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2ND SEM PHYSIO > Immunology - Doc Derecho > Flashcards

Immunology - Doc Derecho Flashcards

1
Q

Study of host defense mechanisms

A

Immunology

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2
Q

Ability of the host to protect itself against foreign organisms

A

Immunity

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3
Q

_______, _______ and _______ mount the immune response.

A

Tissues, cells and molecules

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4
Q

Ultimate function of the immune system:

A

Recognize and Destroy

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5
Q

Foreign substances

A

Antigens

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6
Q

Antigen + Antibody

A

Immune response

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7
Q

What is the key to a healthy immune system?

A

Ability to distinguish between SELF (body’s own cells) and NONSELF (foreign cells)

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8
Q

Mistake self for nonself

A

Autoimmune disease

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9
Q

Cells carry _______ marker molecules

A

Self

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10
Q

Cells with foreign markers

A

Antigen

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11
Q

Body launches an attack

A

Immune response

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12
Q

Deficient immunity results in increased susceptibility to infections exemplified by _________

A

AIDS

Defense against infections

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13
Q

Boosts immune defenses and protects against infections

A

Vaccination

Defense against infections)

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14
Q

Potential for immunotherapy of cancer

A

Defense against tumors

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15
Q

Deficient immunity can lead to secondary infections after injury and excessive immune responses can lead to FIBROSIS and ORGAN DYSFUNCTION

A

Clearance of dead cells and tissue repair

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16
Q

Immune responses are the cause of allergic, autoimmune and other inflammatory diseases

A

The immune system can injure cells and induce pathologic inflammation

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17
Q

Immune responses are barriers to transplantion and gene therapy

A

The immune system recognizes and responds to TISSUE GRAFTS and newly introduced proteins

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18
Q

Cells arise in ______________ and they interact with antigens in ______________

A

Primary lymphoid organs

Secondary lymphoid organs

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19
Q

Primary lymphoid organ for T cells development

A

Thymus

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20
Q

Primary lymphoid organ for B cell development

A

Bone marrow

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21
Q

Collect antigens from tissues

A

Lymph nodes

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22
Q

Collects antigens from blood stream mostly B cells

A

Spleen

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23
Q

Mostly fixed macrophages (KUPFFER CELLS)

A

Liver

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24
Q

Mostly B cells

A

Adenoids and tonsils

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25
Q

All immune cells begin as __________ in the bone marrow.

A

Immature stem cells

*They respond to different cytokines and other signals and they grow into specific immune cell types such as T cells, B cells or phagocytes.

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26
Q

Interesting possibilty for treating some immune system disorders

A

Stem cells

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27
Q

Can person’s own stem cells be used to regenerate damaged immune responses?

A

In autoimmune diseases and immune deficiency diseases

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28
Q

Immunity an organism is BORN WITH, genetically determined and effective from birth.

A

Innate immunity

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29
Q

Present BEFORE EXPOSURE to pathogens

A

Innate immunity

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30
Q

Nonspecific responses to pathogens

A

Innate immunity

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31
Q

Same molecules or cells respond to a range of pathogens

A

Non-antigen-specific

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32
Q

Same response after repeated exposure

A

No immune memory

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33
Q

Does not generate lasting protective immunity and no racial difference

A

Innate immunity

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34
Q

First line and relies on mechanisms that exist before infection.

A

Innate immunity

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35
Q

Rapid response to microbes

A

Innate immunity

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36
Q

Immediate direct response of innate immunity

A

0-4 hours

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37
Q

Rapid induced response of innate immunity

A

4-96 hours

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38
Q

Found in plants, invertebrates and vertebrates

A

Innate immunity

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39
Q

Immunity that an organism develops during lifetime

A

Adaptive immunity

*Not genetically determined.

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40
Q

Develops after exposure to antigens (microbes, toxins or other foreign substances)

A

Adaptive immunity

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41
Q

Very specific response to pathogens

A

Adaptive immunity

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42
Q

May be acquired naturally or artificially.

