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IDR > IDR lab > Flashcards

IDR lab Flashcards

1
Q

Antiseptics are used when and where?

Disinfectants are used when and where?

A

used to kill bacteria on the external surface of the human body (Antiseptics)
used to kill bacteria on inanimate objects (Disinfectants)

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2
Q

What is the difference between antibiotic/antiseptic?

A

Antibiotics have a location/target that are specific to a cell
Antiseptics attack anything living i.e. cell membrane

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3
Q

Sterilization does what?

Pasteurization does what?

A

Sterilization reduces the living cell population to 0

Pasteurization reduces the number of bacteria to a number that is safe to deal with

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4
Q

Heat and radiation destroy cells how?

Alcohol disrupts membranes how?

A

Heat: denatures proteins, radicals cause oxidant that break and damage organisms

destroy, disrupt cell membranes

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5
Q

Acids and bases disrupt proteins how?

A

break bonds in DNA, protein folding stays at a certain pH, when changed, unfolding occurs

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6
Q

Disinfectants/Antiseptics are the same ____________ but administered at different ________

Where are they used?

A

chemical
locations

Antiseptic: used to kill bacteria on the outside of the human body
Disinfectant: used on the surface of inanimate objects

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7
Q

Why does box milk taste different than regular milk?

A

The box milk was pasteurized at a higher temperature, the taste proteins were destroyed, therefore, taste differently

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8
Q

Bacterial spores can be killed, how?

A

Autoclave, the pressured is raised

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9
Q

If autoclaving something is not an option, what should be used?

A

UV light- OR room
Ionizing radiation-plastic catheter kits
Liquid Filtration- keep all the bad stuff out

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10
Q

Name an advantage and disadvantage of filtration?

A

Advantage: will keep all solution properties intact, wont lose any necessary molecules

Disadvantage: will lose bigger molecules that may or may not be needed

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11
Q

Viruses need what size filter to be stopped?

A

0.1-0.2 um

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12
Q

What are two methods that count live and dead bacteria?

A

Hemocytomter/Petroff-Hauser counter

Spectrophotometry –> compared to McFarland Standards

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13
Q

What method counts only live bacteria?

A

Spread plate/pour plate

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14
Q

What things interfere Spectrophotometry?

A

Biofilms and Capsules, cannot use urine or sputum samples because they are all ready opaque

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15
Q

What interferes with serial dilution/spread plate?

A

Bacteria population out of range

Must be between 30 and 300

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16
Q

How does Iodine hurt a solution?

A

Free radical creation

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17
Q

How does Isopropryl alcohol hurt a cell?

Acetic Acid disrupts a cell how?

A

Messes up the membrane

Protein Denaturation

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18
Q

__________ are used to study the innate immune system because when they’re less than a week old, ________ have no adaptive immune system

A

Larval zebrafish

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19
Q

_______________ that have been bred to lack a thymus. They can be used to study the functioning of the immune system with no T-cells. What does these animals lack that control hair follicle growth?

A

“Nude” mice

No Treg

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20
Q

What is located in the blood plasma?

What is located in the buffy coat?

A

Antibodies (serum)

White Blood cells

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21
Q

Direct Coombs test does what?

Indirect Coombs test does what?

A

Mom, baby overlap

Maternal serum is incubated with Rh plus, discover matches with blood bank

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22
Q

____________is a derivative of immunohistochemistry, but using fluorophores attached to antibodies rather than enzymes that will undergo a color change when a reagent is added

A

Immunofluorescence

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23
Q

______________antibodies made by clones of just one B-cell, so all the antibodies have the exact same CDR/bind in an identical way to an identical epitope

A

Monoclonal antibody

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24
Q

______________antibodies against the same antigen, but where the antibody-producing plasma cells arose separately, thus the antibodies likely have different CDRs and thus different affinities for that antigen

A

Polyclonal antibodies

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25
Q

What does FACS stand for?

A

Fluorescence-activated cell-sorting

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26
Q

What two things should the skin be washed with before taking a blood sample?

A

70% alcohol

2% Iodine

27
Q

What way can urine be obtained without contamination?

What can contaminate urine, what bacteria?

A

Bladder Aspirate

Lactobacillus

28
Q

What test is the “Gold standard” for establishing what species microbe (bacterial or eukaryotic—not viral) is
What must you have narrowed down in order to make a decision?

A

Ribosomal RNA Sequencing

Bacterial section

29
Q

What test shows relatedness of microbes; can be used to determine whether all isolates are the same strain/part of the same outbreak? This test does not identify particular genes

A

PFGE

30
Q

Shows whether, at what level, microbial gene is being expressed, WB: protein, rtPCR: transcript, rtPCR can be used to quantify number of viruses with RNA genomes in patient sample?

