II: Placental Pathology and Trisomies Flashcards
________ DNA is required for development of embryonic tissue
Maternal
________ DNA is required for development of placental tissue
Paternal
How is an intervillous thrombus diagnosed?
Kleihauer-Betke Test: HbF assay (>20% of fetoplacental circulation abnormal)
How many sperm are typically involved in growth of a complete mole?
One
p57kip2 is _____ expressed and _______ imprinted
Maternally; Paternally
What is the nomenclature for pregnancies?
TPAL (Term, Premature, Aborted, Living)
What management is indicated for a complete mole?
hCG level monitoring
What type of staining can be used to demonstrate the type of mole?
p57kip2
Which genetic anomaly? Abnormal fluid collection under skin, within abdomen, or within chest cavity
Fetal Hydrops
Which genetic anomaly? Low AFP and estriol; high beta-hCG and inhibin
Trisomy 21
Which genetic anomaly? Low AFT, estriol, beta-hCG; normal inhibin
Trisomy 18 (Edwards Syndrome)
Which genetic anomaly? Micrognathia, Rocker-bottom feet, heart anomalies, renal fusion, omphalocele
Trisomy 18 (Edwards Syndrome)
Which genetic anomaly? Polyhydramnios, fetal tachycardia, decreased fetal movement
Fetal Hydrops
Which genetic anomaly? SGA, Round/flat flace with slanting palpebral fissures, duodenal atresia, ASD
Trisomy 21
Which genetic anomaly? Short stature, webbing, cystic hygroma, gonadal hypoplasia, cardiac anomalies
Turner Syndrome
Which genetic anomaly? Small for gestational age, polydactyly, facial defects, cutis aplasia, VSD, normal quad screen
Trisomy 13 (Patau Syndrome)
Which pathology? Associated with fetal stress or maturity; can result in aspiration pneumonia or myonecrosis; associated with post-dates, low Apgars, neuro-developmental delay
Meconium
Which pathology? Atherosis with foamy macrophages, widely spaced villi, large syncytial knots
Pre-eclampsia
Which pathology? Detachment of placenta from decidual seat
Placental Abruption
Which pathology? Failure of decidual formation, trophoblast invasion into myometrium
Placenta Accreta
Which pathology? Feto-maternal hemorrhage, laminated appearance with lines of Zahn
Intervillous Thrombus
Which pathology? Fibrin clot with rim of villous infarction, possible evidence of bleeding during pregnancy
Placental Abruption (Chronic)
Which pathology? Group B strep infection of fetal membranes
Acute Chorioamnionitis
Which pathology? Hemorrhagic, well-circumscribed nodule in uterus; proliferation of trophoblast and syncytiotrophoblasts in a biphasic pattern
Choriocarcinoma
Which pathology? Intranuclear basophilic inclusions surrounded by a halo, often asymptomatic, may cause IUFD, IUGR, deafness
CMV placentitis
Which pathology? Intravillous bleeding with bags of blood appearance
Placental Abruption (Acute)
Which pathology? Lack of myometrial contractions after delivery
Post-Partum Hemorrhage
Which pathology? Most common neoplasm of newborn
Sacrococcygeal Teratoma
Which pathology? Neutrophils in fetal membranes, fever, leukocytosis, tachycardia, uterine tenderness
Acute Chorioamnionitis
Which pathology? Placental invasion through uterine wall
Placenta Percreta
Which pathology? Thin walled vessels with endothelium replaced by trophoblast, deposition of dense pink fibrinoid around vessels
Pre-eclampsia
Which pathology? Vaginal bleeding, abdominal/back pain, rapid uterine contractions; risk factors: trauma, cocaine, clotting disorders
Placental Abruption
Which type of mole? “grape-like vesicles” and “snowstorm” appearance
Complete
Which type of mole? 20% may develop into persistent Gestational Trophoblastic Disease
Complete
Which type of mole? Diandric
Both
Which type of mole? Diploid
Complete
Which type of mole? Do not recur or regress
Partial
Which type of mole? Hydropic villi, circumferential trophoblast proliferation, central cisterns
Complete
Which type of mole? Large cystic spaces with possible fetal tissue
Partial
Which type of mole? P57kip2 mutation
Complete
Which type of mole? Triploid
Partial
