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Pathology > Hematopathology > Flashcards

Hematopathology Flashcards

1
Q

anisocytosis

A

RBCs are of unequal size

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2
Q

poikilocytosis

A

abnormally shaped rbc/s in blood

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3
Q

How can erythroblasts be released from a fetus?

A

Erythroblastosis Fetalis/ Hemolytic Disease of Newborn:
If a mother lacks an antigen expressed by the fetus, maternal IgG alloantibodies can cross the placena causing complement-mediated hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes and release of erythroblasts.

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4
Q

What does idiopathic myelofibrosis feature?

A

Marrow collagen deposition (fibrosis)

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5
Q

In PV, describe characteristics of the spleen and BM

A

BM: hypercellular with hyperlasia of all elements
Spleen: slightly enlarged, cut surface is uniformly dark red, with expansion of the red pulp and obliteration of the white pulp

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6
Q

What is rearranged in irreversibly sickled cells?

A

Phospholipids between the outer and inner monolayers of the cell membrane

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7
Q

What leads to Renal Papillary Necrosis in SCD patients?

A

low oxygen, low pH, high osmolality in the renal medulla

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8
Q

Ananthocytosis

A

aka Spur cells
formed from a defect within the lipid bilayer of the red cell membrane and feautres spiny projections of the surface with centrally dense cytoplasms which may be associated with hemolysis.

Can be caused by increased free cholesterol

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9
Q

What is common presentation of MDS?

A

Anemia, Neutropenia, Thrombocytopenia

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10
Q

Differential for ringed sideroblasts

A
  • Sideroblastic Anemia

- Myelodysplastic Syndrome

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11
Q

What are some risk factors for MDS?

A 
Chemotherapy
Radiotion The rap y
Viruses
Benzene Expsoure
Cigarrette Smoking
Fanconi Anemia
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12
Q

Clinical symptom of petechiae is related to what lab finding?

A

thrombocytopenia

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13
Q

What are some causes of injury to bone marrow stem cells?

A

Idiopathic (2/3)
Toxic (ex. benzene)
Immunologic
Hereditary (Fanconi Sndrome)

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14
Q

Schilling test

A

Vitamin B12 absorption

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15
Q

which protein is encoded by brc/abl of CML? Childhood ALL?

A

Fusion protein p210; Fusion protei P190

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16
Q

What is Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia

A

Neoplasm of small lymphocytes nad a variable number of IgM-secreting plamsa cells of the same malignant clone (M spike characteristic)

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17
Q

A leukemic blast that tests positive for TdT implies lymphiod or myeloid lineage?

A

lymphoid lineage

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18
Q

Prefibrotic Stage of Myelofibrosis

A

Bone marrow is hypercellular , with predominant neutrophilic and megakaryocytic proliferation

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19
Q

Fibrotic Stage of Myelofibrosis

A

PBS shows either leukopenia or leukocytosis, and myeloid precursors and nucleated RBCs are usually present. Defined by conspicuous reticulin or collage n fibrosis

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20
Q

What does hyperplasia of the secondary follicles, germinal centers, and plasmacytosis of the medullary cords indicate?

A

B-lymphocyte immunoreactivity

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21
Q

Where is interfollicular of diffuse hyper plasia ?

A

Hyperplasia of the deep cortex or paracortex

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22
Q

What’s a starry sky macrophage?

A

appearance of the cellular deris of apoptotic tumor cells cleared by macrophages

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23
Q

What skin pathology can be seen in LCH?

A

Seborrheic or eczematoid dermatitis

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24
Q

What clinical finding of the ear is associated with LCH?

A

Otitis Media

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25
Q

What gene arrangement is often seen in follicular lymphoma?

A

bcl2

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26
Q

How do cold aggulitinins normally develop?

A

They are idiopathic or secondary to infections (such as EBV) or lymphoproliferative disorders.

27
Q

immunoglobins warm and cold

A

IgG or Ig M respectively

28
Q

What organ systems are affected by TTP?

A

Renal Impairment and Neurological Symptoms

29
Q

Hallmark of TTP

A

Deposition of PAS positive hyaline microthrombi (composed of platelet aggregates, fibrin, and a few RBCs and luekocytes) in arterioles and capillaries

30
Q

Where do Hemophilia A patients tend to bleed?

A

Joints, muscles, internal organs

31
Q

What tests can help diagnose PNH?

A 
Sucrose Hemolysis Test
Ham Test (acidified serum) 
Flow Cytometry (Loss of GPI-anchored proeins on blood cells b)

Genetic Mutations (somatic mustation of phosphatidylinositol glycan-class A- PIG-A)

32
Q

How does leukocytosis develop in CML?

