IDR block 4a Flashcards

1
Q

All known examples of animal viruses with helical symmetry contain RNA genomes and have flexible nucleocapsids wound into a ball, surrounded by envelope. Except which one?

A

Rhabdoviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three different types of shapes for viruses?

A

helical, icosahedral (roughly spherical), complex (non-symmetrical)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Icosahedral capsid-Poliovirus has what structural units?

A

VP1, VP2, VP3, VP4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

___________ is sensitive to heat, drying, detergents, ether, chloroform & alcohol

A

Viral envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What feature of viruses, presents between the nucleocapsid & envelope (enveloped layer), stabilize the organization of viral glycoprotein and the lipid envelope, directs the viral genome to intracellular sites of viral assembly, facilitate viral budding

A

Matrix proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what feature of viruses present within the genome in some viruses and involved in transcription and replication of viral genome

A

polymerase enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three things are needed to have viral attachement?

A

Single Caspid, Viral Capsid Proteins, and Viral Capsids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Enveloped viruses lose what when crossing into a cell? When endocytosis happens, how is the envelope removed?

A

Virus envelope Lysosomes/acidification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Non-enveloped viruses sink onto membrane and what happens?

A

The viral genome is pushed into the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Non-enveloped viruses are endocytosed into the cell, how does the virus move into the cell?

A

While in the lysosome, the nucleic acid is removed from the endosome into the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is reassortment? What two things can it cause

A

2 viral parental viruses, that can cause mixing many things rearranged Genetic drift Genetic shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is recombination?

A

2 viral parental viruses changes, normally 2 things

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In the bacteriophage example what do clear and cloudy represent?

A

Cloudy –> lysogenic

Clear –> lytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

All DNA viruses assemble in the nucleus except? All RNA viruses assemble where?

A

Poxviruses Cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Phenotypic masking or ____________: genome of one virus randomly incorporated in capsid composed of proteins from a different, or both, viruses.

A

transcapidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

_________are formed when the nucleocapsid of one virus acquires envelope from another type of virus.

A

Pseudotypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Is Adenovirus encapsulated or unencapsulated? Generally very heat stable, what breaks down the envelope?

A

unencapsulated, citric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

E1A, E1B messes up what body process? Blocks what?

A

Disrupt Cell Cycle Stops apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most common time of year for adenovirus infection?

A

winter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the major route of spreading? What is another way of spreading this disease?

Talking about adenovirus

A

Oral-fecal route Droplet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does Late 4 for adenovirus do, that is really important?

A

Responsible for attachment and hemagglutination; contains some serotyping antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What knob domain is used for adenovirus?

A

Coxsackie-adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the penton bases that interact with integrins, via adenovirus?

A

alphavbeta3 or alphavbeta5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the immunity for infants, just born? What do a lot of people have for immunity? (with respect to adenovirus)

A

Long lasting IgG, maternal antibodies for 6 months (infant)

Most women have bumped into adenovirus, have a naturally immunity against it due to a previous infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What serotypes result in ARD? What does ARD lead to? (with respect to adenovirus)

A

Ad4 and Ad7

Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is adenovirus very similar too? How is it differentiated?

A

Strept. Pyogenous Viral has a runny nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Acute hemorrhagic cystitis has what serotype numbers? Acute gastroenteritis has what serotype numbers? What are two or more symptoms that adenovirus can cause?

A

AD 11 and 12

AD 40 and 42

Pertussis and Intussusception –> intestine, folds in on itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Assuming this was contracted from a shipyard, what is the causitive agent of this disease?

A

Adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is adenovirus tested for via lab practices?

Adenovirus has much worse effects with what population group?

What is the treatment for adenovirus?

A

PCR

Immune compromised

No treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does adenovirus not cause in patients, with respect to the inclusion bodies?

A

Cytomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Paroviruses must be complemented with what in order to make DNA synthesis go?

Will attack what types of cells in order to replicate? Constantly in what phase?