A

Adaptive immunity

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43
Q

Adaptive immunity is mediated by either:

A 
Antibodies (Humoral immunity)
Lymphoid cells (Cellular immunity)
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44
Q

Relies on mechanism that adapt after infection.

A

Adaptive immunity

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45
Q

Adaptive immunity is handled by:

A

T and B lymphocytes

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46
Q

Adaptive immunity late response:

A

> 96 hours

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47
Q

Is initiated if innate immune response is not adequate (> 4 days)

A

Adaptive immunity

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48
Q

Destroy infected cells to eradicate intracellular pathogens

A

T cells

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49
Q

Secrete antibodies to attack extracellular pathogens

A

B cells

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50
Q

Each cell responds to a single epitope on an antigen

A

Antigen-specific immunity

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51
Q

Generates lasting protective immunity

A

Adaptive immunity

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52
Q

Based upon resistance and acquired during life

A

Adaptive immunity

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53
Q

Relies on genetic events and cellular growth

A

Adaptive immunity

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54
Q

Adaptive immunity has ____________, a repeated exposure leads to faster, stronger response.

A

Anamnestic memory

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55
Q

The two features that best distinguish adaptive and innate immunity are ___________ and ___________.

A

Specificity and memory

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56
Q

Ensures that distinct antigens elicit specific responses

A

Specificity

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57
Q

Enables immune system to respond to a large variety of antigens

A

Diversity

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58
Q

Leads to enhanced respones to repeated exposures to the same antigens.

A

Memory

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59
Q

Increases number of antigen-specific lymphocytes to keep pace with microbes

A

Clonal expansion

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60
Q

Generates responses that are optimal for defense against different types of microbes

A

Specialization

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61
Q

Allows immune system to respond to newly encountered antigens

A

Contraction and homeostasis

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62
Q

Prevents injury to the host during responses to foreign antigens

A

Nonreactivity to self

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63
Q

Innate immunity (immediate: _______)

A

0-4 hours

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64
Q

Early induced response (early: _________)

A

4-96 hours

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65
Q

Adaptive immune response (late: _________)

A

> 96 hours

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66
Q

Provides a barrier to prevent the spread of infection

A

Innate immunity

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67
Q

Identified and eliminates pathogens by:

  1. Non-adaptive recognition systems
  2. Activates molecules that target the microbe and aid in its identification
A

Innate immunity

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68
Q

Initiates an inflammatory response

A

Innate immunity

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69
Q

Delivers effector molecules and immune cells to the site of infection

A

Innate immunity

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70
Q

Provides signals to activate and regulate the type of adaptive immune response generated.

A

Innate immunity

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71
Q

B7 family:

A

CD80/86
PD-L
ICOSL

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72
Q

TNFR family

A

OX40L

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73
Q

Cytokines involve in innate immunity:

A

IL-12
IL-23
IL-4

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74
Q

Chemokines involve in innate immunity:

A

CXCR1
CXCR2
CCL20

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75
Q

Clinical, subclinical infection

A

Natural active immunity

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76
Q

Via breastmilk, placenta

A

Natural

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77
Q

Vaccination: live, killed, purified antigen vaccine

A

Artificial active immunity

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78
Q

Immune serum, immune cells

A

Artificial passive immunity

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79
Q

Antigens enter the body naturally; body produces antibodies and specialized lymphocytes

A

Naturally acquired - Active

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80
Q

Antibodies pass from mother to fetus via placenta or to infant in the mother’s milk

A

Naturally acquired - Passive

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81
Q

Antigens are introduced in vaccines: body produces antibodies and specialized lymphocytes

A

Artificially acquired - Active

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82
Q

Preformed antibodies in immune serum introduced into body by injection

A

Artifically acquired - Passive

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83
Q

Foreign antigens enter the body

A

Naturally acquired active

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84
Q

Person CONTRACTS disease which generates specific immune response to the antigen.

A

Naturally acquired active

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85
Q

Naturally acquired active may be _________ (chickenpox or mumps) or _________ (influenza or intestinal infections)

A

Lifelong or temporary

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86
Q

Elicits the production of antibodies against antigens.

