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IDR > IDR Block 4c > Flashcards

IDR Block 4c Flashcards

1
Q

If a patient dies from a disease that generates this picture, what could it be? The patient did not receive regular shots, that had SPSS as well?

A

Measles, paromyxovirus

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2
Q

Palivizumab, a drug that fights what viral infection?

A

RSV, polymyxo virus

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3
Q

What is the protein employed by Influenza that tamps down our natural immune system?

A

NSP1

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4
Q

What is the most common test for Influenza?

A

ELISA

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5
Q

Rimantidine and Amantadine are antiviral drugs that are not used anymore, what do/did they block with respective to the viral replication process?

A

M2 proteins

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6
Q

Zanamivir (Relenza), inhaled and Oseltamivir (Tamiflu), oral prevent neuraminidase from cleaving what molecule?

A

sialic acid

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7
Q

If the Influenza/Orthomyxo virus runs its full course and kills someone, what is the most likely reason for death?

If there is pneumonia and someone determines that the disease is not due to a virus, what bacteria would our culprit be?

A

Pneumonia

S. Pneumonia and S. Aureus

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8
Q

What are the three glaring “transcription factors” that are needed for the kick off mRNA, Influenza (Orthyomyxo)?

A

PB1, PB2, and PA

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9
Q

What are the Nipah and Hendra viruses?

A

Zoonotic infections

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10
Q

Rubella has what kind of rash?

Measles has what kind of rash?

A

Non-confluent rash

Confluent rash

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11
Q

What medication does Hep C and RSV use?

A

Ribavirin, ribs in the sketchy videos

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12
Q

What non prescription technique can be given to help alleviate some parainfluenza symptoms?

A

Humidifier

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13
Q

With respect to orthomyxo, what two drugs stop neuraminidase?

What two drugs stop M2 with respect to orthomyxo?

A

Oseltamivir and Zanamivir

Amantadine and Rimantadine

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14
Q

What is the Imiquinob used for what virus?

A

HPV, TLR7

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15
Q

Tecovirimat treats what virus?

A

Pox

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16
Q

Hep B has what drug against it?

Which hepatitis can have passive immunoglobulins given against it?

A

Lamivudine

Hep A

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17
Q

What does E1A inhibit with Adenovirus?

What does E1B inhibit with Adenovirus?

A

p53

E2F

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18
Q

Echovirus has what unique eye problem?

Besides Cocksackie B, who else can has pleurodynia?

A

Bloody Conjuctivis

Echovirus

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19
Q

Herpangina is caused by what virus?

A

Cocksackie A

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20
Q

When there is a suspected Rabies bite, what is the red flag from a histological sample?

A

Negri bodies

21
Q

What is another name for the lyssavirus?

What shape would describe this virus, very unique?

A

Rhabdoviruses

Bullet shape

22
Q

What receptors does the Rabies virus bind too?

What animals have rabies?

A

Nicotinic receptor

Bat, Racoon, and wolf

23
Q

What is the treatment for a rabies infection?

A

Whole killed Vaccine or animal provided antibodies (IgG), passive immunity

24
Q

What are the two big viruses for Filoviruses?

What are they known for/what is the treatment?

A

Marburg and Ebola

Bleeding from most orificies, no treatment, moves through monkeys

25
Q

Hantavirus is transferred how?

What is unique about Bunyavirus genetic variability?

A

Inhalation of the infected rodent droppings

Segmental DNA

26
Q

What does E2 do with respect to the Coronavirus?

A

Makes the halo, glycoproteins

27
Q

When dealing with the rabies virus, what is an extreme fear that can manifest itself?

A

Extreme Hydrophobia

28
Q

What is the p24 porition of the HIV molecule?

What is the gp41, gp120?

A

Capsid

gp41 is the transmembrane protein

gp120 is the surface protein that attaches to human cells

29
Q

What does ATL disease have?

What is the histological pattern seen?

A

Abnormal proliferation of mature CD4

Flower cells

30
Q

What does the envelope gene code for?

What does the poly gene code for?

A

gp41 and gp120

Integrase, Protease, R. Transcriptase

31
Q

What does the protease enzyme from the poly gene cut up?

What does the Gag protein code for?

A

Gag protein is chopped up

Matrix, capsid protein (p24), and Nucleocapsid (wrapped around RNA)

32
Q

What branch of HIV has the Tax gene? The Tax gene combined with the UTR AAA causes what?

A

HTLV-1

The combination allows for continuous transcription of DNA to RNA

33
Q

What does HTLV1 not do that most other cancer mechanisms cause?

The host cell recognizes the Tax gene and makes an immune response. What autoimmune disease can result as well?

A

Stop cell signaling pathways

Muscle Sclerosis

34
Q

What type of signaling does HIV cause that lowers CD4 and MHC II cells?

What two receptors and MHC are needed to bring HIV into the cell?

A deficiency in which of the following can cause HIV immunity?

A

Nef or Negative regulation factor

CD4 and then CCR5 and CXCR4

CCR5

35
Q

What are the three things that the GAG HIV gene code for?

A

Matrix, NucleoCapsid, and Caspid

36
Q

What is Lamivudine and Zidovudine, in terms of drug families?

A

Reverse Transciptase

37
Q

What type of drug is Nevriapine?

A

Nonnucleoside reverse transciptase inhibitors

38
Q

What drug is Saquinavir, in terms of drug family?

A

Protease Inhibitors

39
Q

What does Enfuviritide block during HIV fusion?

A

p41

40
Q

What does the drug Maraiviroc block?

A

CCR5, CCRX4

41
Q

Why are there many colors for bacteria?

A

Protects against UV light and free radicals

42
Q

What types of diseases are Kuru, CJD, Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome, Fatal Familial Insomnia, and Sporadic Fatal Insomnia?

How are these diseases mostly transmitted?

A

Human Prion Disease

Hospital Acquired

43
Q

What type of diseases is Scrapie, Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy, and Chronic Wasting Disease?

A

Animal Prion Disease

44
Q

What is the supposed direction of scrapie?

Sheep —-> ____________ —-> humans

A

Cows, got left over sheep parts

45
Q

_____________________don’t typically penetrate deeper, and acquire nutrition because they are keratinolytic

A

Dermatophytes

46
Q

What two viruses involve a monkey?

A

Dengue and Yellow Fever

47
Q

What is the first thing seen in HIV serology?

A

p24 porition of a capsid

48
Q

What kind of tick is transmitted via a dermacenter, where does it infect, what type of other tick does this?

A

Reovirus, Colorado Tick Fever

Parvovirus

49
Q

What is the difference between colorado tick and Rocky Mountain Spotted fever (American Dog Tick)?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever will have a Rash

IDR (13 decks)

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