HIV/GUM/ID Flashcards

1
Q

What minerals cause issues with ART absorption?

A

particularly bivalent cations e.g. Mg2+, Ca2+, Fe 2+

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2
Q

Mx of urethritis

A

7d of doxycycline BD po

or

single dose of azithromycin po

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3
Q

Hep B Serology

A
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4
Q

ALT raised - what does

A

3x upper limit of normal becomes problematic

5x upper limit -> admit

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5
Q

ALT - 1560
AST - 2650
ALP - 206
Bilirubin - 120

what is this picture called?

A

transaminitis

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6
Q

transaminases in the liver

A

ALT and AST

(alanine amniotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase)

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7
Q

What puts your ALT >1000

A

viral hep
ischaemic hep
AI hep

drug induced

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8
Q

Why do we worry about snorting drugs?

A

transmission risk of viral hepatitis C

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9
Q

marker of acute hep A infection

A

IgM

can also be present in v recent immunisation

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10
Q

Mx of hep A

A

transient self-limiting condition

supportive care if needed

many asymptomatic

f/u fortnightly until transaminases are normal

notify PHE - contact tracing and vaccination

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11
Q

How can you get Hep A

A

faeco-oral

-> food, water, sex (oro-anal, digits-rectal contact)

close contact In the household, child daycare centres

in UK most commonly associated with travel and sexual outbreaks

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12
Q

incubation period for Hep A

A

15-45 days

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13
Q

does Hep A have chronic sequelae?

A

none

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14
Q

can Hep A causes fulminant hep A?

A

<0.1% - very rare

mire common if there is confection with hepB/C

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15
Q

Hep E incubation period

A

40

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16
Q

Hep E dx

A

PCR hep E virus RNA

Hep E Ab

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17
Q

marker for active Hep B

A

surface Ag positive (Hep B s Ag +ve)

also Hep B DNA +ve

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18
Q

Which Hep do you need to have to get Hep D infection?

A

B

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19
Q

Hep B DNA quantity

A

used to monitor the infection and

if Hep B DN A

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20
Q

When in Hep B cAb +ve ?

A

past infection

or

chronic infection (not seen in acute infection)

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21
Q

can you self clear Hep B?

A

yes - it’s common to self clear it

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22
Q

HbeAg +ve

A

highly infective
high viral load

usually also high DNA

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23
Q

HbeAb +ve

A
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24
Q

Mx of Hep B

A

no cure (yet)

refer all HepBAg+ pts to hepatologist

HIV test will alter therapy

  • see if they self-clear
  • if not: you can consider treatment

Fibroscan

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25
commonest cause of HCC
UK - alcohol worldwide - Hep B
26
drugs used to treat Hep B (if indicated)
Lamivudine Emtricitabine Tenofovir (most common) Telbivudine Entecavor Adefovir historic: pegylated iFN alpha if HIV - tenofovir (will make sure that HIV therapy also covers for HepB)
27
Hep B crosses the placenta can have vaginal delivery can breastfeed low transmission rate
28
Hep B PEP
29
is acute Hep B notifiable?
yes
30
how is hep D transmitted?
percutaneous (IVDU) permucosal (sex) confection with hep B needed
31
Who do you worry about hep D in?
someone with Hep B who is unwell/not improving
32
Hep C
33
Mx for Hep C
DAA (direct acting antivirals) - 99% success rate 12 week course (used to be pegylated IFN)
34
Which drugs are injected?
heroin crystal meth
35
how is GHB taken
drink (gamma-hydroxybutyrate)
36
how is Crystal meth used?
injection smoking
37
effects of GHB
disinhibition (increased sex drive as well) euphoria
38
how does GHB appear?
colourless odourless liquid
39
why is GHB a date rape drug?
- colourless odourless liquid - not included in the standard NHS tox screen - leaves the system quite quickly
40
Hep C virus type
+ve strand RNA virus Flaviviridae
41
Hep C RNA testing
PCR not used to screen in A&E because PCR is expensive it is a better test then Anti-HCV so some poeple are missed
42
which Hep C test is done in A&E to screen?
anti-HCV
43
Do we treat everyone with Hep C?
we wait 12w to see if they are getting better otherwise we start DAA depending on genotype, there are resistance patterns so the genotype pattern there are also pangenotypic treatmments
44
pangenotypic treatment of Hep C
in the UK genotype testing is done and a treatment is selected in some countries you don't genotype and just give pan-genotypic treatment
45
Can you get re-infected with Hep C?
yes the majority of people who re-present are reinfected, not treatment failure
46
where do you see HIV 1 and 2?
1 - global 2 - west Africa
47
AIDS - ground 0
Cameroon blood to blood transmission from chimpanzees moved to DRC - sex work prevalent there, virus spread
48
first HIV case
June 5th 1981 in 1983 first started isolating virus
49
how effective is HIV PrEP?
86% effective in RCTs
50
when after HIV exposure will Ab be positive?
45d if still -ve bring back at 3 months (also good for HepB/C and syphilis)
51
4th gen HIV tests
Ab and Ag
52
standard HIV therapy
2 NRTI (backbone) + 3rd agent (integrates inhibitor, protease inhibitor + booster/ NNRTIs) they work on unaffected cells and protect them from infection
53
normal CD4+ count
500 or above
54
why is the timeframe to give PEP 72h?
72 h it takes 72 h for the virus to integrate into the human DNA
55
PrEP - how can you take it?
Truvada - OD (for regular exposure) 2 tablets - 2-24h before sex 1 tablet 2h post exposure 1 tablet 48 post exposure
56
PCP test
serum BD Glucan
57
Mx of PCP
Septrin (caan cause kidney issues) 2nd line: clindamycin and primaquine O2 supportive mx
58
IRIS
immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome
59
types of IRIS
paradoxical - worse when the ART is started unmasking - CD4 are finding new pathogens in the body that wasn't there before more likely to happen if CD4 counts are low
60
rule of 2s - how to remember
2 in the brain eye - CMV, too mouth skin lung - PCP, TB liver - Hep B/C GI - cryptosporidium Kidney - HIVAC spleen - NHL, xx GU - cervical cancer, anal carcinoma
61
highest prevalence of TB in London?
east London
62
TB testing
gene Xpert (can detect resistances as well) quantiferon ziehl-neelsen
63
non-TB mycobacteria
night sweats lumps and bumps weight loss happens when CD4+ under 50
64
ring enhancing lesion on CT dx
toxoplasmosis
65
multiple ring enhancing lesions of CT -dx
66
toxoplasmosis pathogen type
parasite
67
toxoplasmosis pathogen type
parasite
68
Mx of toxoplasmosis in brain
2w treatment for too and re-scan if responds, dx confirmed. otherwise consider other differentials (e.g. abscess, tb, primary cerebral lymphoma)
69
PML
progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy
70
cryptococcus - pathogen type
fungus
71
cryptococcus LP
really high pressure on LP .. -> india ink stain
72
CRAG
cryptococcal antigen
73
check eye for CMV retinitis if CD4 count under 50
74
why do you check mouth in someone with Kaposis sarcoma?
if there are oral lesions it is more likely that the patient has visceral lesions too e.g. in their lungs
75
NAAT which STIs?
gonorrhoea chlamydia