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genitourinary diseases Flashcards

1
Q

most common malformation of the penis includes abnormal location of the _____

A

distal urethral orifice

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2
Q

opening along the ventral aspect of the penis; can be constricted, resulting in increased risk for urinary tract infections

A

hypospadias

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3
Q

less common, opening on dorsal aspect of penis; UT obstruction/UT infections and urinary incontinence

A

epispadias

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4
Q

premalignant lesions of the penis appear as _____, _____, or ____

A

white plaque-like thickenings; areas of redness; a mixture

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5
Q

histologically, premalignant lesions may reveal any level of _____, including _____

A

epithelial dysplasia; carcinoma in situ

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6
Q

____ is a synonym for carcinoma in situ of the penis

A

bowen disease

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7
Q

most common penile neoplasms

A

squamous cell carcinoma and its precursor lesions

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8
Q

_____ may be involved with development of penile cancer

A

human papillomavirus (HPV 16/18)

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9
Q

first human cancer associated with occupational (environmental) factors (chimney sweeps)

A

SCC of the scrotum

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10
Q

failure of testicular descent from the abdomen to the scrotum; present in 1% of the male population; may be unilateral or bilateral

A

cryptorchidism

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11
Q

failure of descent associated with 3-5x increased risk of testicular malignancy manifesting as _____ developing within the atrophic tubules; unilateral or bilateral may also lead to _____

A

intratubular germ cell neoplasia; sterility

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12
Q

surgical placement of the testes into the scrotum

A

orchiopexy

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13
Q

inflammation of the testes

A

orchitis

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14
Q

occurs when the spermatic cord (from which the testicle is suspended) twists, resulting in obstruction of venous drainage while leaving the thick-walled, more resilient arteries patent

A

torsion

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15
Q

testicular torsion is one of the few _____

A

urologic emergencies

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16
Q

failure of normal posterior anchoring of the gubernaculum, epididymis, and testis

A

bell clapper deformity

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17
Q

most common causes of firm, painless enlargement of the testis

A

tumors of the testis (testicular neoplasms)

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18
Q

95% of testicular neoplasms arise from the ____ and are almost all malignant; 5% arise from _____ and are generally benign

A

germ cells; sertoli or leydig cells (sex cord-stromal tumors)

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19
Q

two markers in diagnosis, staging and follow-up for testicular cancers

A

alpha-fetoprotein and human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

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20
Q

seminomas arise from the _____ and remain localized for long periods; one of the most curable cancers)

A

epithelium of the seminiferous tubules

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21
Q

minority of cases associated with UTI infection (often E.coli); can be acute or chronic

A

bacterial prostatitis

22
Q

90-95% of cases of prostatitis; also known as chronic pelvic pain syndrome; unknown etiology; no response to antibiotics

A

chronic nonbacterial prostatitis

23
Q

hyperplastic enlargement of the prostate, often associated with urinary symptoms

A

nodular hyperplasia of the prostate (benign prostatic hyperplasia)

24
Q

the central portions of the gland adjacent to the urethra (called the ______) are involved most frequently

A

inner periurethral zone

25
Q

nodular hyperplasia etiology is unknown, but is thought that a _____ appears to have a central role in its development

A

local increase in androgens

26
Q

most common cancer of men over 50 years of age, with peak prevalence between 65-75

A

carcinoma of the prostate

27
Q

_____ is the most common form of hematogenous spread of carcinoma of the prostate and the metastases may be ____ but are more commonly _____

A

osseous metastasis; radiolucent; radiopaque

28
Q

both incipient and clinically evident carcinomas of the prostate begin in the _____

A

outer (peripheral) zones of the posterior lobe of the prostate

29
Q

useful in diagnosis/management of prostate cancer but serum elevation may be due to non-neoplastic conditions

A

prostate specific antigen (PSA)

30
Q

most common neoplasm of the bladder (90%)

A

urothelial cell carcinoma

31
Q

dominant presenting manifestation of bladder cancer

A

painless hematuria

32
Q

reasonable method of detection for bladder cancer

A

cytology (because tumor cells are shed into the urine)

33
Q

syphilis caused by:

A

treponema pallidum (spirochete)

34
Q

two types of syphilis antibodies

A

nonspecific antibody- syphilitic reagin

specific antibody- treponemal antibody

35
Q

histopathologic hallmark of syphilis:

A

lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate associated with obliterative endarteritis, a specific type of vasculitis

36
Q

characteristics of primary syphilis

A

development of painless ulcer (chancre) at site of entry 9-90 days (mean 21 days) after initial infection

37
Q

if untreated, about ____ of patients with primary syphilis develop secondary disease

A

25%

38
Q

characteristics of secondary syphilis

A

generalized lymphadenopathy, maculopapular rash, condyloma lata (elevated large broad plaques), mucous patches

39
Q

characteristics of tertiary syphilis - complications divided into 3 categories

A

aortitis- cardiovascular syphilis (80%)
neurosyphilis (10%)- involvement of the brain, meninges, and spinal cord
gummas- focal granulomatous lesions in mucocutaneous tissue and bone

40
Q

3 patterns of congenital syphilis

A

stillbirth
infantile syphilis
late congenital syphilis

41
Q

hutchinson’s triad (historically famous pattern of congenital syphilis)

A
  1. Hutchinson’s teeth (notched incisors/mulberry molars)
  2. interstitial keratitis (corneal)
  3. eighth CN deafness
42
Q

gonorrhea is caused by:

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a gram negative diplococcus

43
Q

untreated gonorrhea can lead to ____ in both sexes

A

sterility

44
Q

ascending infection of gonorrhea in males results in:

A

acute prostatitis, epididymitis, or orchitis

45
Q

ascending infection of gonorrhea in females results in:

A

acute salpingitis and then pelvic inflammatory disease

46
Q

infant blindness from gonococcal contamination at birth

A

gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum

47
Q

most common forms of STDs reportable to CDC; majority caused by chlamydia trachomatis

A

nongonococcal urethritis and cervicitis

48
Q

significant manifestation of chlamydial infection; immune mediated process that develops in response to GU or GI infections and predominates in patients who are HLA-B27 positive

A

reactive arthritis (Reiter syndrome)

49
Q

approx ___ of infants affected with HSV die of the infection

A

60%

50
Q

in genital HSV, exfoliative cytology or biopsy show _____ (ballooning degeneration of epithelial cells with large, multinucleate _____)

A

viral cytopathic effect; Tzanck cells

51
Q

usually associated with HPV types 6 or 11 and typically arises on moist mucocutaneous surfaces; present as benign papillary nodules, frequently appear in clusters

A

condyloma acuminatum (venereal warts)

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