Genetics 10 - Cancer & Genomic Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Nature of most cases of cancer

A

Sporadic

< 10% of all tumours result from a familial disposition

Still a GENETIC disease

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2
Q

Cancer

A

General term for all malignant neoplasms

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3
Q

Malignant

A

when it grows independently of control mechanisms, being capable of transcending tissue boundaries, growing invasively, and metastasizing

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4
Q

Basal cell carcinoma

A

Very low metastatic potential and may grow and filtrate surrounding tissue without metastasizing for many years

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5
Q

Carcinomas

A

develop from epithelial tissue (e.g., skin, intestinal epithelium, bronchial epithelium, and the epithelium of the glandular ducts such as the mammary glands or pancreas)

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6
Q

Sarcomas

A

originate from mesenchymal tissue (e.g., connective tissue, bones, muscles)

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7
Q

Leukaemias and lymphomas

A

malignant diseases of the haematological and lymphatic systems

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8
Q

How do most cancers develop

A

Through progressive accumulation of various mutations within a cell

These genetic changes are typically acquired somatically, although some can be transmitted through the germ line and are present at birth in every body cell

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9
Q

Protooncogenes

A

Genes that, through (dominant) activating mutations, can be turned into oncogenes

Oncogenes facilitate malignant transformation by synthesis of structurally altered or defective proteins

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10
Q

Tumour suppressor genes

A

Genes that are relevant for the regulation of growth, repair, and cell survival, with malignant transformation supported through (recessive) loss-of-function mutations on both copies of the gene

They typically include DNA repair genes that are responsible for detecting and repairing genetic damage within a cell

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11
Q

Malignant transformation

A

The change from controlled to uncontrolled growth of a cell that is caused by mutations in oncogenes or tumour suppressor genes

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12
Q

Cancer is the result of

A

accumulation of several genetic and chromosomal changes

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13
Q

Tumour progression model - adenoma carcinoma sequence

A

Explains impact of a succession of different gene defects on tumour development

(normal tissue → adenoma → carcinoma in colon takes 10 years)

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14
Q

uncontrolled growth of a tumour

A

disruptions in intracellular, as well as intercellular, processing of information

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15
Q

Cell proliferation and cancer?

A

Not from cell proliferation

Question of balance between cell division and growth on 1 side

and apoptosis on the other

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16
Q

Differentiation of a malignant tumour

A

A malignant tumour tends to be less differentiated than its tissue of origin

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17
Q

How do oncogenes develop

A

from protooncogenes through hypermorphic mutations that result in gain of function

mutations are mostly missense - cause permanent activation or altered function of the gene product (qualitative changes)

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18
Q

Translocations and protooncogene

A

translocations can turn a protooncogene into an oncogene by generating a fusion gene with novel function and/or placing it under the control of a new, constitutively active promoter, which might trigger abnormal expression with regard to organ system or developmental stage

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19
Q

2nd way in which protooncogenes can be multiplied

A

Amplification

Increased gene copy numbers and thus more gene products in cell - quantitative

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20
Q

Intracellular dominance of oncogenes

A

Oncogenes are dominant at the cellular level, which means that activation or overexpression of one single allele is sufficient to result in a change of the cell’s phenotype

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21
Q

What are typical protooncogenes involved in

A

pathways that regulate cellular growth, cell proliferation, and the cell cycle

receptor tyrosine kinases

growth factors and their receptors

components of intracellular signaling cascades

proteins that regulate the cell cycle

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22
Q

RAS genes code for

A

guanosine triphosphate (GTP) binding proteins that have a crucial regulating function for several important signaling cascades in the cell

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23
Q

K-RAS mutations

A

90% of all pancreatic carcinomas

50% of all colon cancers

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24
Q

N-RAS

A

30% of all AML - Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

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25
Q

HER2/neu

A

Receptor tyrosine kinase

Important protooncogene in breast cancer

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26
Q

Philadelphia chromosome, t(9;22)q(34;11)

