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Gastroenterology Flashcards

1
Q

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

A

Requires long term antibiotic prophylaxis (ciprofloxacin)

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2
Q

Intrinsic factor antibodies

A

Used to investigate vitamin B12 deficiency

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3
Q

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

A

Triad of dysphagia, glossitis and iron-deficiency anaemia

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4
Q

Pancreatic cancer

A

Painless jaundice

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5
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis

A

Predominantly raised ALT/AST compared to ALP

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6
Q

Ischemic colitis

A

Most commonly affects the splenic flexure

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7
Q

Haemochromatosis

A

Raised transferrin saturation and ferritin with low TIBC

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8
Q

Ulcerative colitis

A

Associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis

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9
Q

C. difficile

A

First line with metronidazole then second line with oral vancomycin

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10
Q

Coeliac disease

A

Total IgA and IgA tTG should be assessed

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11
Q

Carcinoid syndrome

A
  • flushing, diarrhoea and abdominal discomfort
  • urine 5-HIAA elevated
  • can cause pulmonary stenosis and tricuspid insufficiency
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12
Q

Achalasia

A

Dysphagia affecting both solids and liquids from the start

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13
Q

Clindamycin

A

Treatment is associated with a high risk of C. diff so warn about diarrhoea

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14
Q

Coeliac diseasse

A

Offered pneumococcal vaccine due to hyposplenism

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15
Q

Cholestryamine

A

Used to treat bile-acid malabsorption

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16
Q

Haemochromatosis

A

Early signs include fatigue, erectile dysfunction and arthralgia

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17
Q

Ulcerative colitis

A

Lead pipe appearance to colon

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18
Q

Double duct sign

A

Can indicate pancreatic cancer

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19
Q

Hemochromatosis management

A

Fist line with venesection and second line with desferrioxamine

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20
Q

Appendicectomy

A

Requires prophylactic IV antibiotics

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21
Q

Wilson’s disease

A

A combination of liver and neurological disease that requires copper studies

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22
Q

Rifaximin

A

Treatment of choice for small bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome

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23
Q

Isoniazid

A

Can cause vitamin B6 deficiency leading to peripheral neuropathy

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24
Q

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

A

E. coli is the most common bacteria cultured from ascites tap

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25
Q

Barrett’s oesophagus

A

If dysplasia is seen then endoscopic intervention is needed

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26
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis

A

Associated with anti-nuclear and anti-smooth muscle antibodies

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27
Q

TPMT activity

A

Needs to be assessed before starting azathioprine or mercaptopurine in Crohn’s disease

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28
Q

Appendicitis

A

Rovsing positive with raised inflammatory markers

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29
Q

Pharyngeal pouch

A

Treated with surgical repair

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30
Q

Alcoholic ketoacidosis

A

Metabolic ketoacidosis with a normal or low glucose

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31
Q

Coeliac disease

A

Anaemia, low ferritin and low folate levels

32
Q

Globus pharyngis

A

Persistent sensation of lump in throat and difficulty swallowing own saliva

33
Q

Upper GI bleed

A
  • anaemia

- high urea levels

34
Q

AFP

A

Can be a useful diagnostic marker for hepatocellular carcinoma

35
Q

Paracentesis

A

Requires albumin cover to prevent post paracentesis circulatory dysfunction

36
Q

Spironolactone

A

Used to manage ascites secondary to liver cirrhosis

37
Q

Vitamin C deficiency

A
  • gum bleeding
  • lethargy
  • aches and pain in joints
  • easy bruising
38
Q

Urea breath test

A

Only recommended method for testing H.pylori eradication therapy

39
Q

HBsAg

A

Used to screen for hepatitis B infection

40
Q

H/pylori eradication

A
  • PPI + amoxicillin + clarithromycin

- PPI + metronidazole + clarithromycin

41
Q

COP

A

Can cause drug induced cholestasis

42
Q

Severe UC flare

A

Treat in hospital with IV corticosteroids

43
Q

Loperamide

A

A m-opioid receptor agonist that reduced gut motility

44
Q

Mesenteric ischaemia

A

Triad of CVD, high lactate and soft but tender abdomen

45
Q

Severe alcoholic hepatitis

A

Give corticosteroids

46
Q

C.diff

A

Linked to clindamycin and cephalosporins such as ceftriaxone

47
Q

Coeliac disease

A

Avoid

  • beer
  • rye
  • bread
  • pasta
48
Q

Upper GI bleed

A

High urea levels

49
Q

Primary biliary cholangitis

A

First line treatment is with ursodeoxycholic acid

50
Q

HNPCC

A
  • endometrial cancer
  • pancreatic and biliary tract
  • gastric
  • ovarian
  • bladder
  • renal
51
Q

Terlipressin

A

Used in the management of variceal haemorrhage

52
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis

A

Deranged LFTs and secondary amenorrhoea

-managed with steroids

53
Q

Aldosterone antagonists

A

Given to patients with ascites secondary to liver cirrhosis

54
Q

ERCP/MRCP

A

Can be used to image primary sclerosing cholangitis

55
Q

Metaclopramide

A

Works by antagonism of the DR dopamine receptors

56
Q

Barrett’s oesophagus

A

Associated with adenocarcinoma

57
Q

Wilson’s disease

A

Treated with penicillamine

58
Q

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

A
  • epigastric pain
  • diarrhoea
  • duodenal ulcers
  • MEN1
59
Q

Mild ulcerative colitis flare

A

Rectal aminosalicylates such as mesalazine

60
Q

Severe UC

A

Greater than 6 stools and systemic upset

61
Q

SBP

A

Most commonly caused by E.coli

62
Q

Hyponatraemia

A

PPIs can cause this

63
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy

A

Grade 1: irritability
Grade 2: confusion and inappropriate behaviour
Grade 3: incoherent and restless
Grade IV: coma

64
Q

Biliary colic

A
  • sharp RUQ pain
  • back and shoulder tip radiation
  • worse after eating
65
Q

Metoclopramides

A

Avoid in bowel obstruction

66
Q

Life threatening c.diff

A

Treat with oral vancomycin and Iv metronidazole

67
Q

Gallstone ileus

A

Small bowel obstruction can occur secondary to impacted gallstones

68
Q

Acute pancreatitis

A

Can be caused by ECRP

69
Q

Liver cirrhosis scoring

A
  • bilirubin
  • albumin
  • prothrombin time
  • encephalopathy
  • ascites
70
Q

High SAAG gradient

A

Seen in liver cirrhosis due to portal hypertension

71
Q

Liver cirrhosis

A

Investigated through transient elastography

72
Q

uncomplicated c.diff

A

Give metronidazole

73
Q

UC

A

Related to PSC

74
Q

Alcoholic ketoacidosis

A

Managed with IV saline and thiamine

75
Q

PBC

A
  • IgM
  • anti-mitochondrial antibodies
  • middle aged female

Revision (18 decks)

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