A

Humoral immunity

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87
Q

Triggers specialized lymphocytes (T-cells)

A

Cell-mediated immunity

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88
Q

Examples of naturally acquired PASSIVE:

A
  1. Breastmilk
  2. Colostrum
  3. IgG
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89
Q

Components of breastmilk

A

IgA and monocytes

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90
Q

Contains BIFIDUS factors, antibodies that protect the newborn gastrointestinal tract

A

Colostrum

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91
Q

A type of antibody that is transplacental and protects the infant up to 3 months

A

IgG

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92
Q

Vaccination

A

Artifically acquired active

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93
Q

Diphtheria tetanus pertussis (DTP)

A

Artifically acquired active

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94
Q

Measles mumps rubella

A

Artifically acquired active

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95
Q

Polio

A

Artifically acquired active

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96
Q

Haemophilus influenzae type B

A

Artifically acquired active

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97
Q

Chicken pox

A

Artifically acquired active

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98
Q

Hepatitis B

A

Artifically acquired active

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99
Q

Collecting IgG from an infected immune person and transferring this immunity to an unprotected person

A

Artifically ACQUIRED passive

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100
Q

Snake antivenom injection from horses or rabbits

A

Artifically ACQUIRED passive

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101
Q

Used in the ttt. of tetanus, diphtheria and mumps

A

Artifically ACQUIRED passive

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102
Q

Sometimes given to infants who are not producing enough antibodies

A

Artifically ACQUIRED passive

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103
Q

B-cell immunity

A

Humoral

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104
Q

Antibody mediated immunity (AMI)

A

Humoral

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105
Q

Body develops circulating antibodies

A

Humoral

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106
Q

Globulin molecules in the blood plasma that are capable of attacking the invading agent

A

Antibodies

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107
Q

Produce the antibodies

A

B-lymphocytes

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108
Q

T-cell immunity

A

Cell-mediated

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109
Q

Formation of large numbers of activated T-lymphocytes

A

Cell-mediated

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110
Q

Specifically crafted in the lymph nodes to destroy the foreign agent

A

T-lymphocytes

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111
Q

Antibody producing cells that respond to an antigen stimulation

A

B lymphocytes

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112
Q

B lymphocytes are ______% of circulating lymphocytes

A

10-15%

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113
Q

B lymphocytes are pre-processed in the ______ during midfetal life and in the ______ during late fetal life and after birth.

A

Liver

Bone marrow

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114
Q

Migrate to and are preprocessed in the THYMUS GLAND

A

T lymphocytes

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115
Q

80% of circulating lymphocytes

A

T-lymphocytes

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116
Q

Mature in bone marrow; develop from stem cells located in the red bone marrow of adults and the liver of a fetus.

A

B cells

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117
Q

B cells once activated proliferate into two clones of cells:

A
  1. Plasma cells - secrete antibodies

2. Memory cells - that may be convered into plasma cells at a later time

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118
Q

Recognize pathogens from previous encounters

A

Memory cells

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119
Q

Long lived and are ready to mount an attack the next time that specific antigen presents itself.

A

Memory cells

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120
Q

B cells mature into ________ that produce antibodies

A

Plasma cells

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121
Q

Key cellular component of immunity

A

T cells

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122
Q

Precursors to T cells migrate to the ______ then will reach maturity then migrate to various lymph organs where they await contact with antigens.

A

Thymus

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123
Q

Involved in cellular immunity.

A

T cells

124
Q

The 6 cells of Cell Mediated Immunity:

A
  1. T helper 2 cells (TH2)
  2. T helper 1 cell (TH1)
  3. T supressor cell (TS)
  4. T cytotoxic cell (TC)
  5. Natural killer cell (NK)
  6. Macrophage (MP)
125
Q

Considered a type of T cell

A

Natural killer cell

126
Q

The two main types of T cells each responds to one class of _________.

