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HPM 70.6 Officer Safety manual Flashcards

1
Q

The legal standard used to determine the lawfulness of a use of force is the ________ Amendment to the United States (U.S.) Constitution.

a. First
b. Fourth
c. Sixth
d. Fourteenth

A

B. Fourth Amendment

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2
Q

The 1989 United States Supreme Court case which talks of Objective Reasonableness is
___ _ ___.

a. United States v. Smith
b. Connor v. Graham
c. Graham v. Connor
d. Graham v. United States

A

C. Graham v. Connor

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3
Q

Deadly force is defined as:

a. That force which creates a substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily injury, but is not limited to the discharge of a firearm.
b. That force which death or serious injury is imminent.
c. A situation where death is likely.
d. None of the above.

A

A

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4
Q

True or false? Serious Bodily Injury. California Penal Code Section 243(f)(4) defines serious bodily injury as including, but not limited to:

(1) Loss of consciousness
(2) Concussion
(3) Bone fracture
(4) Protracted loss or impairment of function of any bodily member or organ
(5) A wound requiring extensive suturing
(6) Serious disfigurement

A

True

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5
Q

True or false? It is the policy of the Department that officers may use force which is “objectively reasonable” to:

a. Defend themselves
b. Defend others
c. Effect an arrest or detention
d. Prevent escape; or,
e. Overcome resistance

A

True

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6
Q

Which of the following is not a Use of Force Option?

a. Control Holds
b. Aerosol Subject Restraint
c. Demeanor
d. Impact Weapons (i.e. RCB)
e. Electronic Control Device
f. 12-Gauge Shotgun with Kinetic Energy Munitions (Less-Lethal Shotgun)
g. Personal Weapons
h. Deadly Force

A

C

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7
Q

When safe and feasible under the totality of the circumstances, officers are required to utilize de-escalation techniques, crisis intervention tactics and other alternatives to force. Officers ____ assess the risks and consider actions that may slow a situations momentum or prevent the need to utilize a higher level of force. This would include utilizing effective communication tools (e.g., advisements, warnings, verbal persuasion, and tactics) and/or employing additional resources (e.g., additional officers or mental health specialists).

A. Shall
B. Must
C. Should
D. May

A

C. Should

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8
Q

True or false? When officers are involved in or witness an incident in which they believe excessive force is currently or may have been used by ANY peace officer, they shall take immediate action to stop the excessive force.

A

True

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9
Q

True or false: All uniformed employees at the rank of sergeant and below are required to complete the Quarterly Review and Training assessment of the following chapters of HPM 70.6 on a quarterly basis:

A. Chapter 1, Use of Force
B. Chapter 2, Discharge of Firearms 
C. Chapter 26, Aerosol Subject Restraint
D. Chapter 28, 12-Gauge Shotgun with Kinetic Energy Munitions 
E. Chapter 29, Electronic Control Device
A

False

Captain and below

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10
Q

The legal authority for the discharge of firearms is derived from the __________?

a. Government Code
b. Vehicle Code
c. Constitution
d. Penal Code

A

D. Penal Code

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11
Q

True or False? Warning shots should not be fired except under the same conditions which authorize the use of deadly force against a human being and only if the firing of such shots is not likely to endanger innocent persons.

A

False

Shall not

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12
Q

True or False? Firearms shall not be discharged from departmental aircraft except in accordance with this chapter and only when the aircraft is not in flight.

A

True

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13
Q

Officer Ramirez was off duty at his residence. His house was being entered by a man who was armed with a knife. Officer Ramirez feared for his and his family’s safety. Officer Ramirez fired a “warning shot” above the man’s head out the back door. The man fled. Does Officer Ramirez need to report the discharge of his firearm to his
supervisor?

a. Yes
b. No

A

A. Yes

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14
Q

Officer Jones went on scene with an injured deer that needs to be destroyed. Supervisor’s approval:

a. May be obtained
b. Should be obtained
c. Shall be obtained
d. Does not need to be obtained

A

B

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15
Q

True or false? Except for swine, the most effective way to destroy an animal is to shoot it in the brain through the front of the head. The best alternative would be bullet entry from either side of the head.

A

True

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16
Q

Officer Jones responded to a mortally wounded swine in the roadway. He needed to dispatch the animal as it was suffering and could not be saved. Being he hadn’t been to the range in a while he believed a heart shot would be best due to the fact that area of the Swine was larger.

