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DIT/Boards > June 7th > Flashcards

June 7th Flashcards

1
Q

Standard DKA tx

A

IV fluids, IV insulin and K+ replacement

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2
Q

DKA DDx

A 
Infection 
Serious medical illness (MI/Stroke)
Nonadherence to insulin 
Drugs/Alcohol
Dehydration
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3
Q

Standard tx for DM1

A

Insulin

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4
Q

Standard Tx for DM2

A

Low carb diet
Weight loss
Oral hyperglycemic drugs (Metformin)
Insulin

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5
Q

DM 2 Drug with lactic acidosis risk

A

Metformin

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6
Q

DM 2 Drug with most common side effect hypoglycemia

A

Sulfonylureas

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7
Q

DM 2 Drug recommend first line

A

Metformin

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8
Q

DM 2 Drug not safe in symptomatic CHF

A

TZDs (Pioglitazone & Rosiglitazone)

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9
Q

DM 2 Drug not to use in abnormal kidney function

A

Metformin
SGLT-2 inhibitors
TZD (Pioglitazone & Rosiglitazone)

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10
Q

DM 2 Drug weight neutral/weight loss

A

Metformin
GLP-1 analog (Exenatide, Lirafgutide)
SGLT-2 inhibitor (Canaglifozin)
DPP-4 inhibitors (Linagliptin, Saxagliptin, Sitagliptin)

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11
Q

DM 2 Drug metabolized by liver can be used in renal dysfunction

A

TZDs

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12
Q

DM 2 Drug MOA of closing K channel on B cells > cell deploy > Ca influx > Insulin release

A

Sulfonylureas

Meglitinides

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13
Q

DM 2 Drug MOA inhibiting alpha glucosidase at intestinal brush border

A

Acarbose

Miglitol

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14
Q

DM 2 Drug agonist at PPAR-y&raquo_space; improved target cell response to insulin

A

TZD

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15
Q

DM 2 Drug decreased hepatic gluconeogneeis

A

Metformin TZDs

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16
Q

DM 2 Drug decreased glucose resorb in renal tubules

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors

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17
Q

DM 2 Drug used in organ failure

A

DDP-4 inhibitors

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18
Q

Metformin Class

A

Biguanide

19
Q

Glimepiride, Glipizide, Glyburide Class

A

Sulfonylureas

20
Q

Pioglitazone and Rosiglitazone Class

A

TZDs

21
Q

Exenatide Lirglutide Class

A

GLP-1 analogs

22
Q

Linagliptin, Saxagliptin, Sitagliptin Class

A

DPP-4 inhibitors

23
Q

Pramlintide Class

A

Amylin analogs

24
Q

Canagliflozin

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors

25
Q

Acarbose, Miglitol Class

A

alpha glucosidase inhibitors

26
Q

Number needed to harm

A

1/Atrributable Risk

27
Q

Antibiotics inhibiting prokaryotic DNA topoisomerase

A

Fluroquinolones

28
Q

Where is leptin produced?

A

Adipocytes

29
Q

What two hypothalamic nuclei does leptin affect?

A

Lateral hypothalamus

Venteromedial nuclei

30
Q

What is leptin’s effect on the lateral hypothalamus?

A

With stimulation&raquo_space; hunger

With leptin/lesion/inhibiton&raquo_space; anorexia

31
Q

What is leptin’s effect on the ventromedial nucleus?

A

With stimulation/leptin&raquo_space; satiety

With inhibition/lesion&raquo_space; hyperphagia

32
Q

What is leptin effect on each nuclei?

A

Leptin stimulates venteromedial

Leptin inhibits lateral

33
Q

5 criteria for Metabolic Syndrome

A 
Need 3/5 
Abdominal circumference 
Triglycerides 
HDL 
Blood pressure 
Fasting serum glucose
34
Q

Liver disease associated with obesity?

A

Non-Alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH)

35
Q

BMI of underweight, normal, overweight and obese

A

Underweight 30

36
Q

What inhibits RNA polymerase II in eukaryotes causing liver damage?

A

Alpha-amantin found in death cap mushrooms

37
Q

Three functions of Vit D

A

Increased gut resorption of Ca & P04

Increased bone turnover

38
Q

How is bone affected by PTH?

A

Increased bone turnover

PTH receptors located on osteoblasts which then secreted RANK ligand which activates osteoclasts

39
Q

PTH functions

A

Increased bone turnover
Increased Ca resorption at kidney at DCT
Increased PO4 excretion at kidney

40
Q

What cell types produce PTH and calcitonin

A 
PTH = chief cells of parathryoid 
Calcitonin = Parafollciular C cells of thyroid (neural crest derivative)
41
Q

Most common causes of hyperparathyroidism?

A

1) Paraythyroid adenoma

2) Parathyroid hyperplasia

42
Q

Causes of hypocalcemia

A

Acute pancreatitis
Vit D deficiency
Chronic renal fialure
Hypoparathyroidism DiGeorge and accidental removal

43
Q

Most common cause of hypercalcemia

A

Hyperparathyroidism

DIT/Boards (22 decks)

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