A

example of a chromosomal translocation resulting in activation of a protooncogene is the translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22

translocation causes a fusion of the BCR and ABL genes, leading to a fusion protein, BCR-ABL, and constitutional activation of the ABL tyrosine kinase

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27
Q

promoters for genes of the immunoglobulin chains

A

chromosome 14, 22 and 2

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28
Q

Result of translocation of protooncogenes into chromosomal regions that are under the control of promoters for genes of the immunoglobulin chains

A

uncontrolled, constitutive expression

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29
Q

MYC protooncogene

A

Burkitt lymphoma

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30
Q

Chromosomal translocations as causes of malignant diseases

A
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31
Q

Prognostic importance of tumour-specific balanced chromosome translocations

A

They are found only in tumor cells and thus represent somatic mutations

A cytogenetic analysis of the abnormal cell line should be included in the standard workup of most leukemias and lymphomas and may supply information on treatment strategies

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32
Q

Most common cytogenic change in paediatric Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

A

t(12;21)(p13;q22) translocation, which generates a TEL-AML1 fusion gene

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33
Q

BCR-ABL fusion gene and age

A

it is present in 5% of children, 35% of adults, and more than 50% of individuals over 60 years of age with ALL

particularly malignant form of the disease

median survival time of < 9 months when treated with conventional ALL regimens because of high early relapse rate

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34
Q

Most familial cancer predisposition syndromes result from

A

mutations in tumour suppressor genes in which loss of function favors development of a tumour

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35
Q

Products of TSGs

A

inhibit cellular growth, proliferation, or cell cycle progression (gatekeeper genes)

ensure genetic stability, for example, through DNA repair (caretaker genes)

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36
Q

How are oncogenes activated

A

Mutations on a single allele

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37
Q

How is a tumour-promoting phenotype associated with tumour suppressor genes is triggered

A

Inactivating mutations in BOTH ALLELES

these mutations are therefore recessive on a cellular level

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38
Q

Frequent TSG mutations

A

null mutations that cause complete absence of a functional product, such as small frameshift deletions or nonsense mutations that cause aborted protein synthesis

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39
Q

Unclassified variants

A

Missense mutations

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40
Q

Variant of unknown significance

A

A genetic variant identified in a patient with a particular disease or a suspected disease predisposition that may or may not be of functional importance

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41
Q

2-hit hypothesis of cancer development

A

Cancer development involves two successive mutations that affect the two alleles of a tumour suppressor gene

In familial cancer disposition syndromes, a mutation on one allele is inherited, and only one additional hit is required for cancer development

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42
Q

Sporadic retinoblastoma

A

did not inherit a mutation and require two independent somatic mutations affecting the same cell

2 hits required

congenital - one of the mutations is already present - a somatic mutation is likely to occur in at least one relevant cell, the disease occurs almost inevitably and much earlier in constitutional mutation carriers than in noncarriers - Frequently, secondary tumours can develop independently (e.g., osteosarcoma and leukemia)

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43
Q

What is seen in constitutional tumour predisposition syndromes, one mutated allele derives from the parental germ line so that offspring will have only one wild-type allele in all of their body cells (first hit)

A

1 mutated allele derives from the parental germ line so that offspring will have only one wild-type allele in all of their body cells (first hit)

Each additional inactivating mutation of the second (wild-type) allele causes loss of function of the respective gene product within the affected cell (second hit)

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44
Q

Recessive = dominant

A

Although inactivation of tumour suppressor genes reflects a recessive mechanism at the cellular level, the associated cancer predispositions are inherited as (autosomal) dominant disorders

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45
Q

Incomplete penetrance of an autosomal dominant tumour predisposition syndrome

A

Patients who never experienced a 2nd hit in the relevant organ in their lifetime

hence would not develop any tumour

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46
Q

Where is this paradox of a a dominant disorder with a recessive pathomechanism at the cellular level apply to

A

All conditions where abnormal functioning of a single cell is sufficient for the development of clinical symptoms

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47
Q

Necessity for modification of 2-hit hypothesis

A

2nd hit in 2nd allele did not necessarily have to involve a DNA change

Epigenetic processes, such as DNA hypermethylation, can also account for the inactivation of an allele of a tumour suppressor gene

