Block1b Flashcards

1
Q

What does azthyromycin bind too? What type of drug is azithromycin? Another name?

A

Large, 50S ribosomal subunit Macrolide, Zithromax, very similar to erythomycin

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2
Q

What does tetracyclin bind too? What type of drug is this?

A

Small, 30S ribosomal subunit -cyclins

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3
Q

What does the Synercid bind too?

A

Large 50S ribosomal subunit

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4
Q

As with vancomycin and daptomycin, quinupristin-dalfopristin (Synercid) can only be administered ____________ and is typically reserved for treating severe infections with ______________ resistant to other drugs.

A

intravenously Gram-positive bacteria

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5
Q

What does Ciprofloxacin do? Who cannot have it?

A

Binds to Topoisomerase II (reduces supercoils) and Topoisomerase IV (cuts two bacterial rings that have been replicated) Preg. Mothers or children

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6
Q

Genes with a high number of what makes it difficult to transcribe?

A

G and C

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7
Q

What pinches off replicating bacteria after the cell wall has been built, the bacteria has divided accordingly?

A

FTSZ gene

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8
Q

What three replication topics need a rec A gene?

A

Natural Transformation, Specialized Transduction, and Artificial Transduction

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9
Q

What two processes are stopped by DNAse?

A

Natural transformation and Artificial Transformation

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10
Q

What processes must be similar to exchange genetic material?

A

Specialized, General Transduction, and Conjugation

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11
Q

Name a drug that is a siderophore. A drug that binds to Fe to stay put in the bacterial internal environment and not get punted by the efflux pump.

A

Albomycin

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12
Q

Alpha hemolytic will turn the plate what color? Beta hemolytic will turn the plate what color? Gamma hemolytic will turn the plate what color?

A

Alpha hemolytic will turn the plate blood red to green Beta hemolytic will turn the plate blood red to yellow Gamma hemolytic will turn the plate light purple or no color change

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13
Q

What is special about a chocolate augar plate? Similar bacteria called what grow on other plates?

A

Breaks down red blood cells for bacteria that do not have the capacity for the cell breakdown Satellite colonies

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14
Q

Dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid is inhibited by what drug for UTI treatment?

A

Trimethoprim

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15
Q

What drug prevents PABA to dihydropteroic acid?

A

Sulfonamides

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16
Q

If carbohydrate fermentation is not taking place, what color does it turn? If carbohydrate fermentation takes place, what color does the solution turn?

A

Negative is red Positive is yellow

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17
Q

_________________ prevents peptidoglycan cell wall recycling from happening?

A

Bacitran

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18
Q

Bacilli have what three types of bacteria?

A

Vibrio, Fusiform Bacilli, Spirilla

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19
Q

______________are small, positively-charged molecules that poke holes in microbes because microbial cell surfaces are negatively-charged

A

Defensins

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20
Q

HBD2 and HBD3 are types of defensins that kill different kinds of bacteria? What are they?

Defensins are constantly or not constantly made via the intestinal epithelium?

Defensins are positively or negatively charge?

A

HBD2 kills Gram - HBD3 kills Gram -/+

Constantly made

positively charged, microbial charged bacteria are negative, opposites attract

21
Q

What 2 items are susceptible to MAC? What 3 are not susceptible to MAC?

A

Enveloped iscosahedral Nucleocapsid and Gram - (susceptible) Nonenveloped icosahedral nucleocapsid, acid fast, and gram + (non-susceptible)

22
Q

MAC formation requires the presence of an accessible ____________ on the target cell on which to build the pore complex

If an individual is having a problem with gram neg. and enveloped viruses only, what is wrong with the MAC?

A

phospholipid membrane

most likely C6-C9 problems, the other other anaphylaxins help fight the other types of bacteria

23
Q

The complement cascade can be avoid in two ways. Human cells and some bacteria have ________. What does it do?

A

Delay Activating Factor -> they inhibit the MAC formation

24
Q

Besides the DAF, what is another way that Bacteria can avoid the complement cascade?