True or false: Departmental policy states, “Shots to the heart are to be used as a last resort, as there is a good possibility of ricochet from the shoulder and rib bones.”

A

True

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17
Q

In the event of a reportable firearm discharge, the discharge ___ be reported to a supervisor as soon as the situation is stabilized.

a. Should
b. Shall
c. May

A

B

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18
Q

Officer Jackson was working patrol and was doing traffic collision follow up at a private residence. A woman answered the door and Officer Jackson politely introduced himself. The woman asked to view Officer Jackson’s police identification card. Per departmental
policy, Officer Jackson shall:

a. Advise her that his badge is his ID.
b. Advise her that his uniform and badge is equivalent to photographic ID.
c. Comply by displaying the front (photograph) side of his departmentally-issued ID card, unless doing so would reasonably jeopardize officer and/or public safety.
d. None of the above.

A

C

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19
Q

The six legal interventions for a pursuit are:

a. Channelization, Roadblocks, Ramming, Hollow Spike Strip, Boxing-in, and hand signals
b. Channelization, Roadblocks, Ramming, Hollow Spike Strip, Boxing-out, and Firearms
c. Channelization, Roadblocks, Ramming, Hollow Spike Strip, Boxing-out, and Pursuit Intervention technique (PIT)
d. Channelization, Roadblocks, Ramming (The PIT is a form of ramming), Hollow Spike Strip, Boxing-in, and Firearms.

A

D

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20
Q

True or false? For the purposes of pursuit policy, a supervisor, is a uniformed employee of this Department at the rank of sergeant or above, or a designated acting sergeant or officer-in-charge (OIC) assigned supervisory responsibilities.

A

True

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21
Q

True or false? Maximum use of any available law enforcement aircraft should be made as quickly as possible. Any aircraft are in addition to any authorized ground units.

A

True

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22
Q

Sergeant Smith was monitoring a pursuit from the CHP area office. He heard the officer request CHP aircraft through dispatch. Dispatch related there were no CHP aircraft available. Per policy what kind of aircraft can be used in a pursuit?

a. CHP aircraft only.
b. CHP helicopters only.
c. CHP airplanes only.
d. Any available law enforcement aircraft

A

D

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23
Q

A pursuit comes to a stop on the freeway. The primary unit is a black and white patrol car. The secondary unit is a CHP motorcycle. A felony stop ensues and the motor officer is on foot approaching the patrol car. The suspect vehicle flees away. The motorcycle
officer should:

a. Return to his motorcycle
b. Get into the patrol car with the patrol car officer
c. Discontinue involvement in the pursuit
d. Get into the patrol car with the patrol officer, and advise dispatch where his motorcycle was abandoned.

A

D

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24
Q

True or false? The major difference between a “high risk stop” and a “felony stop” is that officers display their firearms in a “low ready” on high risk.”

A

True

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25
Q

What form number is a pursuit report?

a. CHP 186
b. CHP 187
c. CHP 188
d. Std. 187

A

B. CHP 187

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26
Q

How many calendar days does a supervisor have to complete a pursuit critique report?

a. 5
b. 7
c. 10
d. None of the above. He must complete as soon as possible

A

C. 10

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27
Q

A supervisor’s permission ___ be obtained prior to using legal intervention.

a. Shall
b. Should
c. May
d. Does not need to

A

B

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28
Q

Ramming should not occur when either the pursued vehicle or the pursuing vehicle is
traveling in excess of ___ miles per hour.

a. 30
b. 34
c. 35
d. 40

A

C . 35 mph

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29
Q

Spike strips ___ not be used to stop motorcycles, mopeds, or similar vehicles.

a. Shall
b. Should
c. May
d. None of the above

A

A. Shall not

Except when deadly force is authorized

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30
Q

The spike strip ___ not be deployed to stop the following vehicles unless the continued
movement of the pursued vehicles would result in an unusual hazard to others.

