GI Flashcards

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1
Q

خونریزی فوقانی» آندوسکوپی»اروژن
درمان آندو؟
دارو؟
رژیم؟
بستری؟

A

.نمی‌خواد
.PPI یک‌بار در روز
. رگولار
.نمی‌خواد

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2
Q

خونریزی فوقانی» ‌آندوسکوپی» مالوری‌ویس» خون‌ریزی فعال ندارد
درمان آندو؟
دارو؟
رژیم؟
بستری؟

A

.نمی‌خواد
.ضد تهوع
.رگولار
.نمی‌خواد

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3
Q

خونریزی فوقانی» آندوسکوپی» مالوری‌ویس» خونریزی فعال
درمان آندو
دارو
رژیم
بستری

A

نیاز دارد
ضدتهوع
یک روز مایعات صاف شده
۱-۲ روز بستری

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4
Q

خون‌ریزی فوقانی» آندوسکوپی» واریس مری
درمان آندو
دارو
رژیم
بستری

A

آندوسکوپیک ligation
داروی وازواکتیو اکتروتاید ۵۰ میکروگرم داخب رگ بعد ۵۰ میکرو/ساعت ۲-۵ روز
مایعات صاف ۲ روز
۳-۵ روز بستری

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5
Q

خونریزی فوقانی» آندوسکوپی» زخم» قائده تمیز
درمان آندو؟
دارو؟
رژیم؟
بستری؟

A

نمی‌خواد
.PPI یک‌بار در روز
رگولار
نمی‌خواد

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6
Q

خون‌ریزی فوقانی» آندو» زخم» flat pigmentation
درمان آندو
دارو
رژیم
بستری

A

نمی‌خواد
. PPI یک بار در روز
مایعات صاف شده یک روز
بستری۱-۲ روز

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7
Q

خون‌ریزی فوقانی» آندو» زخم» لخته چسبیده به زخم
درمان آندو
دارو
رژیم
بستری

A

ممکن است بخواهد
‏. Intensive PPI اول ۸۰ میلی‌گرم بولوس بعد ۸ mg/hr سه روز، بعد ۴-۱۴ روز دوبار در روز بعد یک بار
۱-۲ روز مایعات صاف شده
۳ روز بستری

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8
Q

خون‌ریزی فوقانی» آندو» زخم» خون‌ریزی فعال یا رگ قابل رویت
درمان آندو
دارو
رژیم
بستری

A

حتما لازم است
‏. Intensive PPI اول ۸۰ میلی‌گرم بولوس بعد ۸ mg/hr سه روز، بعد ۴-۱۴ روز دوبار در روز بعد یک بار
۱-۲ روز مایعات صاف شده
۳ روز بستری

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9
Q

Wilson dis ttt

A

D penicillamin

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10
Q

Intussusception
highly confirm dx

A

Pass jelly bloody stool

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11
Q

Barret esophagus cause to which type of cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

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12
Q

Chronic retrosternal pain, cough, metalic taste in mounth DX?

A

GERD

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13
Q

Common type of cancer middle oesophagus

A

SCC

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14
Q

Amebic liver abcess ttt?

A

Metronidazol

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15
Q

Ecinococus liver abcess management

A

Drainage has been accomplished either surgically + Metronidazole

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16
Q

Pyloric stenosis ttt?

A

Surgery Pyloremyotomy
If baby have dehydration must be treated

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17
Q

Common cancer of distal oesophagus?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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18
Q

SI rapid fluid repalcement

A

Cerebral edema
abnormal movement and comatose

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19
Q

Dumping syndrome

A

is a group of symptoms, such as diarrhea, nausea, and feeling light-headed or tired after a meal, that are caused by rapid gastric emptying. Rapid gastric emptying is a condition in which food moves too quickly from your stomach to your duodenum.

Feeling bloated or too full after eating.
Nausea.
Vomiting.
Abdominal cramps.
Diarrhea.
Flushing.
Dizziness, lightheadedness.
Rapid heart rate.

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20
Q

Reduce risk of colorectal cancer

A

Folic acid

21
Q

HBV Ag

A

HBs Ag / HBe Ag
Anti HBc
Anti HBs / Anti HBe

Anti HBc & Anti HBe (window period)

22
Q

Pancreatitis symp

A

Seek care right away for the following symptoms of severe pancreatitis:
pain or tenderness in the abdomen that is severe or becomes worse, radiatr to the back
nausea and vomiting.
fever or chills.
fast heartbeat.
shortness of breath.
yellowish color of the skin or whites of the eyes, called jaundice.

