GP Handbook Flashcards

1
Q

In the context of preventative health, what is SNAP?

A

Smoking, nutrition, alcohol and physical activity

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2
Q

Describe the tactics you might employ to help a person quit smoking

A
  • Quit plan
  • Quit date
  • Reasons to quit
  • Trigger avoidance (places, people, circumstances)
  • Distract, discuss, delay, drink water, deep breaths
  • Diet
  • Medication (nicotine replacement therapy > 8/52, champix/varenicline [blocks partial nicotinic agonist, care in renal failure], bupropion [CI - seizures, SSRIs, pregnancy])
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3
Q

What are the guidelines for regular physical activity in adults?

A
  • 2.5 hours mod-intensity per week (brisk walk) OR
  • 1.5 hours high-intensity per week (run)
  • More for children
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4
Q

How often should adults have their lipid levels monitored?

A
  • 5-yearly
  • 2-yearly if >45 and moderate CVS risk
  • 1-yearly if high risk
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5
Q

Which patients fit into the category 1 (low risk) group for bowel cancer screening. How should they be managed?

A
  • No personal or family history of bowel cancer OR
  • One FDR/SDR > 55 with bowel cancer
  • FOBT 2-yearly from 50
  • Flexible sigmoidoscopy 5-yearly
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6
Q

Which patients fit into the category 2 (medium risk) group for bowel cancer screening. How should they be managed?

A
  • One FDR
  • Two FDR or an FDR + SDR with bowel cancer at any age
  • Colonoscopy 5-yearly from 50 or 10 years earlier than familial diagnosis
    • Flexible sigmoidoscopy + barium enema/CT colonography if above contraindicated
  • FOBT in intervening years
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7
Q

Which patients fit into the category 3 (very high risk) group for bowel cancer screening? How should they be managed?

A
  • Three or more FDRs or FDR/SDRs on the same side of the family with bowel cancer
  • Two or more FDR/SDRs on the same side of the family with any:
    • Multiple bowel cancers in the one person
    • Bowel cancer before 50 y/o
    • HNPCC-related cancers - endometrial/ovarian/stomach/SI/renal/biliary/brain
  • One FDR/SDR with multiple adenomas (?FAP)
  • Genetic mutation with high susceptibility in family member
  • Referral to genetic counsellor
  • FAP
    • Flexible sigmoidoscopy yearly/2-yearly from 12-15 until polyposis, then prophylactic surgery
  • HNPCC
    • Colonoscopy 2-yearly from 25 or 5y earlier than familial diagnosis
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8
Q

How often should the asymptomatic population be screened for diabetes?

A
  • 3-yearly over 40 (fasting BGLs)
  • OGTT if borderline
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9
Q

How often should the asymptomatic female population undergo mammography? At what age?

A
  • 2-yearly from 50-74
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10
Q

Describe the symptoms of depression using an acronym

A
  • S - sleep problems
  • A - appetite or weight change
  • D - dysphoria or bad mood
  • F - fatigue
  • A - agitation/psychomotor retardation
  • C - concentration problems
  • E - esteem problems
  • S - suicidal thoughts
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11
Q

What are the criteria for anorexia nervosa?

A
  • Weight < 85% predicted for height gender and ethnicity OR BMI < 17.5
  • Fear of weight gain even when underweight - dieting, vomiting or excessive exercise
  • Feeling fat when objectively thin
  • Amenorrhoea (except OCP)
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12
Q

What are the criteria for bulimia nervosa?

A
  • Regular binge eating episodes
  • Preoccupation with weight
  • Regular actions to offset binges - starvation, vomiting, laxatives, excessive exercise
  • Weight in normal or overweight range
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13
Q

What are the criteria for diagnosis of schizophrenia?

A
  • 2+ of for a significant portion of 1 month
    • delusions
    • hallucinations
    • disorganised speech
    • disorganised behaviour or catatonia
    • negative symptoms
  • Socio-occupational dysfunction
  • Continuous disturbance for 6+ months
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14
Q

What are the likely side-effects of first-gen antipsychotics?

A
  • Extrapyramidal movement disorders
    • Dystonia, akathisia, parkisonism, tardive dyskinesia
  • Anticholinergic effects
  • Hyperprolactinaemia
  • Hyperglycaemia
  • Sedation
  • Weight gain
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15
Q

What preventative and screening measures should be undertaken with patients on second-gen antipsychotics?

A
  • Metabolic syndrome more likely
    • Diet and exercise advice
    • BMI
    • BP
    • BGL
    • Lipids
    • Medication review
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16
Q

Describe a basic risk assessment of a patient thought to be at risk of violence

A
  • Risk of harm to self/others: thoughts/plans/means/EtOH
  • Level of problem with functioning: socio-occupational
  • Level of support available
  • History of treatment response:
  • Attitude to and engagement with treatment
17
Q

When can lactational amenorrhoea be suitable as a contraceptive measure?

