Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

X PPPVN > First Aid > Flashcards

First Aid Flashcards

1
Q

define first aid

A

provision of initial care for illness/injury that is usually performed by a non-expert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does first aid consist of?

A

a series of simple, sometime life saving techniques that an individual can be trained to perform with minimal equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does the veterinary surgeons act of 1966 state about first aid?

A

anyone can perform first aid on an animal provided it is to preserve life, prevent suffering, prevent the deterioration of the patients condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how does the RCVS define the limits of first aid?

A

provided what is done is done to save life, stop pain and suffering and is done as an interim measure before seeking veterinary assistance, it is unlikely that what has been done has gone beyond first aid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what can VN perform under schedule 3?

A

assist vet and carry out certain procedures under guidance and not in a body cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the 9 key rules for telephone conversations about potential emergencies?

A

introduce yourself (by name)
be polite and calm
ascertain nature of problem asap
establish who the caller is and whether or not they are registered with the practice or not
obtain owners details including mobile number they will be using during transport
quote for emergency costs
clear directions to practice (postcode and parking)
taxi or animal ambulance information for alternative transport
gain ETA and advise staff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the main purpose of the phone conversation?

A

to decide if the condition is life threatening or not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how should a distressed/hysterical client be dealt with?

A

remain calm, sympathetic and patient

reassure them of the relevance of questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what should happen if the condition is life threatening?

A

animal is brought to the practice immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what should be asked to ascertain how urgent a problem is?

A 
known or suspected toxin ingestion
onset of signs (gradual or rapid)
current medical conditions
current medication
breathing - normal, easy?
responsive
able to walk normally
recent trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are 11 examples of life threatening emergencies?

A 
respiratory distress
severe bleeding
collapse/unconsciousness
rapid abdominal distention
inability to urinate
sudden onset neurological signs
severe vomiting and hemorrhagic diarrhoea
extreme pain
witnessed ingestion of toxin
bone fracture
dystocia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what advice should be given over the phone to foreign objects patients?

A

don’t remove
keep animal calm and still
bring to vets asap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what advice should be given over the phone for uncontrollably bleeding patients?

A

a calm owner leads to a calm dog, leading to reduced HR and so blood loss,
apply pressure through a clean towel
tourniquet if bleeding cannot be slowed with pressure and only if <20 mins from practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are 5 examples of non life-threatening conditions?

A 
mild/moderate vomiting
non-hemorrhagic diarrhoea
small wound with minimal blood loss
polyuria/polydipsia
weight bearing lameness
a short single seizure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how should small emergency patients be transported?

A

in baskets (cats and small dogs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how should large emergency patients be transported?

A

on a blanket or board, should be made secure in boot of the car

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how should broken bones and dislocations be managed/

A

keep patient confined. Small cage of collapsible kennel is ideal, if not use a large blanket/towel to support patient and prevent further movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is different about first aid away from the practice?

A

same principles apply, encourage owner to assist - extreme caution to keep yourself safe, particularly with wild animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the purpose of an emergency/crash box?

A

gives immediate access to drugs and equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

where should the crash/emergency box be kept?

A

in the same place at all times so everyone knows where it is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what items should be found in an emergency/crash box/

A 
ET tubes
laryngoscope
O2 supply
anesthetic circuits
IV catheters in various sizes
clippers 
scissors
tapes and bandages to secure IV
ECG machine
Syringes and needles
suction machine/bulb syringe
Dog urinary catheters (different sizes)
good light source
drug dosage charts
drugs used in cardiac resus
anti convulsant drugs
steroids
anaesthetic drugs
analgesics
fluids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

define polydipsia

A

drinking lots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

define polyuria

A

urinating lots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are common symptoms of an epileptic seizure?

A

dog appears to not be responding and is shaking uncontrollably and has passed urine/faeces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

define triage

A

process of organising patients according to the severity of their condition and getting treatment within an appropriate length of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the key parts of information gathering?

A

preparing all consent forms
prepare critical care monitoring sheet
pre-populate all patient information fields and highlight fields to be gathered
write down the history gathered on the telephone
write down all information as you get it or assign a scribe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what 9 parameters should be recorded in the primary survey?

A 
heart rate
pulse rate
mucous membrane colour
capillary refill time
respiratory rate 
respiratory effort
gait
mentation
temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what parameter should be measured before the patient is handled?

A

respiratory rate and effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how long should the primary survey take?

A

30 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what makes up the primary survey?

A

A -airway
B- breathing
C- circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what should be checked relating to the airway in the primary assessment?

A

patency -is the patient able to breathe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what should be checked relating to breathing in the primary assessment?

A

is the patient making good breathing efforts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what should be checked relating to the circulation in the primary assessment?

A

does the patient have spontaneous circulation (is there a pulse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what must happen if the answer to any questions in the primary survey is no?

A

survey is stopped and patient receives CPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is being assessed during the major body system assessment of the cardiovascular system?

A

heart rate and pulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what should be recorded during the major body system assessment of the cardiovascular system?

A

heart rate and pulse quality
mucous membrane colour
capillary refill time
blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how should the the heart rate and pulse be assessed?

A

digital pulses, osculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what should be considered about pulse quality?

A

whether its bounding, strong or intermittent

if irregular is it regular! (sinus arrhythmia) or irregular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what HR is considered tachycardia in dogs?

A

120 BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what HR is considered tachycardia in cats?

A

180 BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what HR is considered bradycardia in dogs?

A

60 BPM (although consider dogs fitness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what HR is considered bradycardia in cats?

A

120 BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are icteric mucous membranes?

A

yellow/jaundiced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what pulse should be used to test peripheral circulation?