23
Q

Cholecytitis symp

A

Symptoms of cholecystitis
RUQ pain radiate to Rt. shoulder
a high temperature (fever)
feeling sick.
being sick.
sweating.
loss of appetite, vomiting, nausea
yellowing of the skin and the whites of the eyes (jaundice)
a bulge in the tummy.
rebound tenderness

24
Q

Cholecytitis invest

A

Sonography

25
Q

Pancreatitis invest

A

Lab serum amylase and lipase

26
Q

small bowel barium follow through

A

Small bowel follow-through uses a form of real-time x-ray called fluoroscopy and a barium-based contrast material to produce images of the small intestine. It is safe, noninvasive and may be used to help accurately diagnose bowel disease, obstructions, polyps, cancer and other symptoms.

27
Q

CT abdomen multi masses in liver with peripheral blood eosinophilia dx?

A

Hydatid disease

28
Q

PBC

A

Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is an autoimmune disease of the liver. It results from a slow, progressive destruction of the small bile ducts of the liver, causing bile and other toxins to build up in the liver, a condition called cholestasis.

29
Q

Best invest diverticulitis

A

CT abdomen and pelvis

30
Q

What is the best imaging for appendicitis?

A

Contrast-enhanced, thin-section (0.5 mm) CT scanning has become the preferred imaging technique in the diagnosis of acute appendicitis and its complications, with a high diagnostic accuracy of 95-98%

31
Q

most common complication of acute pancreatitis

A

The most common complication of acute pancreatitis (occurring in approximately 25% of patients, especially those with alcoholic chronic pancreatitis) is the collection of pancreatic juices outside of the normal boundaries of the ductal system called pseudocysts. Most pseudocysts resolve spontaneously

32
Q

Liver abscess aspirate Macro

A

is usually an odorless thick yellow-brown liquid classically referred to as “anchovy paste.” This liquid lacks white blood cells (WBCs) as a result of lysis by the parasite. Amebae are visualized in the abscess fluid in a minority of patients with amebic liver abscess

33
Q

Amebic liver abscess

A

Amebic liver abscess is caused by Entamoeba histolytica. This parasite causes amebiasis, an intestinal infection that is also called amebic dysentery. After an infection has occurred, the parasite may be carried by the bloodstream from the intestines to the liver

34
Q

Colon arteries

A

(1) ileocolic
Superior
Mesenteric (2) right colic

                   (3) middle colic
                    |
                    | arc of Riolan
                    |
                   (4) left colic

Inferior
Mesenteric (5) sigmoid

                   (6) superior rectal
35
Q

Types of hepatitis B vaccine?

A

HepB vaccines are available as HepB-only formulations; two of them are also available in combination with other vaccines. Heplisav-B (Dynavax) and PreHevbrio are both approved only for people 18 years of age and older

The hepatitis B vaccine is given as a series of three shots. The first dose is given within 24 hours of birth. The second dose is given one to two months after the first dose, and the third dose is given between 6 months and 18 months of age.

36
Q

Colon cancer screening age

A

Regular screening, beginning at age 45, is the key to preventing colorectal cancer and finding it early. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (Task Force) recommends that adults age 45 to 75 be screened for colorectal cancer. The Task Force recommends that adults age 76 to 85 talk to their doctor about screening.

The doctor checks for polyps or cancer inside the rectum and lower third of the colon. How often: Every 5 years, or every 10 years with a FIT every year

37
Q

Which of the following investigations is the best for pyloric stenosis?

A

Ultrasound to view the pylorus and confirm a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. X-rays of your baby’s digestive system, if results of the ultrasound aren’t clear

38
Q

Budd-Chiari syndrome?

A

is a condition in which the hepatic veins (veins that drain the liver) are blocked or narrowed by a clot (mass of blood cells). This blockage causes blood to back up into the liver, and as a result, the liver grows larger

Primary myeloproliferative diseases are the leading cause of the disease. Two of the hepatic veins must be blocked for clinically evident disease. Liver congestion and hypoxic damage of hepatocytes eventually

Budd-Chiari syndrome (BCS) is a rare vascular disorder characterized by an obstruction of the hepatic venous outflow. Nodular regenerative hyperplasia (NRH) may develop as a result of an underlying autoimmune disease such as hepatic sarcoidosis

Portal vein thrombosis (PVT) and Budd-Chiari syndrome (BCS) are caused by thrombosis and/or obstruction of the extrahepatic portal veins and the hepatic venous outflow tract, respectively. Several divergent prothrombotic disorders may underlie these distinct forms of large vessel thrombosis.