A

Bacteria hold onto the C3 component and do not allow molecule to break into C3a and C3b

25
Q

What is this cell and what are the contents of the primary granules?

The primary granules are azurophilic which are indicative of what?

A

contain cationic proteins, lysozyme, defensins, elastase and

myeloperoxidase

They are young neutrophils

26
Q

What are these cells primarily used in defense thereof?

What kind of reactions are they involved?

A

Antibody coated parasites

Type I HSR with IgE

Eosinophils

27
Q

What type of granules contain contain lysozyme, NADPH oxidase components, lactoferrin and B12-binding protein?

A

Secondary Granules, Neutrophils

1st to arrive on the scence

28
Q

What are these cells used for?

A

Basophils are similar to mast cells

Histamine and Heparn, used for Type 1 HSR, IgE

29
Q

What are the CD markers for this cell?

What is the function of this cell?

A

CD2, CD7, CD8

CD16, CD56, CD3(not this one)

Kill virus infected cells and maligant cells

30
Q

This mast cell does or doesnt circulate in the blood?

Contains what two molecules for HSRs?

Phagocytic or Hydrolytic?

A

Doesnt circulate in the blood

Heparan and Histamine

Not phagocytic or Hydrolytic

31
Q

Alpha Defesins are used in what areas?

Beta Defesins are used in what areas?

Where do defensins come from

A

Female reproductive

Outer surfaces of body, vagina, respiratory, eyes, GI (stomach)

Paneth Cells from the GI tract

32
Q

interleukins communicate between?

A

white blood cells

33
Q

What diffuses across the membrane for the simplest signaling mechanism?

What form of messaging is used?

A

Nitric Oxide

Paracrine and Autocrine

34
Q

What kind of signal will not fit through the plasma membrane; and, needs a second messenger?

A

polar and large

35
Q

The kinase protein ________ the membrane and makes a ____________ factor for gene expression

A

phosphorylates

transcription

36
Q

A soluble or membrane-associated molecule which binds

to a specific receptor, usually with 1:1 stoichiometry. is what?

A

ligand

37
Q

the NF-KB pathway is suppressed by ________ and after it is phosphorylated, _____________ becomes a transcription factor

A

IKK

RelA-50

38
Q

The binding of a TRL to a ligand or ________ sets off a _________ cascade

A

PAMP

kinase

39
Q

Monocytes have what CD marker?

What secondary CD marker do they have?

A

CD 14 and MD2

40
Q

Erythropoietin,

granulocyte stimulating factor, growth hormones use what kind of signaling?

A

Jak-stat

41
Q

Caspases cut after what?

Intrinsic cell death is triggered by what?

Extrinsic cell death is triggered by what?

A

aspartic acid

Radiation, Toxins, and Free Radicals

FAS and TNF receptors

42
Q

Caspase 8 is through what kind of activation?

Caspase 9 is thorugh what kind of activation?

A

extrinsic

intrinsic uses cytrochrome C

Both use caspase 3

43
Q

Aberant apoptotic cleanup by macrophages is thought to cause what?

A

lupus, an autoimmune disease

44
Q

Caspase 8 is internal or external stimuli

Caspase 8 stimulates what in order to make the DNAse chop up the chromosomes?

A

External Stimuli

Caspase 3

45
Q

TLR 3,7,8,9 have induced IPC that have extensive what in pictures?

What is generated via the NFKb pathway after the TLR receptors hit?

A

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

IFN-alpha

46
Q

Do bacteria have mitochondria?

If bacterial flagellium are going to be attacked, what is going to be pathogenic, similar in terms of structure?

A

NO!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Type III secretion system

47
Q

How do bacteria make their ATP if no mitochondria?

A

They use a plasma membrane and fermentation pathways

48
Q

Specialized transduction, phage DNA is pushed into the Bacterial Chromosome, as a result, a lot of replication will occur, is the restriction enzyme required?

What three types of replication need restriciton enzymes?

A

Not necessairly, the DNA replication takes place and is pushed out, packaged into capsids

Artifical Transformation, Generalized and Specialized Transduction