Imaging Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 2 natures of bone malignancy on imaging

A

lytic and sclerotic

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2
Q

what is a lytic bone lesion

A

bone destruction

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3
Q

what is a sclerotic bone lesion

A

bone formation

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4
Q

when might you use a CT to image spinal trauma

A

normal but high clinical suspicion of a fracture
want to see things in better detail

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5
Q

what may cause you to suspect a spinal fracture

A

high energy injury
associated head injury
abnormal neuro exam

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6
Q

when might you use MRI in spinal trauma

A

to have a look at spinal ligaments

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7
Q

what is the best modality of imaging for the spinal chord and IV discs

A

MRI

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8
Q

describe the normal smooth curve of the spine

A

cervical lordosis
thoracic kyphosis
lumbar lordosis

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9
Q

what is a kyphosis

A

outward curvature of the spine

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10
Q

what is a lordosis

A

inward curvature of the spine

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11
Q

what is special about the C1 verebra

A

has no vertebral body

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12
Q

what is special about the C2 vertebra

A

has an adontoid process that projects superiorly into C1 anterior to the spinal canal

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13
Q

what is the role of an intervertebral disc

A

cushion the vertebrae from stress

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14
Q

what may intervertebral disc herniation cause

A

sciatica

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15
Q

mnemonic to remember the radiographic features of osteoarthritis

A

LOSS

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16
Q

radiographic features of osteoarthritis

A

loss of joint space
osteophytes
subchondral sclerosis
synovial cysts

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17
Q

mnemonic to remember the radiographic features of rheumatoid arthritis

A

DOES

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18
Q

radiographic features of rheumatoid arthritis

A

deformity
osteopenia
erosion
soft tissue swelling

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19
Q

name some seronegative arthritides

A

ankylosing spondylitis
psoriatic arthritis
reiter’s syndrome

20
Q

what 2 radiographic features characterise seronegative arthritides

A

synovitis
enthesitis

21
Q

what is synovitis

A

inflammation of joint and tendon sheath linings

22
Q

what is enthesitis

A

inflammation at the sites where ligaments and tendons attach to bones

23
Q

distribution seen in psoriatic arthritis

A

small joints of the hands and feet

24
Q

distribution seen in ankylosing spondylitis

A

scattered large lower limb joints

25
what causes a transverse fracture
pure bending force
26
what causes a spiral fracture
torsional fractures
27
what causes an oblique fractures
shearing force
28
how can you fix an oblique fracture
with an interfragmentary screw
29
what is a comminution fracture
fractures with 3 or more fragments
30
what is a segmental fracture
where the bone is fractured in 2 separate places
31
what is an avulsion fracture
where soft tissue is pulled off from the bone, taking a fragment of cortical bone with it
32
what is translation of a fracture
the movement of fractured bones away from each other
33
what is angulation of a fracture
the direction in which the distal fragment points towards, and the degree of this deformity
34
how is angulation measured
in degrees from the longitudinal axis of the diaphysis of a long bone
35
what can be useful for detecting stress fractures
technetium bone scan
36
what does a visible posterior fat pad indicate
elbow trauma
37
who usually presents with a colles fraction
elderly with osteoporosis
38
what are colloid fractures associated with
ulnar styloid fractures
39
who usually presents with a radial buckle fracture
children with soft bones
40
what is a colles fracture
dorsal angulation of the radius
41
who usually presents with a scaphoid fracture
young-middle aged males
42
how does a scaphoid fracture present
pain in the anatomical snuff box
43
who usually presents with a fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus
post-menopausal females
44
what is a complication of a fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus
damage to the axillary nerve
45
what should be used to identify a posterior shoulder dislocation
oblique view x-ray