A

MHC molecule

127
Q

Activate phagocytes to kill microbes

A

CD4+ T cells

128
Q

Helper T cells have receptors that bind to peptides displayed by the body’s ________ molecules.

A

Class II MHC

129
Q

CD8+ T cells

A

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs)

130
Q

Destroy infected cells containing microbes or microbial proteins

A

CD8+ T cells

131
Q

Cytotoxic T cells (Tc) have antigen receptors that bind to protein fragments displayed by the body’s __________.

A

Class I MHC molecules

132
Q

T cells only recognize antigen associated with _______ on cell surfaces.

A

MHC molecules

133
Q

In response to antigens found on the APC, the TH2 cells secretes _____________.

A

Interleukin 2 (IL-2)

134
Q

Starts cell mediated immunity

A

Interleukin 2 (IL-2)

135
Q

_______ signals other T cells specific for antigen to proliferate and become active.

A

IL-2

136
Q

Recognize the non-self cell and induce APOPTOSIS (cell self death) in the viral infected or other microbial infected cell.

A

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+ CTLS)

137
Q

Killer T cell

A

Cytotoxic T cells

138
Q

Cytotoxic T cells are activated by ________.

A

TH2 cells

139
Q

Immunological surveillance that kills abnormal cells that arise by mutations.

A

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+ CTLS)

140
Q

Produce cytokines and direct immune response

A

Helper T cells (Th cells)

141
Q

Effector mechanism that involves T- lymphocytes

A

Cell-mediated immune response (CMIR)

142
Q

Eliminate intracellular microbes that survive within phagocytes or other infected cells.

A

Cell-mediate immune response

143
Q

Effector mechanism that involve B-lymphocytes

A

Humoral immune response

144
Q

Mediated by antibodies and eliminate extracellular microbes and their toxins.

A

Humoral immune response (HIR)

145
Q

Formed as a result of antibodies produce by B plasma cells attract phagocytes which destroys pathogen

A

Antigen-antibody complexes

146
Q

Cells taking part in immune response under humoral or antibody-mediated immunity:

A
  1. APC (Macrophage or dendritic cell)
  2. T cell
  3. B cell
147
Q

T cells activated by binding to certain antigens

A

T-independent antigens

148
Q

No memory cells generated

A

T-independent antigens

149
Q

Weaker response than T-dependent Ag

A

T-independent antigens

150
Q

Most antigens require co-stimulation to evoke a B-cell response.

A

T-dependent antigens

151
Q

Antibody production stimulated with help from ______.

A

TH

152
Q

Most antigents are ____________.

A

T-dependent

153
Q

T-dependent antigens trigger humoral response by B cells only with the participation of _______________.

A

Helper T cells

154
Q

1 from many B cell (Each lymphocyte bears a specific receptor to the antigen)

A

Selection of B cells

155
Q

Activation of B cells:

A
  1. Selection of B cells
  2. Recognition of antigens
  3. Processing of Ag by macrophages
  4. Ag presentation by macrophages to B cells
  5. Triggering of the B cell by the Ab or TH cells
  6. Clonal proliferation
  7. Production of Plasma cells and memory cells
  8. Secretion of Ig into the serum
156
Q

Mature lymphocytes with an ANTIGEN RECEPTOR but have not encountered the antigen.

A

Naive lymphocytes

157
Q

Function is antigen recognition

A

Naive lymphocytes

158
Q

The preferential migration of naive lymphocytes is to _________________, the sites where antigens are concentrated and immune responses start.

A

Peripheral lymphoid organs (lymph nodes)

159
Q

Have received confirmation of the danger of the antigen and are able to PROLIFERATE MORE LYMPHOCYTES SPECIFIC FOR THAN ANTIGEN.

A

Activated lymphocytes

160
Q

Descendants of activated lymphocytes

A

Effector lymphocytes

161
Q

Capable of performing the functions required to eliminate microbes (“effector molecules”)

A

Effector lymphocytes

162
Q

Responsible for cytokine secretion (helper cells) and killing of infected cells (CTLs)

A

Effector lymphocytes

163
Q

Long-lived descendants of activated lymphocytes

A

Memory lymphocytes

164
Q

Functionally SILENT CELLS

A

Memory lymphocytes

165
Q

Can revert back to activated lymphocytes with stimulation from the same antigen.