  1. Any vehicle transporting a hazardous material as defined in CVC Section 2402.7.
  2. Any passenger bus transporting passengers.
  3. Any school bus transporting pupils.
  4. Any vehicle that would pose an unusual hazard to innocent parties.

a. Shall
b. Should
c. May
d. None of the above

A

B. Should not

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31
Q

Officer Adams is an officer in a remote resident post. He was involved in a high speed pursuit and reported to his sergeant the brakes on his patrol car have lost efficiency. The supervisor advised Officer Adams to keep using the vehicle for the next couple of days while he was on duty. What shall the sergeant do in this situation?

a. The supervisor shall ensure the vehicle is placed out-of-service if the vehicle experienced any level of reduced brake efficiency or damage during the high-performance driving.
b. The supervisor should ensure the vehicle is placed out of service.
c. The sergeant was correct. Have the officer stay on the beat with the vehicle.
d. Notify the auto technician and get an opinion.

A

A

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32
Q

At the conclusion of a pursuit, the supervisor, when appropriate, ___ conduct an incident
debriefing with the officer(s) involved in the pursuit.

A

Should

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33
Q

True or false? The CHP 228, Pursuit Policy Attestation, shall be completed annually by all uniformed employees per CVC Section 17004.7.

A

True

34
Q

When an officer(s) are engaged in a foot pursuit, the sergeant or Officer-In-Charge (OIC)_______ respond to the scene and coordinate the foot pursuit and/or search for the suspect. The supervisor ___ terminate the foot pursuit/search as necessary.

a. Shall/May
b. Shall/Should
c. Should/Should
d. Should/May

A

D

35
Q

For hostage incidents, a CHP supervisor ___ be notified and ___ respond to the scene to coordinate or direct the apprehension as necessary.

A

Shall, should

36
Q

The pacing of speeding vehicles ___ ___ ___ as a matter of law; however, most courts prefer it. If a violator’s speed is accurately verified, the possibility of an argument is minimized.

a. May be required
b. Is not required
c. Is not necessary
d. None of the above

A

B

37
Q

In regard to freeway collisions, Sergeants _____ normally respond to all major accidents or incidents whenever possible to advise and coordinate operations.

a. Will
b. Should
c. Shall
d. May

A

A

38
Q

Roadblocks ___ not be utilized when attempting to apprehend misdemeanants.

A

Should

39
Q

Departmental Officer Safety Training is conducted annually. It is ___ hours.

a. 4 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 16 hours
d. None of the above

A

B. 8 hours

40
Q

The POST training for Arrest and Control is every other year. It is ___ hours.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 8

A

C. 4 hours

41
Q

Any use of a control hold which results in an apparent injury, complaint of injury or a subsequent claim of injury ___ be documented.

A

Shall

42
Q

During the course of enforcement duties, all officers and sergeants _____ carry the ECD if available.

A

Shall

43
Q

After an ECD has been discharged, the following procedures shall be followed:

a. A supervisor shall be notified as soon as practical and should respond
b. Pictures shall be taken of the probe site(s), drive stun sites and any other injuries
c. A copy of the medical clearance form shall be provided to the detention facility and attached to the arrest report.
d. All the above
e. Both a & b

A

D

44
Q

In which of the following situations would the use of the 12-gauge shotgun with kinetic energy munitions be appropriate?

a. Civil disturbances
b. Suicidal/combative/barricaded subject
c. Passive Resister
d. All the above
e. Both a & b

A

E

45
Q

Which of the following is not a reason to handcuff a subject to the front?

a. Sick
b. Injured
c. Disabled
d. Overweight
e. Visibly pregnant
f. Elderly

A

D

46
Q

An officer used a 12-gauge shotgun with kinetic energy munitions on a physically resistive subject. Two rounds were fired and struck the subject on the thighs. After the subject was taken into custody, the sergeant arrived due to the use of force issue, and the subject was complaining of leg pain and had small bruises on his thighs. The officer ___ get the subject medically cleared.

a. May
b. Should
c. Shall
d. Does not need

A

C

47
Q

The effects of OC will normally last 15 to 45 minutes. Should the symptoms persist beyond this time limit, medical attention ___ be obtained as soon as possible.

A

Should

48
Q

All OC canisters are to be replaced during their ___ year during the annual inspection of safety equipment in conjunction with completion of the CHP 11.

a. Third
b. Fourth
c. Fifth
d. Sixth

A

B

49
Q

True or false? OC should be carried on the duty belt so as not to be visible to an attacker when in a position of advantage. When needed it can be drawn and used without giving the subject time to react.