Since the methylation status of a gene remains the same throughout all mitotic cell divisions, the effect resembles that of a true alteration of the DNA sequence

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48
Q

DNA repair genes

A

Inactivation of DNA repair genes does not immediately trigger abnormal cellular growth or differentiation

However, it causes failure to identify and repair mutations in the entire genome => increase in mutation rate

Has an impact on protooncogenes as well as other tumour suppressor genes/gatekeeper genes

accumulation of mutations is a decisive factor in tumour progression, inactivation of DNA repair genes significantly accelerates malignant transformation

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49
Q

Lynch Syndrome

A

Hereditary tumour predisposition caused by mutations of DNA repair genes

Due to mutations in DNA mismatch repair genes e.g. MSH2 or MLH1

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50
Q

Cause of functional loss of 2nd allele of TSGs

How can it be recognised

A

not caused by a point mutation (or epigenetic changes) but by larger deletions or chromosomal alterations that result in the total loss of that gene copy

Through molecular genetic analysis of Loss of Heterozygosity - LOH

51
Q

Familial retinoblastoma mutation

A

Disease causing point mutation in RB1 gene - all normal cells show heterozygosity for that mutation, tumour tissue from the same individual will only reveal the mutated allele

52
Q

What happens in the case of deletion

Describe the mutation

A

Normal allele is absent and hence there is a loss of heterozygosity

mutation is really hemizygous as the wild type allele is not amplified by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) due to a large deletion or possibly loss of entire chromosome

53
Q

most frequent mechanism for a second hit in heritable tumour predisposition syndromes

A

LOH

Often seen as part of the malignant progression of sporadic tumours

54
Q

Sporadic retinoblastomas

A

most commonly unifocal and unilateral

The average age at diagnosis is 24 months

60% of RBs

55
Q

Hereditary retinoblastomas

A

more often multifocal and bilateral

The average age at diagnosis is 15 months

40%

56
Q

Clinical mainfestations of retinoblastoma

A

Leukocoria - abnormal white reflextion in the iris of the affected eye

Strabismus - accompany/antedate the leukocoria

Visual detoriation - not noticed in small children

Less common sympotms = uveitis, glaucoma, hyphema (blood in anterior chamber of eye), proptosis, pain

57
Q

Genetic basis for retinoblastoma

A

RB1 gene on chromosome 13q14.1-q14.2 is crucial in the pathogenesis of retinoblastoma

58
Q

Classic tumour suppressor gene

A

RB1 gene on chromosome 13q14.1-q14.2

59
Q

In order for tumour to develop (RB)

A

inactivation of both RB1 alleles in a retinoblast cell is necessary in order for a tumor to develop

60
Q

Sporadic vs hereditary RB

A

In the case of hereditary retinoblastoma, one RB1 germline mutation is already present in all cells of the body

A retinoblastoma develops when a “second hit” inactivates the second RB1 allele in a retinoblast cell (loss of heterozygosity)

contrasts with the sporadic form of retinoblastoma, in which two independent somatic events must occur in the same cell (or successively in the same cell line) in order for a tumor to form

61
Q

Family history of RB

A

only 10% of children with RB have a +ve family history

Other cases of hereditary retinoblastoma are based on de novo mutations in the parental (usually paternal) germ line

Patients with a hereditary RB1 mutation have a greater than 95% chance of developing retinoblastoma, despite the fact that they inherit only one mutated allele of the tumor suppressor gene, which is recessive at the cellular level

62
Q

Mode of inheritance of hereditary RBs

A

autosomal dominant mode of inheritance

63
Q

Mutations of RBs

A

Mutations that lead to a premature stop codon (nonsense, frameshift or splice mutations)

64
Q

Therapy and management of RBs

A

Generally treated by enucleation of affected eye

+ adjuvant radiotherapy if necessary

65
Q

Treatment of tumours of moderate size

A

radioactive plaque therapy (I-125 brachytherapy, which involves suturing of a radioactive plaque to the eye wall at the apex of the tumor)

