haematology Flashcards

1
Q

management of sickle cell anaemia

A

hydroxycarbamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what kind of anaemia can phenytoin cause

A

aplastic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what transfusion has the highest risk of bacterial contamination

A

platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

investigation for definitive diagnosis of sickle cell disease

A

Hb electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is most common inherited thrombophilia

A

factor V leiden

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is factor V leiden

A

activated C protein resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

lifespan of a platelet

A

7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

lifespan of a RBC

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

if someone has heavy periods what is most likely causing their anaemia

A

iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

if Ann Arbor staging IIIB what does the B stand for

A

that they are experiencing B symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the inheritance pattern of congenital sideroblastic anaemia

A

X linked recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

virus making you more susceptible to Burkitt lymphoma

A

Epstein Barr virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what haemoglobin genes in milk sickle cells

A

Hb SC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is maximum dose of rivaroxaban

A

20mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

someone on maximum dose of DOAC and gets another DVT what is treatment

A

warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

nucleated red cells, left shift and basophilic vacuolated lymphoma cells
is what

A

Burkitt lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

starry sky appearance on bone marrow biopsy

A

burkitt lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

lymphocyte count in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

A

raised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

platelet count in chronic myeloid leukaemia

A

raised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is thrombocytosis

A

raised platelet count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

BP in transfusion related acute lung injury

A

hypotensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

BP in transfusion associated circulatory overload

A

hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what lymph node is ovarian cancer most likely to spread to

A

para aortic lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how long is treatment for a provoked DVT e.g. recent surgery

A

3 months

25
Q

how long is treatment for an unprovoked DVT

A

6 months

26
Q

what is the transfusion threshold

A

70 g/L

27
Q

treatment for post thrombotic syndrome

A

compression stockings

28
Q

what autoimmune haemolytic anaemia is associated with CLL

A

warm

29
Q

what is cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia associated with

A
  • lymphoma
  • mycoplasma
  • EBV
30
Q

what is most common type of Hodgkins lymphoma

A

nodular sclerosing

31
Q

reticulocyte count in aplastic crisis

A

reduced

32
Q

reticulocyte in sequestrian crisis

A

increased

33
Q

what is caused by JAK2 mutation

A

polycythaemia vera

34
Q

itching worse with heat, peptic ulcer, headache

A

polycythaemia vera

35
Q

management of polycythaemia vera

A

hydroxycobalamin
aspirin

36
Q

what leukaemia has increased bands

A

CML

37
Q

most common cause of neutropenic sepsis

A

staph epidermidis

38
Q

is symmetrical lymphadenopathy more likely to be Hodgkins or non-hodgkins

A

non Hodgkins

39
Q

investigation to confirm diagnosis of multiple myeloma

A

serum protein electrophoresis - M protein

40
Q

painful lymphadenopathy when drinking alcohol is typical of

A

Hodgkins lymphoma

41
Q

turners syndrome is associated with

A

haemophilia A

42
Q

reticulocyte count is

A

percentage of total number of red blood cells in your blood

43
Q

high reticulocyte count

A

anaemia due to RBC being destroyed
bleeding
blood disorder
tumour

44
Q

what cells are seen in coeliac disease

A

target cells
Howell jolly bodies

45
Q

what can myelodysplasia progress to

A

acute myeloid leukaemia

46
Q

tear drop poikilocytes suggest

A

myelofibrosis

47
Q

low IgA transfusion related complication

A

anaphylactic reaction

48
Q

management of von willebrand disease

A

desmopressin

49
Q

use of nitrous oxide is known to deplete what

A

B12 reserves

50
Q

investigation for myelofibrosis

A

dry tap on bone marrow aspiration

51
Q

investigations for tumour lysis syndrome

A

ECG
U&E - potassium and phosphate raised
calcium - low
uric acid - low

52
Q

blood transfusion patient presenting with fever, hypotension and anxiety is likely to be

A

acute haemolytic transfusion reaction

53
Q

what is most concerning sign in transfusion reaction

A

hypotension
- indicates anaphylaxis and TRALI

54
Q

when do you give vit K if patient on warfarin

A

when their INR >8

55
Q

what cells seen on blood film in patient with CKD

A

burr cells

56
Q

what leukaemia causes massive splenomegaly

A

CML

57
Q

what cells in CLL

A

smudge cells

58
Q

who are most likely to get thalassaemia

A

those of mediterranean origin

59
Q

complication of CLL

A

diffuse large B cell lymphoma - Richter transformation