A

Adenoviruses

Erthyroid Precursor cells, S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cough, rash, joint aches, fever, inflammation in blood stream, can cause UPRT infection in what virus? The virus attacks blood group P antigen, globoside

A

Parovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If parovirus infects a baby or fetus, where does this site of infection take place?

Can cause what type of anemia?

A

Bone marrow (baby)

Liver (fetus)

aplastic anemia

34
Q

Mostly adults have Arthropathy after what viral infection?

Said virus has two stages. What are the hallmark symptoms of these two stages? What type of HSR is going on?

A

Parvovirus

1: Dry cough
2: Slap cheek, HSR 3 Erythroid Precursor cell fallout

35
Q

Parovirus is diagnosed how?

What is the treatment?

A

1 clinical symptoms, can use IgG B19 antibodies, or PCR

No treatment, supportive care

36
Q

How does Parovirus start DNA replication?

A

Makes a self primer

37
Q

Polyomaviridae occurs mostly in ___________ patients?

Polyomaviridae causes JC and BK virus which cause?

A

Immune-compromised patients

JC –> Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopthy

BK –> Renal Disease

38
Q

HPV 16 and 18 are the highest risk to cause what?

In the HPV 16 and 18, what genes are used to stop RB and p53?

L1 and L2 are used for what?

A

Cancer

E6 and E7

Making the capsid

39
Q

What does HPV normally cause?

What cell layer do they start in and what genes are used to make this go?

A

Warts on different body site locations?

E1 and E2, genome maintaince, basal

40
Q

Cervical dysplasia & neoplasia is caused by what serotypes in HPV?

What oral mucosa strains are associated oral mucosa?

A

HPV16 and HPV 18

HPV6 and HPV 11

41
Q

What will E6 and E7 genes for HPV stop?

A

Apoptosis

42
Q

With an MCV infection, what will be seen in the inclusion bodies?

A

Henderson Patterson Bodies

43
Q

With a Pox virus, what enzyme must the virus provide?

A

DNA dependent RNA polymerase

44
Q

What is seen in histological sample or represents DNA replication outside of the nucleus?

A

Guarnieri Body

45
Q

What does the drug Cidofovir do?

A

Kills cells that are virally infected

46
Q

What virus is from Sheep and Goats, need direct contact of innoculation of fluids, self resolving?

What term describes another source of movement?

Where are the orf viruses usually?

A

Orf Viruses

Fomites

Hands

47
Q

What is a good way to separate smallpox and human cowpox?

A

Smallpox is oral to blood to lungs

Human Cowpox moves hands to head

48
Q

Where will MCV not be located?

How does someone normally get MCV?

A

hands and feet

traumatic innoculation

49
Q

What is seen in a histological slide for Adeno viruses? What is not seen in the slide?

A

Large Vacuoles

Cell enlargement

50
Q

The chickenpox and smallpox rash can be differentiated how?

A

Smallpox has a slow onset, Chickenpox has a fast onset

Smallpox is on the hands and feet, Chickenpox is mostly torso

Chickenpox has a lot raised ulcers that are growing and healing, Smallpox the rashes are deep raised and not the life cycle that chicken pox

51
Q

What is the histological view of Papillomaviridae virus?

A

Koliocytes, double nucleus, halo around nucleus

52
Q

What does the drug Imiquinod (Aldura) give in order to make a vaccine?

A

TLR7, increase inflammation

53
Q

What does Gardasil treat, HPV wise?

What does Cervarix treat, HPV wise?

A

6, 11, 16, 18

16, 18

54
Q

Other than Guarnieri bodies, what Lab method can be used for detection?

A

PCR

55
Q

Herpes virus has what enzyme that is a necessity for DNA replication?

What enzyme is made via the herpes virus to make the building blocks of DNA?

A

DNA Depependent DNA polyermase

Thymidine Kinase

56
Q
  • Headaches
  • Loss of coordination, clumsiness
  • Loss of language ability (aphasia)
  • Memory loss
  • Vision problems
  • Weakness of the legs and arms that gets worse

What disease is this, what is the main part?

A

PML

Polymorphia

57
Q

What is the vaccine derived from for smallpox?

A

Cow pox

58
Q

What is this viral sample and the histological sample?