66
Q

Treatment of very small tumours

A

Laser ablation

Cryotherapy

67
Q

Treatment for bilateral RBs

A

the more severely affected eye is enucleated and the contralateral eye is treated with radiation

68
Q

Risk of RBs

A

increased risk of other primary ocular tumors and the potential for contralateral disease

Patients with the hereditary form of retinoblastoma are at increased risk for developing other malignant tumors including osteosarcomas

soft tissue sarcomas

melanomas

pinealomas

69
Q

Li-Fraumeni Syndrome mode of inheritance

A

Autosomal dominant inheritance

70
Q

How is Li-Fraumeni Syndrome characterised

A

increased risk of developing many types of cancer: soft tissue sarcomas, breast cancer, leukemias, osteosarcomas, melanomas, and tumors of the colon, pancreas, adrenal cortex, and brain

1/2 of affected individuals have a tumour by 30 yrs of age

90% at 65

high risk for developing multiple primary tumours

71
Q

Genetic basis for Li-Fraumeni syndrome

A

50% - germline mutations of the tumor suppressor gene TP53 on chromosome 17p13.1

The tumor suppressor p53 serves a key function as gatekeeper of the genome

If DNA damage is recognized at the G1/S checkpoint of the cell cycle (i.e., before DNA replication), p53 induces cell death by activating the transcription of apoptosis-related genes

Small proportion - germline mutations in the CHEK2 gene on chromosome 22q

CHECK2 codes for a serine/threonine kinase that is part of the p53 signaling cascade

72
Q

Familial Adenomatous Polyposis accounts for

how is it defined

A

0.5-1% of all colorectal cancers

Defined by presence of innumerable colorectal adenomas - detectable at least by late puberty in affected individuals

73
Q

How do lesions associated with FAP develop

A

These lesions follow the adenoma–carcinoma sequence, starting as benign epithelial tumors and developing over a period of years into epithelial dysplasia and finally to colorectal carcinoma

74
Q

What mutations are found in at least half of all malignant tumours

A

Somatic mutations of the TP53 tumour suppressor gene

75
Q

What is the most commonly mutated gene in human malignancies

A

TP53

76
Q

Classification of FAP

A

Obligate precancerous lesion

77
Q

Apart from colon lesions, what do FAP patients also have

A

extracolonic manifestations

78
Q

Attenuated FAP

A

variant of FAP in which the number of polyps is far less than 100

produces clinical manifestations much later than classic FAP, with colorectal cancer usually developing in the fifth decade

Attenuated FAP is still associated with a high cancer risk

79
Q

Genetics and etiology of FAP

A

FAP and attenuated FAP are caused by heterozygous mutations in the APC tumour suppressor gene (adenomatous polyposis coli) on chromosome 5q21-q22

Lead to truncation of gene product

80
Q

Mode of inheritance of FAP

A

Autosomal dominant mode of inheritance

1/4 of patients represent de novo cases

detailed family history should be taken in all patients with colon cancer

81
Q

Analysis performed in individuals with a clinical diagnosis of FAP and in at-risk family members

A

molecular genetic analysis of the APC gene

82
Q

What should be done if a single colorectal carcinoma is detected

A

the entire colon should be scrutinized for possible additional adenomas (complete colonoscopy) because at least one more adenoma is present in up to 30% of cases

83
Q

Lynch Syndrome (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colon Cancer - HNPCC) & colorectal cancers

A

5% of all colorectal cancers

84
Q

Cardinal feature of Lynch Syndrome (HNPCC)

A

Familial occurence of colon cancer or certain other cancers at a relatively young age

85
Q

Median age at onset of CR cancer in Lynch syndrome

A

45 yrs - cancers rarely occur before 25

86
Q

Unlike sporadic cancers, where are Lynch Sydrome associated cancers located

A

frequently (in more than 50% of cases) located in the right side of the colon, and so cancers at that location are always suspicious for HNPCC

87
Q

Risk of developing CR cancer

A

as high as 80% in male carriers of the HNPCC mutation

Female carriers have a 50% lifetime risk for colon cancer and a 60% risk of developing endometrial cancer