A

Western Blot and RT/PCR

Does not show relatedness

31
Q

What test determines whether microbe has a particular gene, does not establish whether gene is expressed, does not show relatedness of microbes to each other?

A

PCR

32
Q

What does MIC mean? Stand for?

What does MBC mean? Stand for?

A

Minimum inhibitory Concentration, growth stopped

Minimum bactericidal concentration, bacteria killed

33
Q

The broncho-alveolar lavage is what?

A

Risk of contamination reduced, but this is a more invasive technique. Only use if patient cannot expectorate sputum or if repeated attempts to collect sputum have had high levels of contamination

34
Q

Hektoen enteric agar contains iron like TSI slants do, so bacteria that produce H2S (like __________ ) grow into black colonies on these plates

A

Salmonella

35
Q

Tellurite-containing blood/chocolate agar: _________________ precipitate out tellurite, turning colonies dark brown or black. _____________ is very good at this, making colonies have a black halo as well.

A

Corynebacteria

C. diphtheriae

36
Q

What grows well on chocolate agar? Why is this needed?

A

H. Flu
The bacteria lack the essential hemolysins to break down the cell and therefore cannot get proper nutrients
Very Fastidious

37
Q

Eosin-Methylene Blue are necessary for what? What color will show up?

A

Really good showing gram negative

Metallic Green

38
Q

What color does Mackoney agar turn when the bacteria ferment?

A

Pink

39
Q

rt-PCR allows ___________ with ________ genomes to be studied using PCR, and also allows gene expression (rather than just gene presence/ absence) to be examined

A

viruses

RNA genomes

40
Q

Mannitol Salt Agar, turns what color for acidic? The agar turns what color for basic?

A

Acidic –> yellow, Staph. Aureus

Basic –> red, Micrococcus Luteus

41
Q

Charcoal-buffered yeast agar grows what bacteria? What does it help do?

A

Bordetella Pertussis

The agar helps remove the toxins from the bacteria metabolite

42
Q

The MELISA test examines if the patient’s blood has what?

A

Memory T cells via the clonal expansion process, via a type 4 HSR reaction

43
Q

What test is used now to quantify if a patient has TB? What molecule is examined?

A

MELISA technique, IFN gamma, T-Spot-TB test

44
Q

Coombs Test is checking what?

Indirect coombs test is checking what?

A

Hemolytic Anemia

Indirect: serum sickness and Hemolytic disease of the newborn, mom must be Rh negative

45
Q

In order of the HDNB to happen, what must be the Rh status of mom and the baby?

A

Mom: Rh negative
Baby: Rh positive

46
Q

An _______ is an example of a precipitin test that once was used to test for production of specific bacterial toxins, by plating bacterial samples and exposing them to anti-[that toxin] antibody

A

Elek test

47
Q

LAMP/PCR uses multiple what in order to make solution?

A

Multiple Primers

48
Q

If the CSF has lower than 40 percent glucose, what would the results show or not show?

A

Bacterial or Fungal Disease

NOT viral, doesnt use up glucose, gets into someone else’s cell

49
Q

What is the most commonly used automated system?

What is this system based around?

A

VITEK

McFarland Standards, must all ready know, gram stain, oxygen levels, must be known before testing

50
Q

The time of flight is used to identify molecules via their molecular signature. What is the basis of the instrument?

A

Mass Spectroscopy

51
Q

______________can be used to quantify number of viruses with RNA genomes in patient sample

A

rtPCR

52
Q

Iodine affects membranes in what way?

A

Free radical creation

53
Q

How much blood should you collect for adults, children, and neonates?

A

20 mL
10 mL
2 mL

54
Q

Pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal fluid should or should not be exposed to the air?

A

Should not be

55
Q

Kirby Bauer –> bacteria are susceptible or resistance to small circle number?

A

Bacteria are resistant

If the circle around the disk is large, the bacteria are very susceptible

56
Q

Macrophage, ____________, Lymphocyte, ___________, bacteria, _________

A

Neutrophil
Bacterium
Virus

57
Q

what is the filter size for the typical pore size?

A

0.1 - 0.2 um

58
Q

What type of samples can we not use Spectrophotometry on?

A

Blood, Sputum

59
Q

What is difference in the temperature via PCR and LAMP PCR?

A

Lamp PCR is constant, regular PCR, the levels go up and down, Lamp PCR has more primers

60
Q

What color is MRSA turning?

What color is MSSA turning?

A

Pink

Blue

61
Q

Media are selective based on what?

A

Osmotic Stress

62
Q

Mannitol Salt Agar will not have respiratory, gut, and vaginal growth. But will have what growth?

A

Skin

63
Q

Differential: refers to what change? with respect to an agar

A

Color

64
Q

When a western blot goes really dark, what is wrong? How do you fix it?

A

Antibodies are not specific enough, put milk on it, block membrane

IDR (13 decks)

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