What is the other stain/smear that goes with viral sample? How are the two differentiated? via a stain/what is seen?

A

Cowdry Type A

HSV1 and HSV2

Tzank Smear, Multinucleated Cells (Synchita)

59
Q

When in the latent phase, circularizes, resides in the nucleus as a ____________. Will flip over to lytic, for what reasons?

A

episome

Stress, immunosuppresion, UV light, and corticosteroids

60
Q

What cell-mediated immunity happens as a result of the herpes virus?

A

Shift away towards antibody

61
Q

Can HSV cross the placenta? What can HSV2 cause in an immunecompromised patient?

A

Yes

Meningitis

62
Q

What is the difference between Herpes Symplex virus and S. Pyogenous via physical examination?

A

S. Pyogenous: Red petechial dots

HSV: White Petechial Dots

63
Q

What disease does the Herpes virus cause, with the brain, the patient does not need to be immuncompromised, but reduced CMI, makes the process more likely?

A

Herpes encephalitis

64
Q

What DNA strand virus causes this problem?

A

Herpetic Keratitis

65
Q

What branch of the Herpes Virus is responsible for the raised wounds on a person’s finger, occurs in nurses, physicians, or thumb-sucking children?

A

Herpetic whitlow

66
Q

What branch of the herpes virus is eschanged through cuts, abrasion, through wrestling or rubgy?

A

Herpes gladiatorum

67
Q

What branch of the herpes virus is acquired by children that spreads through the skin, liver, and other organs?

A

Eczema Herpes

68
Q

HSV makes what disease worse and changes the natural history of HSV?

A

HIV

69
Q

HSV _______(inflammation of the anus and lining of the rectum) found in the lower rectum and anus.

A

proctitis

70
Q

What does Neonate HSV look like?

How does the baby get it?

A

Septic, vesicular lesions may be present, HSV disseminates to the liver, lung, CNS, Progression of the infection to the CNS results in death, mental retardation, or neurologic disability, even with treatment.

In utero, Vaginal Canal, or family members (cold sore)

71
Q

What is the antiviral drug of choice against Herpes?

What does HSV 3 show up as? What can a recurrent infection become?

A

Acyclovir

Chickenpox, Varicella-Zoster Virus

72
Q

How does chicken pox and HSV-1 move from person to person?

Follow the progression of the vesicle

Macules –> ___________ –>Vesicles –>___________

–> Crusts

A

Respiratory

Papules

Pustules

73
Q

What is the incubation time for Varicella (chickenpox)?

Does Smallpox/Chickenpox get on the palms/soles?

Where is the varicella, shingles virus most likely to show up?

A

14 days

Chicken pox is no

Smallpox is yes

Belt or Girdle area

74
Q

What is another complication of Shingles, besides meningitis and encephalitis?

When determining Varicella-Zoster, is a lab test needed? What type of smear is used? What other antigen test is used?

A

Interstial Pneumonia

No real Lab test needed

Tzanck Smear

Fluorescent Antibody to membrane antigen, PCR in the future

75
Q

What is a live attenuated vaccine that is available for adults for shingles?

What is the live attenuated vaccine that is available for children, for shingles?

A

Zostavax

Varivax

76
Q

What do all the active herpes virus vaccines all act against in their active moiety?

is the chickenpox rash itchy or no?

A

Triphosphates

Yes

77
Q

What are these three cancer types connected too?

–AfBL (endemic African Burkitt’s lymphoma)

–Hodgkin disease, Leukemia

–Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

Where does the virus stay active or latent?

A

EBV virus

B Lymphocyte

78
Q

Besides EBV what is another gamma HSV virus? What is the number associated with it?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus

HHV-8

79
Q

A herpes viral Genome is transcribed by the _______________________ and is regulated by viral and cellular nuclear factors

EBV makes too many what?

A

cellular DNA dependent RNA polymerase

Antibodies via B cells against too many targets

80
Q

If an individual has Kaposi-Sarcoma, normally they have ________ as well. This rash is very similar to _______________.

A

HIV

Barton Hesalea