IDR block 4b Flashcards

1
Q

EBNA-1,2,3 causes what? These genes are considered latent/lytic or both?

A

Oncogenic cells and lymphomas Both latent and lytic

Ebstein Barr Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If there is splenic rupture, Guillan Barre Syndrome, or meningoencephalitis, what herpes sequeale are we working with most likely in an immuncompromised patient?

A

Kissing disease, infectious Mononucleosis, EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a big tip off that infectious mononucleosis has been contracted?

A

Exudative Pharyngotonsilitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What herpes sequela is seen below? What must most patients have or be in order to have this disease?

A

Oral Hairy Leukoplakia Immuncompromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Burkitts Lymphoma, is usually caused by what? Will normally have what with it?

A

Herpes Sequeale, more TH2 response versus TH1, Eukaryotic parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What translocation is important for Burkitts Lymphoma? What gene is constantly turned on due to gene problem?

A

8 to 14 C-myc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

EBV Lymphoproliferative Disease is caused by a lack of what in the human body?

A

IFN gamma, TNF alpha, T cell depleted Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

EBV makes too many what? What is picture indicative thereof?

A

Antibodies

EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the Recognition of Paul-Bunnell antigen indicate on agars?

What is the first thing that is attacked on the EBV antigens?

Is there a good treatment?

A

The presence of heterophile antibodies, production of heterophile antibodies

VCA-IgM

No good treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpes virus (KSHV) is what type of herpes?

What is the numerical notation of KSHV?

A

Gamma Herpes Virus

HHV-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does Kaposi’s Sarcoma-associated herpes virus rash look like?

What population will this show up the most in?

A

Barton Hesalea

Immuncompromised patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Beta Herpesvirus encompasses what viruses?

Of the the viruses, which one can cross the placenta?

What is the respective number?

A

CMV

HHV-5, CMV

HHV-6, HH-7 (Roselia, big rash, fever, and self resolves)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is CMV moved from patient to patient? Provided it can be held latent in T-Cells and Macrophages

Repression of what immune system piece causes CMV to proliferate?

A

Blood and tissue secretion

Cell mediated Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CMV and EBV present with very similar symptoms, what is a good way to tell them apart?

A

CMV will not have the crazy proliferation of B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The baby is born as seen in the picture? What disease does the baby have, assuming a viral infection, and what other symptoms can be expected?

A

Congenital CMV

Microcephaly, Underweight, and Mental Retardation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is evidence of a post natal baby infection, Congenital CMV infection?

What does CMV look like on a histology slide?

What other test can be used?

A

Mononucleosis features, Pneumonia, Hepatitis, and Deafness

Owls eyes, large inclusion bodies

PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does Ganciclovir do differently than ACV?

Which is more toxic?

A

Ganciclovir is activated via a different protein kinase

Ganciclovir is more toxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do Ganciclovir, Valganciclovir, and Cidofovir all do?

What does Foscarnet do?

A

Prodrugs that are converted via a protein kinase, nucleotide analog

Foscarnet, is an altered phosphate group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What symptoms would an immuncompromised patient have with a CMV virus?

A

Penumonia, meningitis, Exophagitis, Colitis, and Hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is another way to double check for the mono virus? (via a lab test)

A

Heterophile-positive mononucleosis syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What kind of glycoproteins are made for HBV?

HBsAG is what?

A

S, M, L glycoproteins

Surface protein for Hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the polymerase P and X (proteins, used for)?

A

Polymerase P is the traditional reading frame, takes mRNA into HBsAg, HBeAg, and HBcAg not mention Reverse Transcriptase activites that replicate Hep B DNA viruses

Polymerase X does transcription and pushes pieces of DNA into human genome

23
Q

Subviral lipoproteins do not contain any what?

A

Nucleic Acid

24
Q

What is the number one viral cause of congenital defects?

Can cause Seizures, Deafness, Jaundice

A

CMV

25
Q

MCV shows up what way through what bodies?

Where wont you see lesions? Non gential lesions

A

Henderson Paterson

palms and soles

26
Q

What pox virus starts on the hand?

A

Cowpox

27
Q

Cidofovir kills all what?

What virus can be killed via a cream?

A

viral infected cells

MCV

28
Q

Lamivudine treats HIV and HBV, what can it attack that they both have?

What kind of HBV vaccine is given?

A

Reverse Transcriptase

Subunit

29
Q

What is given in the subunit HBV vaccine?