A
  • Up to 6 months post-partum if 100% breastfeeding
18
Q

When can medical termination of pregnancy be performed? Surgical?

A
  • Medical <9/40
  • Surgical vacuum aspiration <12/40
  • Surgical dilation and curettage >12/40
19
Q

What are the absolute contraindications to the combined oral contraceptive pill?

A
  • Hyperthrombotic states
    • Pregnancy
    • <2 weeks post-partum
    • Acute liver disease
    • Polycythaemia
    • Hx of thromboembolic disease or thrombophilia
  • Cerebrovascular disease, coronary artery disease
  • Focal migraines with aura
  • Previous oestrogen dependent tumour
20
Q

What are the relative contraindications to use of the combined oral contraceptive pill?

A
  • CV risk factors
    • Hypertension
    • High BMI
    • Smoking
    • Diabetes
    • Age > 35 and CVD risk factors
  • Thrombotic states
    • Long term immobilisation
    • Liver disease
    • 4 weeks pre and 2 weeks post-surgery
21
Q

What are the absolute contraindications to use of an IUD?

A
  • Pregnancy
  • Previous ectopic pregnancy
  • Active PID
  • Undiagnosed uterine bleeding
22
Q

What are the relative contraindications to use of an IUD?

A
  • Anaemia
  • Immunocompromise (PID risk)
  • Impaired clotting mechanisms
  • Valvular heart disease
  • Very large or very small uterus
23
Q

Describe the principles of a first antenatal visit in GP

A
  • Confirm pregnancy
  • Consider dating scan
  • Screening tests
    • FBE
    • Group and antibodies
    • Rubella, HBV/HCV, HIV, syphilis
    • Pap smear
    • Urine MCS
  • General advice: diet, smoking/EtOH, exercise, weight
24
Q

What should a routine post-natal check involve?

A
  • History
    • General health
    • Bonding of baby and mother, family. Coping?
    • Screen for postnatal depression (K10)
    • Breast or bottle feeding
    • Contraception, menstruation and sex
    • Double check rubella status
    • Continence
  • Examination
    • Mother - BP, breast (if pain), CS wound, pelvic examination, Pap test (if due)
    • Baby - full check as for neonate
25
Q

Describe a systematic baby check

A
  • History: med/obs, mode of birth, ?resuscitation, medications, feeding, urine/faeces output
  • Examination
    • General: colour, rashes, alertness, posture, activity, tone
    • Growth” charts
    • Head/face/neck: shape, size, fontanelles, sutures, red reflex, palate, nose and ear position/size
    • Clavicles/arm/hands: length, proportion, symmetry, digits
    • Chest: shape, symmetry, heart sounds/rate, pulses, RR
    • Abdo: size, shape, umbilical appearance, HSmegaly
    • GU: genitalia, testes, anal patency
    • Hips/legs/feet: Ortolani/Barlow, symmetry, digits
    • Back: spinal alignment
    • Neuro: posture, behaviour, tone, cry, reflexes
26
Q

What are some developmental red flags at 6-8 weeks?

A
  • Asymmetrical Moro
  • Head lag
  • No visual fixation/following
  • No startle or quieting to sound
  • No responsive smiling
27
Q

What are some red-flag developmental signs at 8 months?

A
  • Persistent primitive reflexes
  • Not weight bearing on legs
  • Not reaching out for toys
  • Not fixing on small objects
  • Not vocalising
28
Q

What are some red-flag developmental signs at 10 months?

A
  • Unable to sit unsupported
29
Q

What are some red-flag developmental signs at 1 year?

A
  • Showing a hand preference
  • Not responding to own name
30
Q

What are some red-flag developmental signs at 18 months?

A
  • Not walking
  • No pincer grip
31
Q

What are some red-flag developmental signs at 3 years?

A
  • Inaccurate use of spoon
  • Not speaking in sentences
  • Unable to understand simple commands
  • Not interacting with other children
32
Q

What immunisations should a child get at birth?

A

HepB

33
Q

What immunisations should a child get at 2, 4 and 6 months?

A
  • HepB
  • DTPa
  • HiB
  • IPV
  • Pneumococcal 13v
  • Rotavirus
34
Q

What immunisations should a child get at 12 months?

A
  • HiB
  • MMR
  • Menigococcus
35
Q

What immunisations should a child get at 18 months?

A
  • MMR
36
Q

What immunisations should a child get at 4 years?

A
  • DTP
  • IPV
37
Q

What immunisations should a child get at 10-15 years?

A
  • HepB
  • Varicella
  • HPV
  • DTP
38
Q
A