88
Q

Extracolonic neoplasms that have been linked to Lynch Syndrome

A

include cancers of the stomach (10% to 20% lifetime risk), ovaries (12%), biliary tract (7%), small intestine (4%), urothelium, pancreas, and CNS

89
Q

Mode of inheritance - Lynch Sydrome

A

heterogenous and generally has an autosomal dominant mode of inheritance

90
Q

Mutations - Lynch syndrome

A

DNA mismatch repair system - Usually these involve mutations in the MLH1 or MSH2 genes

Other Lynch syndrome–associated genes are MSH6, PMS1, and PMS2 - Like other DNA repair genes, these are tumor suppressor genes

Inherited heterozygous mutations are not sufficient by themselves to produce a clinical phenotype

A “second hit” on the healthy allele is necessary to cause a complete loss of functional protein, resulting in defective DNA mismatch repair

91
Q

Between what tumour entities is there a link

A

genetic risk factors - relatives of women with ovarian cancer also have a 30% to 60% greater risk of developing breast cancer

92
Q

Genes associated with breast cancer

A

BRCA1

BRCA2

93
Q

Risk factors for breast cancer

(While there are heritable disorders that predispose to breast cancer, the vast majority of cases have a multi-factorial etiology)

A

Menarche before 12 years of age

Menopause after 55 years of age

Having a first child after 30 years of age

Nulliparity

Postmenopausal obesity

Alcohol abuse

Hormone replacement therapy

Radiation exposure

94
Q

proportion of breast cancers based on genetic predisposition

A

5-10%

95
Q

BRCA1 and BRCA2

A

BRCA1 is located on chromosome 17q21 and BRCA2 on chromosome 13q21

Both genes are tumor suppressor genes that code for proteins involved in DNA damage repair and are involved in cell cycle control and regulation of other proteins of DNA damage response

96
Q

Mode of inheritance of familial BC

A

autosomal dominant manner

97
Q

What might molecular genetic testing of the tumour tissue in breast cancer demonstrate

A

a loss of heterozygosity (LOH) in the corresponding chromosomal region

98
Q

Mutations associated with breast cancer

A

Nonsense and frameshift mutations are clearly associated with disease

Unclassified variants - cannot be used for susceptibility testing in other family members

99
Q

Lifetime disease risk associated with Pathogenic Mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2

A
100
Q

Penetrance of BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations

A

An individual who harbors a BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation has an increased susceptibility to disease; however, the penetrance is not complete

Some carriers develop multiple primary tumors before 50 years of age, whereas other people with the same mutation do not develop a single cancer past age 70

The lifetime risk for breast cancer in mutation carriers is 85%, and more than half of affected women will develop breast cancer before age 50

Carriers of BRCA1 mutations have a significantly higher risk of developing ovarian cancer (44%) than carriers of BRCA2 mutations (27%)

101
Q

BRCA1 and men

A

BRCA1 mutations are associated with an approximately threefold increase in the risk for prostate cancer but very rarely lead to male breast cancer

102
Q

BRCA2 and men

A

a definite association exists between BRCA2 mutations and male breast cancer, with carriers facing a cumulative risk of 7% by the age of 70 years

103
Q

BRCA2 overall

A

BRCA2 mutations show less association with prostate cancer but have been linked (in both sexes) to tumors of the pancreas, larynx, esophagus, colon, stomach, and biliary tract, and to melanomas

104
Q

Diagnosis of breast cancer

A

If a tumour is found it is sized and graded and a biopsy is done if necessary and ER, PR and HER2 status assessed. Based on these results further tests may be ordered including the Oncotype DX molecular profiling test (if an early stage ER or PR positive and HER2 negative cancer)

105
Q

when is genetic testing offered

A

to an individual affected with cancer, whose combined personal and family history of cancer, has a combined BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutation carrier probability of 10% or more

This equates to a Manchester Score of ≥ 15

106
Q

NCCP criteria for diagnostic BRCA1/2 testing

A
107
Q

Targeted mutation analysis is offered to

A

women of Ashkenazi Jewish heritage (of Jewish or Polish ancestry)

