lipase stimulation of fat cells

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57
Q

Multinucleate giant cells - atypical lymphocyte of EBV

A

Downey Cell

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58
Q

Where does EBV lie dormant?

A

B cells

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59
Q

Where does CMV lie dormant?

A

Mononuclear cells

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60
Q

Tx of HSV/EBV

A

Acyclovir
Valacyclovir
Famicyclovir

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61
Q

Tx of CMV

A

Ganciclovir

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62
Q

Second line tx of resistant CMV/EBV/HSV

A

Foscarnet

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63
Q

Temporal lobe encephalitis

A

HSV-1

64
Q

Intranuclear eosinophilic droplets

A

Type A Cowdry bodies of HSV

65
Q

Signet ring cells

A

Gastric adenocarinoma

66
Q

Nutmeg liver

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

Right sided heart failure

67
Q

Maternal elevation of AFP

A

NTD (anencepahly, spina bifida)
Gastrochisis
Ompahacele

68
Q

RBC casts in urine

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

69
Q

Acanthocytosis of RBC and excess lipids in enterocytes

A

Abetalipoproteinemia

70
Q

HgbA1c in Diabetic patient goal

A
71
Q

Slapped Cheek Rash

A

Fifth disease

Parvo B 19

72
Q

Aplastic crisis in sickle cell pt

A

Parvo B19

73
Q

Gingovostomatitis

A

HSV1

74
Q

Multinucleate cells on Tzanck test

A

HSV/VZV

75
Q

Roseola

A

HSV 6

76
Q

Milkmaid blisters

A

Cowpox

Vaccinia

77
Q

Conjuctivitis & diarrhea

A

Adenovirus

78
Q

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

EBV

79
Q

Oral hairy leukoplakia

A

EBV

80
Q

Only DNA virus not double stranded

A

Parvovirus

81
Q

Hypoglycemia, jaundice, cirrhosis

A

Fructose intolerance

82
Q

MOA of lactulose

A

Digested by bacteria in colon creating an acidic environment which converts ammonia to ammonium which is then trapped in the colon and excreted in the stool
Used to lower serum ammonia in cirrhosis

83
Q

Features of alkpatonuria

A

Being disease deficient in homogentistic acid oxidase

Dark organs, CT and urine

84
Q

1 cause fatal infantile gastroenteritis

A

Rotavirus

85
Q

Gastroenteritis on cruise ships

A

Norwalk virus

86
Q

Common cold

A

Rhinovirus

Coronavirus

87
Q

Fever, jaundice, black vomit

A

Yellow fever

88
Q

Meningitis

A

Echovirus

89
Q

Infects motor neurons of ant horn

A

Polio

West NIle

90
Q

Break bone fever

A

Dengue

91
Q

Torniquet test

A

Hemorrhagic Dengue

92
Q

Opacities on X-ray on both sides of carina

A

Sarcoidosis

93
Q

Dermatitis dementia, diarrhea, death

A

Pellagra

Niacin B3 deficiency

94
Q

HMG CoA Reductase inhibitors

A

Inhibit RLS of cholesterol synthesis

Statins

95
Q

Winter months

A

Influenza
Rotavirus
RSV

96
Q

Summer months

A

Polio
Echovirus
Coxsackie viruses
West Nile virus

97
Q

Viral meningitis

A

Coxsackie virus
Echovirus
Enterovirus
Mumps virus

98
Q

Cough, coryza and conjunctivitis

A

Rubeola (Measles)

99
Q

Parotiditis, orchitis, aspetic meningitis

A

Mumps

100
Q

Animal urine

A

Leptospirosis
Hantavirus
Lass virus
LCM virus

101
Q

Painful raised lesions on finger parts and fever

A

Oslers nodes of infectious endocarditis

102
Q

Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy

A

EBV
Cat Scratch disease
Otitis media

103
Q

Low serum ceruloplasmin

A

Wilsons

104
Q

Why does a deficiency in the RLS of the HMP shunt result in hemolytic anemia?

A

Deficiency of G6PD results in no NADPH which is needed to reduce glutathione –> reduced glutathione is an important antioxidant in RBCs making them susceptible to hemolysis

105
Q

Primary energy source who hasn’t eaten in 2 days

A

Fatty acids

106
Q

Is the genome of HIV diploid or haploid?

RNA/DNA

A

Diploid RNA

107
Q

What are the 3 structural genes of the HIV virus and what do they code for?

A

env (gp120 and gp41)
gag (p24 capsid protein)
pol (reverse transcriptase, aspartate protease and integrase) think polymerase

108
Q

What is the protein that helps the HIV virus attach to CD4 T cells and what are the corecptors

A

Attaches to T cells with gp120

Coreceptors = CCR5 and CXCR4

109
Q

On what cells and in what stage of disease are the CCR5 and CXCR4 coreceptors?