A

Memory lymphocytes

166
Q

Mount rapid responses to antigen challenge (secondary responses)

A

Memory lymphocytes

167
Q

Most CLONE CELLS become _____________.

A

Antibody-secreting plasma cells (effector cell-short-lived cells)

168
Q

___________ secrete specific antibody at a higher rate than B cells.

A

Plasma cells

169
Q

Production of specific clones of effector T cells and memory clones

A

Primary response

170
Q

Develops in several days and DOES NOT limit the infection

A

Primary response

171
Q

More pronounced, faster and more effective at limiting the infection.

A

Secondary response

172
Q

Cytotoxic reactions against intracellular parasites

A

Secondary response

173
Q

Delayed hypersensitivity (e.g Tuberculin test)

A

Secondary response

174
Q

Allograft rejection

A

Secondary response

175
Q

Under primary response, _________ to antigen produces NO ANTIBODIES in serum for several days.

A

Initial exposure

176
Q

Primary response has a gradual INCREASE in titer. First of IgM and then of IgG observed after ________ days.

A

3 to 6

177
Q

Most B cells become plasma cells. Some B cells become long living memory cells.

A

Primary response

178
Q

Peak levels of plasma antibody after a primary response are achieved in _________ and gradual DECLINE of antibodies follows.

A

10 days

179
Q

Subsequent exposure to the same antigen displays a FASTER and MORE INTENSE Ab response within an hour.

A

Secondary response

180
Q

It is due to the existence of __________ which rapidly produce plasma cells upon antigen stimulation.

A

Memory cells

181
Q

In secondary response, antibody levels peak in ____________.

A

2 to 3 days

182
Q

Antibody levels in the blood can remain HIGH FOR WEEKS TO MONTHS.

A

Secondary response

183
Q

Memory cells initiate a faster, more efficient response upon reinfection.

A

Immunity

184
Q

The antibody marks the antigen for destruction.

A

Antigen-antibody interlock

185
Q

Antigen is derived from two words:

A

ANTIbody GENerator

186
Q

Most antigens are __________ or ____________.

A

Proteins or large polysaccharides

187
Q

When an antigen elicits an immune response it is often referred to as a ___________.

A

Immunogen

188
Q

Reactive portion of the antigen

A

Epitope

189
Q

Reacts chemically with an antibody to form the antigen-antibody complex or immune complex.

A

Epitope

190
Q

Two essential properties of antigens include:

A
  1. Immunogenicity

2. Ability to stimulate immune system

191
Q

Belong to a family of large molecules known as IMMUNOGLOBULINS

A

Antibodies

192
Q

Antibodies belong to the gamma-globulin fraction of serum proteins called _______________.

A

Immunoglobulins (Igs)

193
Q

Has two identical antigen-binding sites

A

Immunoglobulins

194
Q

Specific for the epitope that provides it production

A

Immunoglobulins

195
Q

Y shaped or T shaped polypeptides

A

Antibodies

196
Q

Antibodies consist of ____ POLYPEPTIDES

A

4

197
Q

Antibodies are covalently linked by ___ disulfide bonds.

A

4

198
Q

This is the part of the antibody that binds to the antigen.

A

Fab region

199
Q

The stem of the antibody that functions as a “red flag” and notifies the rest of the immune system: “here I am come and help”

A

Fc region

200
Q

2 constant regions

A

Fc fragment and crystallizable

201
Q

2 variables regions

A

Fab fragment and antigen binding

202
Q

Contain hypervariable amino acid sequences

A

Variable regions

203
Q

Bind antigen (specific immunity)