A

True

50
Q

How many bottles of saline solution shall be in each patrol vehicle to be used to decontaminate a subject if OC is used on them?

a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1

A

D

51
Q

Officer Smith is on routine patrol in the South Lake Tahoe Area. He is on a county road and receives a report that a black bear has been struck by a vehicle. The bear is alive but has four broken legs and a possible broken back. Officer Smith decides to use his AR-15
to dispatch the animal. He has a clear back drop, there is no risk of ricochet, all bystanders are behind the officer, and he has obtained supervisor approval to dispatch the bear. The officer fires and one rifle round strikes the bear in the head and kills it instantly. Oh, about the supervisor, that was you. You know Officer Smith needs to fill out paperwork for this. What paperwork does Officer Smith need to fill out?

a. Memorandum to the area
b. CHP 216 and a memorandum to the area
c. A memorandum to the Area Commander which is forwarded to Division
d. No paperwork is needed as long as county roads is advised and dispatch has it
logged.

A

C

52
Q

All uniformed employees are required to review HPM 70.6, Chapter 1 on a ____ basis.

A. Annual
B. Quarterly
C. At area training days
D. Never

A

B. Quarterly

53
Q

A threat of death or serious bodily injury is imminent when:

A. A reasonable officer in the same situation has a fear of future harm.
B. A reasonable officer in the same situation would believe that a person has the present ability, opportunity, and apparent intent to immediately cause death or serious bodily injury to the peace officer or another person.
C. A reasonable officer in the same situation believes a person wishes to cause the officer harm.
D. None of the above.

A

B

54
Q

True or false: While policy cannot realistically predict every possible situation, the decision regarding which force option to select should be guided by the following key principals:

A. Sound professional judgment and critical decision making.
B. Use of force that is objectively reasonable based on the totality of the circumstances perceived by the officer at the time, as provided by law, and in conformance with departmental policy.

A

True

55
Q

The legal authority for the use of physical force is derived from the ____.

A. Government code
B. Vehicle code
C. Constitution
D. Penal code

A

D. Penal code

56
Q

True or false: During the course of enforcement duties, all officers and sergeants shall carry the approved expandable baton.

A

True

57
Q

Prisoner Securement Device. This method is _____ for use on all prisoners placed in a patrol vehicle equipped with eye bolts in the front and rear passenger areas.

A. Encouraged
B. Voluntary
C. Required
D. Helpful

A

C. Required

58
Q

During the course of uniformed enforcement duties, all uniformed employees ____ carry the departmentally issued OC spray.

A

May

59
Q

The dart rate spread on the ECD is:

A

1 foot spread for every 9 feet of travel.

60
Q

The optimum distance to deploy an ECD is:

A

7 feet to 15 feet

61
Q

The maximum effective range to deploy an ECD is:

A

25 feet

62
Q

The ECD should/shall not be used on:

  1. handcuffed persons, unless they pose an immediate threat of injury to the uniformed employee, themselves or others.
  2. Simply non compliant subject or in control of a vehicle in motion- including motorcycles and bikes
  3. A person in control of a vehicle if there is reason to believe it could be put in motion.
  4. Women who appear to be pregnant
  5. elderly
  6. less than 80 lbs
  7. young children
A

Should

63
Q

The ECD should/shall not be used on:

  1. To torture, psychologically torment, or inflict undue pain on any individual.
  2. to rouse unconscious, impaired, or intoxicated individuals.
  3. If exposed to flammable liquids
  4. if subject can fall from substantial height or into a pool, river or other body of water where substantial injury or death could occur.
A

Shall

64
Q
  1. There are ________ use of force options available to an officer.
    A. Five
    B. Six
    C. Seven
    D. Eight
A

B. Six

65
Q
  1. While it is relevant, flight alone is not the only factor to be taken into consideration. In addition to flight, officers shall consider all of the following except:
    a. The severity of the crime
    b. Whether the subject poses an immediate threat to officers or others
    c. The totality of circumstances
    d. Whether the subject can be apprehended at a later time
A

d. Whether the subject can be apprehended at a later time

66
Q
  1. Departmental policy on reporting the use of force is contained in HPM 11.1 Administrative Procedures Manual, Chapter 8. Such reports shall be documented on the CHP 268, Potential Civil Litigation Report. CHP 268 SHALL be completed in addition to any documentation required on arrest, or investigation reports or memoranda of events for all of the following circumstances except:
    A. When a firearm, baton, aerosol subject restraint, personal weapons or other defensive instrument is used.
    B. When the uses of a control hold or handcuffs on an individual results in apparent injury, complaint of injury, or subsequent claim of injury.
    C. When an individual claims financial loss as a result of an officer’s actions.
    D. When high-risk or felony procedures are used and the suspect is later found to be an innocent party.
A