A

neoplastic cells in CML are derived from an abnormal pluripotent bone marrow stem cell which results in prominent neutrophilic leukocytosis over the full range of myeloid maturation

33
Q

what neutrophil count indicates neutrophilia?

A

above 7000

34
Q

What indicates a benign Leukomoid Reaction over a CML rxn?

A
  1. cells in PBS are more mature than myelocytes
  2. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity is high
  3. Large blue cytoplasmic inclusions known as “Dohle Bodies” or toxic granulation is present.
35
Q

What epithelial cell disease is associated with Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Thymoma (Epithelial cells of the thymus)

36
Q

PTLD is associated with what disease?

A

EBV INFECTOIN

37
Q

What is a Russel Body?

A

plasmacytoid lymphocytes that have stored immunoglobulins in the cytoplasm.

38
Q

In Polycythemia Vera, what could lead to pruritis and peptic ulceration?

A

Histamine release from basophils

39
Q

PV can burn out, blast out, and develops into what 3 diseases?

A

Myelofibrosis, AML, OR CML

40
Q

What are some causes of splenic enlargement?

A

Amyloid Deposition
Congestive Splenomegaly (from Portal HTN or Cirrhosis)
Storage Diseases (such as Gaucher Disease)/Metabolism Disease (Galactosemia)
Myeloproliferative Disorders
AML
T-cell hyperplasia in the PALS (seen in IM)

41
Q

What do Auer rods consist of?

A

Condensations of azurophilic granules

42
Q

What does a Dohle body consist of?

A

Patches of Dilated Endoplasmic Reticulum

43
Q

What is a toxic granulation?

A

Course and dark primary granules that are reactive changes in mature neutrophils most indicative of marked inflammation, such as bacterial sepsis.

44
Q

What does a Heinz body consists of?

A

precipitates of denatured globin as seen in G6PD deficiency

45
Q

What cytogenetic and molecular analysis is expected in CLL?

A

In this Clonal B-cell neoplasm , there is a rearrangement of immunoglobulin genes and T-cell receptor genes are in germline configuration

46
Q

What lymphocyte is elevated in SLE?

A

Monocytes (Monocytosis)

47
Q

Infection from what organism results in lymphadenopathy with microscopic stellate necrosis?

A

R. henselae (in Cat-Scratch Disease)

48
Q

Infection from what organism results in acute lymphadenopathy with microscopic hemorrhagic necrosis?

A

Y. Pestis (causes Plague)

49
Q

What is the effect of AML on the spleen? CML?

A

AML: enlargement of the spleen (with uniform infiltration of the parenchyma- no focal lesions)
CML: enlargement of the spleen ( with risk of splenic infarcts)

50
Q

Describe the appearance of a lymph node draining from a coancer that shows a reactive pattern

A

Dilated Sinusoids with endothelial hypertrophy
Filled with histocytes (ex. macrophages)

(Sinus histocytosis represents an immunolgic response to cancer antigens)

51
Q

CD 68

A

MACROPHAGE (HISTIOCYTE )MARKER`

52
Q

CD 11c

A

MONOCYTE marker

53
Q

Describe a Hairy Cell

A

leukocyte with reniform nuclei and pale blue cytoplasm with threadlike extensions. Leukemic hairy cells are B cells

54
Q

CD 3- CD56+

A

NK cells

55
Q

CD19+, SiG+

A

Mature B cells

56
Q

CD33+ CD13+

A

monocytes/granulocytes

57
Q

NOTCH 1 gene is associated with what lymphocyte?

A

T cell. It encodes for a transmembrane receptor required for T cell development. more than half of pre-T cell tumors have activating point mutations.

58
Q

Nodular sclerosis type HL is more common in what patient population?

A

women

59
Q

Anaplastic Large-cell Lymphoma is most often characterized by what gene arrangement?

A

Gene arrangement on chromosome 2p23 that results in production of anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) with tyrosine kinase activity.

60
Q

the c-KIT protooncogene has been associated with which NK cell lymphomas?

A

NK cell lymphomas

61
Q

RS of HL have what gene rearrangement and what cell oirgin?

A

RS cells contain the EBV genome and are derived from B cells. All RS cells have clonal (identical) immunoglobulin gene rearrangements.

62
Q

In Cat Scratch Disease, where is lymphadenitis often seen?

A

“Upstream” of lymphatic drainage from the site of injury, so that the axillary and cervical lymph nodes are most often involved

63
Q

deletions of 5q is often seen in what syndrome?

A

myelodysplastic syndromes

Pathology (30 decks)

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