A

Hypervariable regions

204
Q

Most common form

A

IgG

205
Q

First response to antigen

A

IgM

206
Q

Secreted from mucus membranes

A

IgA

207
Q

B cell activation

A

IgD

208
Q

Histamine reactions and allergies

A

IgE

209
Q

Cannot cross placenta

A

IgD

210
Q

Prevents attachment of bacteria to epithelial surface

A

IgA

211
Q

Effective in agglutination

A

IgM

212
Q

Crosses blood vessels

A

IgG

213
Q

Cannot cross placenta

A

IgM

214
Q

Crosses placenta (passive immunity to fetus)

A

IgG

215
Q

Monomeric and 70-75% of total immunoglobulin

A

IgG

216
Q

Pentameric and cannot cross the placenta

A

IgM

217
Q

Monomeric in SERUM

A

IgA

218
Q

Secreted in high quantities in SECONDARY EXPOSURES

A

IgG

219
Q

Secreted first during exposure

A

IgM

220
Q

5-10% of serum antibody

A

IgA

221
Q

IgG 4-fold rise or fall means:

A

Active infection

222
Q

Activates the complement

A

IgM

223
Q

DIMERIC with secretory component in the lumen of the GI tract and in respiratory tract

A

IgA

224
Q

Opsonize antigens for phagocytosis

A

IgG

225
Q

Used as a marker of RECENT INFECTION

A

IgM

226
Q

Neutralizes microbes and toxins

A

IgA

227
Q

Neutralizes toxins and viruses and can activate the complement

A

IgG

228
Q

Presence of IgM in newborns means __________.

A

Infection

229
Q

Sero-diagnosis of tuberculosis

A

IgA

230
Q

Protects the fetus and newborn (passive immunity)

A

IgG

*only Ig transferred across the placenta

231
Q

Single positive of IgM in serum or CSF indicates:

A

Recent or active infection

232
Q

Synthicial respiratory virus tests

A

IgA

233
Q

Circulates in the blood but can easily exit to the tissues

A

IgG

234
Q

Detect early phase of infection

A

IgM

235
Q

Provides localized protection on mucosal surfaces

A

IgA

236
Q

MOST ABUNDANT circulating antibody

A

IgG

237
Q

Especially effective against microorganisms and clumping antigens

A

IgM

238
Q

Most common form

A

IgG

239
Q

First antibodies produced in response to a MILD INFECTION

A

IgM

240
Q

Are circulating antibodies found in the circulatory system with IgG

A

IgM

241
Q

IgG or IgM reacts with epitopes on the host cell membrane and activates the ______________

A

Classical component pathway

242
Q

Causes lysis of the cell

A

Membrane attack complex

243
Q

Produced as a first response to many antigens

A

IgM

244
Q

Levels remain HIGH TRANSIENTLY

A

IgM

245
Q

Produced after IgM

A

IgG

246
Q

Higher levels persist in small amounts throughout life

A

IgG

247
Q

Produced in large amounts during secondary response

A

IgG

248
Q

Persistence of antigen sensitive “memory cells” after primary response

A

IgG

249
Q

Found in mucus, tears, saliva, sweat, blood and human milk

A

IgA

250
Q

Protects surface tissues and prevents adherence of microorganisms

A

IgA

*This is important in respiratory, gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract infections

251
Q

True or False:

IgD is monomeric.

A

True

252
Q

Present on the surface of B lymphocytes functions in the initiation of an immune response

A

IgD

253
Q

0.2% of serum antibody

A

IgD

254
Q

Functions as MEMBRANE RECEPTOR

A

IgD

255
Q

Has a role in antigen stimulated lymphocyte differentiation

A

IgD

*Role unclear

256
Q

Effects of complement system:

A
  1. Enhances inflammatory response (Attracts phagocytes)
  2. Increases phagocytosis through opsonization or immune adherence
  3. Creates membrane attack complexes (cytolysis)
257
Q

Series of 30 plasma (serum) proteins activated in a cascade

A

Complement system

258
Q

Work together to “complement” the action of antibodies in destroying bacteria

A

Complement system

259
Q

Plays a role in the initiation of the inflammatory response

A

IgE

260
Q

Found in the BLOOD SERUM

A

IgE

261
Q

Also rid the body of antibody-coated antigens (antigen-antibody complexes)

A

Complement system

262
Q

Plays a role in immunity to helminthic parasites

A

IgE

263
Q

Possibly involved in the lysis of parasitic worms

A

IgE

264
Q

IgE are antibodies responsible for ____________.

