Imaging Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 2 natures of bone malignancy on imaging

A

lytic and sclerotic

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2
Q

what is a lytic bone lesion

A

bone destruction

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3
Q

what is a sclerotic bone lesion

A

bone formation

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4
Q

when might you use a CT to image spinal trauma

A

normal but high clinical suspicion of a fracture
want to see things in better detail

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5
Q

what may cause you to suspect a spinal fracture

A

high energy injury
associated head injury
abnormal neuro exam

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6
Q

when might you use MRI in spinal trauma

A

to have a look at spinal ligaments

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7
Q

what is the best modality of imaging for the spinal chord and IV discs

A

MRI

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8
Q

describe the normal smooth curve of the spine

A

cervical lordosis
thoracic kyphosis
lumbar lordosis

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9
Q

what is a kyphosis

A

outward curvature of the spine

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10
Q

what is a lordosis

A

inward curvature of the spine

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11
Q

what is special about the C1 verebra

A

has no vertebral body

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12
Q

what is special about the C2 vertebra

A

has an adontoid process that projects superiorly into C1 anterior to the spinal canal

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13
Q

what is the role of an intervertebral disc

A

cushion the vertebrae from stress

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14
Q

what may intervertebral disc herniation cause

A

sciatica

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15
Q

mnemonic to remember the radiographic features of osteoarthritis

A

LOSS

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16
Q

radiographic features of osteoarthritis

A

loss of joint space
osteophytes
subchondral sclerosis
synovial cysts

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17
Q

mnemonic to remember the radiographic features of rheumatoid arthritis

A

DOES

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18
Q

radiographic features of rheumatoid arthritis

A

deformity
osteopenia
erosion
soft tissue swelling

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19
Q

name some seronegative arthritides

A

ankylosing spondylitis
psoriatic arthritis
reiter’s syndrome

20
Q

what 2 radiographic features characterise seronegative arthritides

A

synovitis
enthesitis

21
Q

what is synovitis

A

inflammation of joint and tendon sheath linings

22
Q

what is enthesitis

A

inflammation at the sites where ligaments and tendons attach to bones

23
Q

distribution seen in psoriatic arthritis

A

small joints of the hands and feet

24
Q

distribution seen in ankylosing spondylitis

A

scattered large lower limb joints

25
Q

what causes a transverse fracture

A

pure bending force

26
Q

what causes a spiral fracture

A

torsional fractures

27
Q

what causes an oblique fractures

A

shearing force

28
Q

how can you fix an oblique fracture

A

with an interfragmentary screw

29
Q

what is a comminution fracture

A

fractures with 3 or more fragments

30
Q

what is a segmental fracture

A

where the bone is fractured in 2 separate places

31
Q

what is an avulsion fracture

A

where soft tissue is pulled off from the bone, taking a fragment of cortical bone with it

32
Q

what is translation of a fracture

A

the movement of fractured bones away from each other

33
Q

what is angulation of a fracture

A

the direction in which the distal fragment points towards, and the degree of this deformity

34
Q

how is angulation measured

A

in degrees from the longitudinal axis of the diaphysis of a long bone

35
Q

what can be useful for detecting stress fractures

A

technetium bone scan

36
Q

what does a visible posterior fat pad indicate

A

elbow trauma

37
Q

who usually presents with a colles fraction

A

elderly with osteoporosis

38
Q

what are colloid fractures associated with

A

ulnar styloid fractures

39
Q

who usually presents with a radial buckle fracture

A

children with soft bones

40
Q

what is a colles fracture

A

dorsal angulation of the radius

41
Q

who usually presents with a scaphoid fracture

A

young-middle aged males

42
Q

how does a scaphoid fracture present

A

pain in the anatomical snuff box

43
Q

who usually presents with a fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus

A

post-menopausal females

44
Q

what is a complication of a fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus

A

damage to the axillary nerve

45
Q

what should be used to identify a posterior shoulder dislocation

A

oblique view x-ray