It includes mutations known to be at greater frequencies because of founder effects

Comprehensive analysis includes full sequence analysis of BRCA1 and BRCA2 and testing for specific large genomic rearrangements of BRCA1

108
Q

What should be offered to women with documented BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutation

A

should be offered a prophylactic mastectomy and oophorectomy as a preventive measure

109
Q

`2 types of mastectomy

A

Subcutaneous mastectomy (approximately 5% residual tissue)

Complete mastectomy (approximately 1% residual tissue) - women over 35 with no desire for future pregnancy

3% residual risk of peritoneal cancer

110
Q

Precision/personalised medicine

A

use of each person’s unique combination of genetic (as assessed by genomics) and environmental risk factors to make predictions about his or her disease risk and response to various treatments

111
Q

MOA of NGS (Whole Genome Sequencing, Whole Exome Sequencing, RNA sequencing)

A

rely on massively parallel sequencing (sequencing many overlapping parts of the genome at the same time)

powerful tools for discovering what genes and sequences are associated with disease

112
Q

WES

A

makes it possible to cost-effectively determine nearly all the coding variation in an individual human genome, which sums to less than 2% of the genome, in a single experiment

Exons are targeted and then sequenced using this technique, which has become a powerful new approach for identifying genes underlying mendelian conditions, particularly in circumstances where conventional approaches have failed

113
Q

WGS

A

analyses the entire genome, coding (exons) and non-coding (introns and intergenic regions) DNA

As the cost of wholegenome sequencing continues to drop, it will likely become the preferred strategy for gene discovery

114
Q

RNA-seq

A

used for expression profiling of normal versus disease tissues, and is often used in personalised cancer medicine

RNA-sequencing has been used to develop microarrays for tumour expression profiling

115
Q

Bioinformatics

A

refers to an interdisciplinary field that develops methods and software tools for understanding biological data

It involves using computers, statistics, maths and engineering to analyse and interpret biological data

116
Q

Exome sequencing

A
  • Genomic DNA is randomly sheared to create a library of DNA fragments that are flanked by adapter sequences (not shown)
  • The library is enriched for sequences corresponding to exons (dark blue fragments) by hybridization capture
  • In the capture procedure, also known as “pull down,” the fragments are hybridized to biotinylated DNA or RNA baits (orange fragments) in the presence of blocking oligonucleotides that are complementary to the adaptors (not shown)
  • The hybridized DNA fragments are amplified by PCR and rapidly sequenced using high-throughput techniques
  • The end result is the DNA sequence of the exons in the genome
117
Q

Cancer genomics

A

study of the DNA-associated changes that accompany cancer with the overall goal of better preventing, detecting, diagnosing, and treating common cancers

118
Q

How have classification schemes of cancers been developed

(leukemia, lymphoma, and cancers of the breast, lung, colon, and brain)

A

use of genome-wide gene expression analyses (using RNA-seq or RNA microarray) to provide a snapshot of gene activity within a tumor at a given point in time

119
Q

TNM system

A

often difficult to predict the prognosis of cancer patients based on traditional phenotypic information such as the type of tumor (T), whether the cancer is found in nearby lymph nodes (N), and evidence of metastasis (M)

Not predictive of prognosis or treatment response

120
Q

cancers that are easily confused

A

Burkitt lymphoma vs. diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

Gene-expression profiling can help to distinguish between cancers that are easily confused

121
Q

What measurements are mandatory for all patients with invasive BC

A

measurement of ER, PR and HER2 is mandatory

122
Q

MammaPrint assay and Oncotype DX

A

generates a 70 gene predictive signature for distant recurrences after surgery in early-stage breast cancer patients

It can potentially save many patients the trauma of chemotherapy

In Ireland a similar assay Oncotype DX is used and does expression profiling of 21 genes by RT-PCR.

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Q

Impact of gene-expression profiling of cancers

A

helping to improve the classification of different types of tumors and may help to guide therapy (personalised medicine)