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SRNAanatomy > Heme Part I > Flashcards

Heme Part I Flashcards

1
Q

Albumins: ______% 60-80 g/L

• Function:

A

(57%)as carriers; control plasma osmotic pressure

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2
Q

• α and β globulins (Liver) -

A

Transport proteins for iron, lipids, lipid-soluble vitamins

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3
Q

• γ globulins (plasma cells) - immunoglobulins (Ig) =

A

antibodies,

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4
Q

IgGs

A

(most abundant antibodies)

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5
Q
  • Globulins _____%20-40 g/L
  • Clotting factors (2-4 g/L
  • Prothrombin and Fibrinogen
A

(38%):

5%):

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6
Q

Maintain osmotic pressure of blood

A

Globulin

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7
Q

Glucose fasting

A

70-100

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8
Q

Total Proteins

A

6-8

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9
Q

Cholesterol

A

<200

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10
Q

Triglycerides

A

<150

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11
Q

Most abundant cells and carry what

A

RBC

Carry O2 and CO2

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12
Q

PNM (Neutrophils)

A

Leukocytes most abound WBC

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13
Q

Eosipnophils

A

Reduce inflammation

attack PARYSITES

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14
Q

Basophils

A

Histamine and heparin

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15
Q

20-35 % of circulating leukocytes

A

Lymphocytes

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16
Q

Phagocytosis; antigen processing and presenting

A

Monocytes

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17
Q

Monocytes

A

Phagocytosis; antigen processing and presenting

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18
Q

Formed from Megakaryocytes, form platelet plug in hemostasis

A

Platelets

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19
Q

Are the most abundant cells of the blood (4.2-6.2 x 106/μL)
____in men; ____in women
• Are responsible for tissue oxygenation.

A

RBCs; 48; 42

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20
Q

RBCs have _______And ________

A

Have biconcavity and reversible deformity.

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21
Q

In RBCs, what is the purpose of biconcavity

A

provides a high surface to volume ratio for optimal gas diffusion.

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22
Q

Reversible deformity:

A

Enables the erythrocyte to assume a more compact torpedo-like shape,squeeze through the microcirculation, and return to normal.

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23
Q

Life cycle of RBCs

A

120-day life cycle.

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24
Q

No nucleus or mitochondria; cannot divide; constantly replenished erythropoiesis

A

RBCs

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25
Q

Blood Type determined by

A

surface glycoproteins.

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26
Q

oxygen-carrying protein

(

A

~300 million hemoglobin molecules/RBC)

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27
Q

Lymphoid hemopoiesis

A

Differential of proliferation of WBCs

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28
Q

Erythropoietin (EPO) – produced by______ – stim.s______________

A

kidneys; marrow to produce erythrocytes

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29
Q

• Thrombopoietin – produced byr – stim.s____________

A

live; marrow to produce platelets

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30
Q

• (“Leukopoietin”) Leukocyte promoting factors – produced by __________– stim.
differentiation & proliferation of leukocytes

A

neutrophils, T lymphocytes, Monocytes/Macrophages marrow & lymphoid tissue (production,

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31
Q

Reticulocyte count:

A

Index of erythropoietic activity
• Indicates whether new RBCs are being produced
• Normal range < 1.5%

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32
Q

Reticulocyte count means ______

A

means pathology

how many new RBC.

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33
Q

2.5 million RBC every

A

second

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34
Q

Iron reused in the

A

Synthesis of new hemoglobin

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35
Q

Iron plus

A

transferrin

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36
Q

Amino acids for

A

protein synthesis

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37
Q

Anemia:___________

• Low hematocrit indicates______

A

Low oxygen-carrying capacity of blood
Low RBC count/volume
anemia (< 38%)

38
Q

hematocrit -

A

percentage of total blood volume occupied by RBCs

39
Q
  • Normal female range =

* Normal male range =

A

38 - 46% (average 42%)

40 - 54% (average 46%)

40
Q

• Sickle Cell anemia -

A

genetic defect

41
Q

Aplastic anemia -

A

Kidney failure, bone marrow failure, chemotherapy, etc

42
Q

• Hemorrhagic anemia -caused

43
Q

• Hemolytic anemia –

A

RBC destruction

44
Q

Polycythemia: high hematocrit

45
Q

Surface of RBCs contain assortment of antigens
• ABO Blood Group (based on A and B antigens)
• Type A has only antigen A
• Type B has only antigen B
• Type AB has antigens A and B

A

(membrane glycoproteins)

46
Q

Surface of RBCs contain assortment of antigens

• ABO Blood Group (based on)