A

Allergic reaction

265
Q

Principal actors in the complement system are 11 proteins:

A

C1 through C9

B and D

266
Q

0.002% of serum antibody

A

IgE

267
Q

Mediates type I hypersensitivity

A

IgE

268
Q

Associated with ANAPHYLAXIS

A

IgE

269
Q

Serodiagnosis of infectious and noninfectious allergies (allergic bronchopulmomary aspergillosis, parasitic diseases)

A

IgE

270
Q

Does not require a specific antibody to get started.

A

Alternative pathway

271
Q

Can be triggered by infectious agents in absence of antibody

A

Alternative complement pathway

*It has the same terminal sequence of events as the classical pathway

272
Q

Alternative complement pathway does not require _____, _____ or ______.

A

C1, C2 or C4

273
Q

Combines with factors B, D and P on the surface of a microbe

A

C3

274
Q

No antibody involved, once C3a and C3b are formed they participate in cytolysis, inflammation and opsonization

A

Alternative complement pathway

275
Q

Does nor require a specific antibody to get started.

A

Lecithin pathway

276
Q

Effects of complement activation:

A
  1. Opsonization or immune adherence: enhanced phagocytosis
  2. Membrane attack complex: Cytolysis
  3. Attract phagocytes
277
Q

Coat bacteria and promote attachment of micoorganism to phagocyte

A

Opsonin (complement proteins or antibodies) / Opsonization

278
Q

Prevent complement activation

A

Capsules

279
Q

Prevent MAC

A

Surface lipid-carbohydrates of some gram-negatives

280
Q

Enzymatic digestion of _______ by gram positives

A

C5a

281
Q

A drug given to transplant patients in order to block immunological rejection

A

Cyclosporin

282
Q

Cyclosporin blocks synthesis of ________.

A

IL-2

283
Q

Makes sure markers of self on the donor’s tissue are as similar as possible to those of the recipient.

A

Tissue typing

284
Q

Each cell has a double set of ____ major tissue antigens and each of the antigens exists.

A

6

285
Q

In bone marrow transplants, a _________ is extremely important.

A

Close match

286
Q

Type I hypersensitivity occurs within _______ after exposure to allergen.

A

30 minutes

287
Q

The _____ of IgE binds to mast cells or basophils.

A

Fc

288
Q

When IgE binds to allergens, ___________ are released.

A

Fluid phase mediators

289
Q

Uses patient’s serum to measure specific IgE.

A

RAST (radioimmunoassay test)

290
Q

Takes 5-12 hours

A

Type II hypersensitivity

291
Q

Involves TC cell or antibody plus complement lysis

A

Type II hypersensitivity

292
Q

Incompatible blood transfusion

A

Type II HPS

293
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis

A

Type II HPS

294
Q

Thrombocytopenic purpura

A

Type II HPS

295
Q

Occurs in 3-8 hours

A

Type III HPS

296
Q

Requires Ab+ slight excess of solubilized antigen

A

Type III HPS

297
Q

Activation of complement

A

Type III HPS

298
Q

Precipitation of immune complex in sensitive tissues

A

Type III HPS

299
Q

Occurs in 24-48 hours

A

Type IV HPS

300
Q

Allergic contact dermatitis to gold and other metal and poison ivy

A

Type IV HPS

301
Q

Indurated hard bump consisting of macrophages signaled by thee TH1 cell to migrates to the site of specific antigen

A

Type IV HPS

302
Q

Glomerulonephritis

A

Type III

303
Q

IDDM (juvenile onset diabetes)

A

Type IV HPS

304
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

Type IV

305
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Type III

306
Q

From loss of self tolerance

A

Autoimmune disease

2ND SEM PHYSIO (27 decks)

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