39
Q

Schistosoma haematobium ???

A

Schistosoma haematobium is a species of digenetic trematode, belonging to a group of blood flukes. It is found in Africa and the Middle East. It is the major agent of schistosomiasis, the most prevalent parasitic infection in humans

It is the only blood fluke that infects the urinary tract, causing urinary schistosomiasis, and is the leading cause of bladder cancer (only next to tobacco smoking).

an itchy, red, blotchy and raised rash.
a cough.
diarrhoea.
muscle and joint pain.
tummy pain.
a general sense of feeling unwell

40
Q

Follow up after treatment for colorectal cancer (colectomy)?

A

Follow-up visits for colorectal cancer are usually scheduled every 3 to 6 months for the first 3 years and then every 6 months for the next 2 years. People treated for early stage cancer may be seen less often

41
Q

What part of the bowel does celiac disease affect?

A

When you have celiac disease and you eat foods with gluten, your body has a reaction that is not normal. The part of your body that fights disease (the immune system) starts to hurt your small intestine. It attacks the tiny bumps (villi) that line your small intestine.

Celiac disease is an inherited autoimmune disorder that affects the digestive process of the small intestine. The small intestine is connected to the stomach; the first parts of the small intestine— the duodenum and the jejunum—are where celiac disease is commonly found.

42
Q

what drugs make gerd worse

A

Antibiotics, such as tetracycline and clindamycin.
Bisphosphonates taken orally, such as alendronate (Fosamax), ibandronate (Boniva) and risedronate (Actonel, Atelvia)
Iron supplements.
Quinidine.
Pain relievers, such as ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin IB, others) and aspirin.
Potassium supplements.

43
Q

Hydatic cyst

A

Hydatid cysts are most commonly found in the liver and lungs, although they may also occur in other organs, bones and muscles. The cysts can increase in size to 5 – 10 cm or more and may survive for decades. Non-specific signs include loss of appetite, weight loss and weakness

Cystic echinocccosis (CE), also known as hydatid disease, is caused by infection with the larval stage of Echinococcus granulosus, a ~2–7 millimeter long tapeworm found in dogs (definitive host) and sheep, cattle, goats, and pigs (intermediate hosts).

44
Q

Hydatic cyst ttt

A

Percutaneous drainage with albendazole therapy is a safe and effective alternative treatment for hydatid cysts of the liver. Radical surgery with pre- and post-operative administration of albendazole is the best treatment option for liver hydatid cysts due to low recurrence and complication rates.

45
Q

Meckel’s diverticulum

A

Meckel’s diverticulum is an outpouching or bulge in the lower part of the small intestine. The bulge is congenital (present at birth) and is a leftover of the umbilical cord. Meckel’s diverticulum is the most common congenital defect of the gastrointestinal tract. It occurs in about 2% to 3% of the general population

46
Q

ALT

A

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is an enzyme found primarily in the liver and kidney. It was originally referred to as serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT). Normally, a low level of ALT exists in the serum. ALT is increased with liver damage and is used to screen for and/or monitor liver disease

High levels of ALT may indicate liver damage from hepatitis, infection, cirrhosis, liver cancer, or other liver diseases. Other factors, including medicines, can affect your results. Be sure to tell your health care provider about all the prescription and over-the counter medicines you are taking

The normal range is 4 to 36 U/L. Normal value ranges may vary slightly among different laboratories.

47
Q

Liver zones

A

Functionally, the liver can be divided into three zones, based upon oxygen supply. Zone 1 encircles the portal tracts where the oxygenated blood from hepatic arteries enters. Zone 3 is located around central veins, where oxygenation is poor. Zone 2 is located in between

48
Q

Where pancreas leaks enzymes?

A

Omentum bursa

49
Q

What gene causes adenomatous polyposis coli?

A

Overview. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is a rare, inherited condition caused by a defect in the adenomatous polyposis coli (APC) gene. Most people inherit the gene from a parent. But for 25 to 30 percent of people, the genetic mutation occurs spontaneously.
TP53 suppressor gene