What can be given with an HBV vaccine?

A

HBsAg

Give antibodies to prevent movement into cells

30
Q

When it comes to the EBV LMP-1, LMP-2, and EBER are responsible for causing what?

EBV-EA, EBV-MA, EBV-VCA are lytic stage genes that are responsible for what?

A

Latent infection cells

Early, membrane, and viral capsid antigens

31
Q

Kaposi sydrome has what unique characteristic? Has what distinct color?

A

Angiogenic and purple color

32
Q

How is VZV transferred from person to person?

A

Respiratory and Direct Contact

33
Q

What genome types for HBV get into the human genome the easiest and therefore are more likely to cause cancer?

Can HBV cross the placenta?

A

Genomes B,C,E

No, cannot cross the placenta

34
Q

What is the necessity of the RNA genome involving the RNA polymerase II? (with respect to Hep D)

Hep D can be diagnosed via what unique lab technique?

A

Allows Hep D to replicate

ELISA

35
Q

What is the #1 and #2 most common viral infectious agents in humans?

A

1 Rhinovirus

36
Q

What picornavirus receptor, an Ig-like receptor, will use what receptor?

A

CD155

37
Q

How do I differentiate Hep A from Hep B.?

A

Hep. B the symptoms will show up afer 6 weeks, Hep. B is chronic in most kids

Hep. A the symptoms will show up after 2-4 weeks, Hep A is asymptommatic in kids

38
Q
  • Detection of anti-HAV IgM indicates ______ infection
  • Detection of anti-HAV IgG indicates _______infection

What is the liver enzyme that is elevated in Hep A?

A

acute

previous

ALT

39
Q

Hep B is what kind of vaccine?

Hep A is what kind of vaccine?

A

Subunit

Whole killed

40
Q

Hep. A has similar seafood, fecal oral problem as what other bacteria?

A

Vibro Parahemolyticus

41
Q

Who is Hep. E worse in? What standard lab tests can be used?

A

Preganant Women

No lab tests

42
Q

What virus subgroup replicates in untreated water, outbreaks occurs in schools and daycares?

A

Enterovirus

43
Q

Where does the enteroviruses replicate?

A

Replicates in the oropharynx, GI tract, and bloodstream

44
Q

What two types of polio will a person have before they get paralytic poliomyelitis?

What is the worst type of polio?

A

Abortive poliomyelitis: flu like symptoms and headache

Non-paralytic poliomyelitis: aseptic meningitis

Bulbospinal Polio, can still have recurrent symptoms and shed virus in the stool

45
Q

How is Cocksackie separated from Herpes?

S. Pyogenous has petechial rashes verus what with cocksackie?

A

Herpes is the same location, recurrent history, no fever

Cocksackie has vesicular lesion

46
Q

Coxsackie B effects via pericarditis and myocarditis. What is the name of the disease?

What does CVB4 cause?

A

Pleurodynia (aka Bornholm disease, epidemic myalgia, “devil’s grip”)

Type 1 Diabetes, destroys the Islet of Langerhands, no more insulin

47
Q

What number is the Coxsackie A virus for Hand-foot-mouth disease?

What number is the Coxsackie A Rhinovirus-like, cold-like syptoms?

A

CVA16

CVA21 and CVA24

48
Q

What is the Coxsackie virus A number for conjunctivitis?

A

variant CVA24

49
Q

What virus causes aseptic meningitis but is very unlikely?

What are the respective strains for Upper Respiratory Tract Infection?

A

Echovirus

EV11 and EV20

50
Q

What number of echovirus causes pleurodynia like symptoms?

What number of echovirus causes hemorrhagic conjuctivitis?

A

EV6 and EV19

E70

51
Q

How is Rhinovirus spread?

What temperature does Rhinovirus replicate?

A

Direct Person to Person via respiratory droplets

Contact via a fomite

Main cause of the common cold

33 Degrees, not 37 degrees, are acid labile

52
Q

Large giant multinucleated cells?

Which virus

A

Tzank Smear

Herpes

53
Q

Pox family has what histological tipoff?

MCV is what family, and has what histological tipoff?

What does MCV that is unique?

A

Guarnelli Bodies, large basophillic bodies

Henderson patterson Bodies

Ulcer, has cheese like center, painless, no palms or soles

54
Q

A baby with diaherra and meningitis is what? viral infection

What uses ICAM-1 for binding?

A

Echovirus

Rhinovirus