A
CCR5 = Macrophages and dendritic cells in early infection 
CXCR4 = T cells in late infection
110
Q

HIV course of homozygous CCR5 mutation

A

immunity

111
Q

HIV course of heterozygous CCR5 mutation

A

slower course

112
Q

What does the controls fusion and entry?

A

gp41

113
Q

What controls attachment to T cells

A

gp120

114
Q

What is the capsized protein?

A

p24

115
Q

What does pol code for?

A

Reverse transcriptate
Integrase
Aspartate protease

116
Q

Function of reverse trasnscriptase

A

synthesizes sDNA from genomic RNA allows for sDNA integration into the host genome

117
Q

CD4

A

TMP-SMX for PCP
Dapsone if sulfa allergy
Pentamidine (aerosolized) if G6PD

118
Q

CD4

A

TMP-SMX for Toxoplasma & PCP

Dapsone + Pentamidine + Leucovorin if sulfa allergy

119
Q

CD4

A

Azithromycin for MAC/MAI

120
Q

Most common cause of DIC

A
"STOP Making Thrombi" 
Sepsis 
Trauma 
Obstetric complications 
Pancreatitis 
Malignancy 
Transfusion
121
Q

Most common heart murmur

A

MVP

122
Q

Most common coronary artery involved in thrombus

A

LAD

123
Q

Most common cause of death in lupus

A

Renal failure due to lupus nephritis

124
Q

Most common congenital heart anomaly

A

VSD

125
Q

Clinical Sx and Cause of Addisons Disease

A
Skin hyper pigmentation 
Hypotension 
Malaise
Weakness 
Weight loss
Anorexia 
Autoimmune destruction of adrenal glands >> adrenal atrophy >> decreased cortisol and aldosterone
126
Q

MOA: inhibit influenza neuroaminidase decreasing release of progeny virus

A

Oseltamivir

Zanamivir

127
Q

Cherry red spot on macula

A

Tay-Sachs
Neiman Pick
Central artery occlusion

128
Q

Facial muscle spasm with tapped cheek indicates

A

Hypocalcemia

Chovstek sign

129
Q

What regulates prolactin secretion?

A

TRH stimulates

Dopamine and Prolactin inhibit

130
Q

AIDS pt with meningitis

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

131
Q

India ink stain

A

Crytpococcus

132
Q

Soap bubble lesion in brain

A

Cryptococcus

133
Q

Sabouraud agar

A

Cryptococcus

134
Q

Diffuse interstitial pneumonia with diffuse bilateral ground glass opacities with disc shaped yeast

A

Pneumocysitis jirovecii

135
Q

Disc shaped yeast on silver stain

A

Pneumocysitis jirovecii

136
Q

Cryptococcus prophylaxis

A

Fluconazole

137
Q

Tx for oral candidiasis

A

Nystain

Fluconazole

138
Q

Tx for systemic candidiasis

A

Fluconazole

Amphoteracin B

139
Q

Most common opportunistic infxn in AIDS puts

A

Pneumocystis

140
Q

Spaghetti and meatballs

A

Tinea versicolor

Malassezia furfur

141
Q

Frontal lobe abscess

A

Mucor

142
Q

Broad irregular shaped nonseptae hyphae branch at 90 degrees (wide)

A

Mucor

143
Q

Narrow septated hypae branch at 45 degrees

A

Aspergillus

144
Q

Fungus ball

A

Aspergilloma

145
Q

Intertrigo

A

Candida under breast or in skin folds of obese patient

146
Q

Jagged diaper rash with satellite lesions

A

Candida

147
Q

Germ tube small projects in blood draw tube

A

Candida

148
Q

Lens shaped lesion on head CT

A

Epidural

149
Q

Pigmented hamartomas in iris

A

Lisch nodules of Neurofibromatosis

150
Q

No milk production postpartum

A

Sheehan syndrome

151
Q

Howell jolly bodies

A

Asplenic DNA remnants

152
Q

Cancer associated with asbestosis

A

Mesthelioma

Bronchogenic carcinoma

153
Q

Owl’s eye inclusions

A

CMV

154
Q

Owl’s eye nucleus

A

Reed Sternberg cells of Hodgkin lymphoma

155
Q

Owl’s eye protozoa

A

Giardia

156
Q

Enzyme deficient in PKU and Sx

A
Phenylalanin hydroxylase 
Musty odor 
Mental/growth retardation 
Ezcema 
Fair skin 
Seizures
157
Q

Organisms associated with birds

A
Histoplasma 
Cryptococcus 
Chlamydophila psittaci 
H5N1
West Nile Virus