A

(membrane glycoproteins)

A and B antigens

47
Q

• Type O has

A

neither antigen

48
Q

• Most common blood types are

A

O+ (~38%) and A+ (34%)

49
Q

• Least common is

50
Q

Type A has only

51
Q

• Type B has only

52
Q

Type AB has

A

antigens A and B

53
Q

Universal receiver

54
Q

Universal donor blood type

Lack ________

A

O-

Lack RBC antigen

55
Q

HDN -

A

Hemolytic disease of the newborn (a.k.a. erythroblastosis fetalis) –

56
Q

People who lack RH antigen are

A

A-, B-, AB-, O-

57
Q

People who have Rh antigen

A

A+, B+, AB+

58
Q

Receivers/Donor blood is the problem

59
Q

Agglutination is when

A

antibodies combined with antigens on the RBC

60
Q

Produce histaminas

A

Reduce inflammation

61
Q

Granulocytes: Membrane-bound granules are in their cytoplasm.

A

• Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils

62
Q

Neutrophils (most numerous, 60 - 70%)

A

*****Serve as phagocytes in early inflammation
• Nucleus varies in shape (2-5 lobes).
• Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs).

63
Q

Reddish orange granules:

A

• cells take up reddish orange dye eosin

64
Q

Produce histaminase – reduce inflammation.

• Increase and attack parasitic infections.

A

Eosinophils

65
Q

Basophils 3 functions

A

Dark purple granules contain histamine & heparin.
• Increase at the sites of allergic inflammatory reactions and parasitic infection, particularly exoparasites (e.g., ticks).
• Secrete inflammatory mediators (e.g., histamine, chemotacticfactors for eosinophils and neutrophils).
• Contribute to the local inflammatory response.

66
Q

Basophils 3 functions

A

*****Dark purple granules contain histamine & heparin.
• Increase at the sites of allergic inflammatory reactions and parasitic infection, particularly exoparasites (e.g., ticks).
• Contribute to the local inflammatory response.

67
Q

MAST CELLS

A

CENTRAL CELLS IN INFLAMMATION

68
Q

SKIP LEUKOPOIESIS

A

2 SLIDES 43-45

69
Q

KNOW RETICULOCYTES

A

DON’T NEED TO KNOW STEPS

70
Q

Platelets

A

Are irregularly-shaped cytoplasmic fragments formed by
the fragmentation of MEGAKARYOCYTES (2000-3000 per cell).
• Thrombocytopenia - low platelets (tend to bleed)

71
Q

Platelets do not under go

72
Q

normal platelet

A

1400000 to 340,000
• Live for 8 to 10 days and then are removed by the spleen
and liver.

73
Q

• Plavix (clopidogrel) –

A

inhibits ADP-induced platelet aggregation

74
Q

• NSAIDS –

A

inhibits COX-1 production of thromboxane A2

75
Q

low platelet

A

Thrombocytopenia

76
Q

Hemostatis 3 stages

A

Vascular spasm –> Platelet plug –> Blood clot

77
Q

Prostacyclin

78
Q

Adhesion then activation

A

median by the binding of the platelet surface receptors glycoprotein-1b to von willdesbrand factor and collagen of the subendothelium.

79
Q

Activation

A

Degranulation
ADP
Serotonin
Thromboxane A2

80
Q

Clot retraction and resolution

A

Plasminogen to plasmin by tea dissolves fibrin (fibrinolysis)

81
Q

Fibrinolytic system

• Plasminogen and plasmin

A

• Plasmin degrades the clot.

82
Q

heparin

A
  • Increases activity of Antithrombin III
  • Inhibits Factor X
  • administered during hemodialysis and surgery
  • Often used to prevent clotting of blood when drawn for testing
83
Q

• warfarin (Coumadin)

•

A

antagonist to vitamin K so blocks synthesis of clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X)
• slower than heparin & can be given orally

84
Q

• warfarin (Coumadin)

A

antagonist to vitamin K so blocks synthesis of clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X)
• slower than heparin & can be given orally

85
Q

Prostacyclin

A

Cyclooxygenase 1 or PGI2 important for prostacyclin

86
Q

ADP

A

enhances platetlet aggregation

87
Q

Extrinsic pathway

A

VII and TF

88
Q

ADP

A

enhances platelet aggregation

89
Q

TFI

A

circulated in plasma low
inhibits factor Xa
Inhibit factor VII slows down cascade

90
Q

Activates C and S then inhibit

A

V and VIII

SRNAanatomy (25 decks)

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