C. When an individual claims financial loss as a result of an officer’s actions.

67
Q
  1. The contents of Chapter 1, Use of Force, shall be reviewed by all uniformed officers and sergeants on a _______ basis.
    A. Monthly
    B. Quarterly
    C. Semiannual
    D. Annual, consistent with the employee’s Annual Review
A

B. Quarterly

68
Q
  1. When initiating a traffic stop, the desired minimum distance between your vehicle and the violator’s vehicle is ________ feet.
    A. 10 feet
    B. 20 feet
    C. 30 feet
    D. 40 feet
A

A. 10 feet

69
Q

The first ________ are crucial in the officer violator contact. During this time the officer may gain or lose support for the Department or place himself in a life-threatening position.
A. 10 seconds
B. 20 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds

A

D. 60 seconds

70
Q

Officers shall follow all provisions of the California Vehicle Code during normal operations. Section 21055 VC outlines conditions when a driver of an authorized emergency vehicle is exempt from obeying certain sections of the VC.

All of the following are examples when an officer is exempt from following the CVC except:

A. Response to an emergency call.
B. In immediate pursuit of actual or suspected violator
C. In response to and returning from a fire alarm.
D. While engaged in rescue operations.

A

C. In response to and returning from a fire alarm.

71
Q
  1. Legal intervention is defined as the termination of a pursuit through the use of physical force or presence. Per policy, there are ______ different legal intervention techniques available for utilization in a pursuit.
    A. 5
    B. 6
    C. 7
    D. 8
A

B. 6

72
Q
  1. Departmental policy requires that patrol vehicles speedometers be calibrated every ______ or ________ using fifth wheel or radar.

A. 3 months; 3,000 miles
B. 6 months; 6,00 miles
C. 3 months; 30,000 miles
D. 6 months; 60,000 miles

A

C. 3 months; 30,000 miles

73
Q
  1. A motorcycle officer initiates a felony stop. The Departmental motorcycle should be positioned in a 45 degree angle. A distance of _________ would afford the best protection for a kneeling officer.
    A. 25-50 feet
    B. 50- 75 feet
    C. 75-100 feet
    D. 100-125 feet
A

B. 50- 75 feet

74
Q
  1. There are three types of hazard a subject exhibits or displays toward an officer during an enforcement stop. All of the following are hazards except:

A. Unknown Risk
B. High Risk
C. Felony
D. Serious Risk

A

D. Serious Risk

75
Q
  1. When an Officer realizes that he/she is confronted with a “high risk” situation, the officer should decide whether to handle the situation and notify the Communications Center. Supervisors should ensure that at least _____ officers respond to the scene to assist as cover, and the supervisor should respond to the scene as the situation dictates.
    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 5
A

B. 3

76
Q
  1. When responding to a crime in progress call, the officer should utilize the following fundamentals (3 “Cs”) except:
    A. Communication
    B. Coordination
    C. Cooperation
    D. Containment
A

C. Cooperation

77
Q
  1. There are ________ techniques for conducting a building entry per policy.
    A. 4
    B. 5
    C. 6
    D. 7
A

A. 4

78
Q
  1. When conducting a search for a suspect who has fled on foot, the following are all acceptable types of search methods except:
    A. Zone search
    B. Spiral search
    C. Strip search
    D. Grid search
A

D. Grid search

79
Q
  1. During peak traffic periods, enforcement actions SHOULD be primarily directed against hazardous accident and congestion-causing violations. Special emphasis should be placed on the following except:

A. Slow moving or vehicles impeding traffic
B. Speed
C. Non emergency stops on a freeway
D. Following too closely

A

C. Non emergency stops on a freeway

80
Q
  1. Area commanders shall ensure sufficient certified OST trainers, at a ratio of ______________ are in attendance at training.
    A. 1:5
    B. 1:8
    C. 1:9
    D. 1:10
A

D. 1:10

81
Q
A

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