A

metatarsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what should be assessed during the major body system assessment of the respiratory system?

A

rate, effort (does this differ on inhalation/exhalation) and any associated noise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what respiration rate denotes tachyaponea in the dog and cat?

A

> 40 resps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what findings in the major body system assessment of the respiratory system would suggest respiratory distress?

A 
cyanosis
open mouth breathing
abducted elbows
extended neck
paradoxical respiratory movement
dilated pupils
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is paradoxical respiratory movement?

A

chest moves in on inspiration and out on expiration (flail chest)
chest moves out and abdomen moves in (ruptured diaphragm or pleural effusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what should be assessed during the major body system assessment of neurological signs?

A

non ambulatory patients - can they feel the limbs, do they respond to pain test
ambulatory patients - is gait normal
changes in mentation
any seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what can affect response to painful stimuli?

A

mentation of the patient (may feel the pain but disinterested in responding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what changes of mentation should be noted?

A

whether patients are: alert/normally responsive, obtunded, stuperous, comatose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what does obtunded mentation mean?

A

rousable but quiet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what does stuperous mentation mean?

A

rousable with painful stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what should be checked during major body system assessment of urinary systems?

A

palpation of bladder (size and feel)

ability to urinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the final check of the primary survey?

A

rectal temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what should be checked while taking rectal temperature?

A

any blood, any faecal staining on perineum (indicates recent passing of faeces), anal tone (lack of tightening around thermometer indicates neurological damage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what should be taken in a capsule history?

A 
age/sex/breed
presenting complaint
last seen normal?
last ate/drank/urinated
vomiting/diarrhoea/coughing
toxins/trauma
is the condition static or progressive
other conditions/medications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is the purpose of a secondary survey?

A

identify problems that could rapidly become life threatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what should be checked during the secondary survey?

A

head, chest, abdomen, limbs and tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what areas of the head should be checked in the secondary survey?

A

nose - haemorrhage, swelling and discharge (bilateral or unilateral)
mouth - pectical haemorrhage, eccymosis, dry/excessive salivation
eye - reflexes, light response, nystagmus/strabismus, mucous membrane colour
ears - symmetry, discharge, head tilt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what can nystagmus/strabismus indicate?

A

head trauma or neurological condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what should the chest should be checked for in the secondary survey?

A

dysponea, crepitus, wounds, swelling, auscultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is crepitus?

A

crackling under the skin which indicates presence of air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what should the abdomen should be checked for in the secondary survey?

A

swelling, bruising, painful bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what should the limbs and tail should be checked for in the secondary survey?

A

fractures, dislocations, neurological function (weakness, propreoception)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is involved in general nursing care of first aid/emergency patients?

A 
mental needs
physical needs
toileting needs
dressings, catheter and tube sites
nil by mouth/eating
monitoring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what parameters should be regularly monitored in the emergency patient?

A 
pulse rate and quality
mm colour and crt
respiratory rate and effort
temperature
demenour/mentation
body weight (every 12 hours instead of 24)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

how regularly should the the emergency patient be monitored?

A

every 15 minutes initially, increase interval as time passes/animal becomes more stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what other parameters should be considered during monitoring of the emergency patient?

A 
urine output and SG
blood pressure
ECG
pulse ox
CVP
electrolyte and blood gases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what parameters may remain normal for a period of tme after cardiac arrest/cardiac contractions stop?

A

mucous membrane colour, capillary refill time and ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is involved in basic life support?

A

CPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is the aim of basic life support?

A

keep blood flowing and oxygen delivery to tissues through external support to the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is involved in advanced life support?

A

administration of drugs and other treatments to restart spontaneous circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

how many people should be involved in administration of CPR?

A

minimum of 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

which staff within the practice should be trained in CPR?

A

all, including receptionists and managers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what is the name of the detailed veterinary CPR guidelines?

A

RECOVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what are the 5 main signs of actual or impending arrest?

A

agonal gasping
absence of a heartbeat or weak and rapid pulses that slow quickly
loss of consciousness
fixed dilated pupils
loss of reflexes (e.g. corneal and palpebral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what is agonal breathing?

A

short labored breaths, tends to be moaning on exhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is the corneal reflex?

A

a blink in response to light tough on the cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what is the palpebral reflex?

A

a blink when light touch is run over the upper/lower eyelids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what are the 5 key roles of a CPR team?

A 
cardiac compressor
ventilation provider
recorder
monitor
person to draw up medication, place ECG and catheter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

when should the roles of the CPR team be assigned?

A

as soon as everyone arrives on scene, usually by team leader (senior nurse/vet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what should you do if a patient has arrested or you think they are about to?

A

note the time
call for help
keep calm
assign roles (or ensure someone does) when help arrives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what is the first thing that you should do when starting CPR?

A

chest compressions should be started as soon as possible, even before help arrives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

describe the process that should happen on discovering arrest or peri arrest?

A

start compressions
secure airway and provide oxygen
assign a recorder/leader to record all interventions, monitoring and time
monitor the patient for any pulses and spontaneous ventilation
place a catheter
connect an ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

how often should the cardiac compressor be swapped?

A

every minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what can pulses tell us about the quality of CPR?

A

a good pulse during CPR shows compressions are effective and working

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

describe cardiac pump compressions

A

compression of the chest directly over the heart. The hand is placed around the chest and squeezed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

describe thoracic pump compressions

A

compressions over caudal thorax (with animal in lateral recumbancy) or xiphisteinum (when in dorsal recumbancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

on what animals are cardiac pump compressions used?

A

cats and small dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

on what animals are thoracic pump compressions used?

A

medium and large dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

how many compressions should be given a minute?

A

100-120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what depth should compressions be?

A

1/2 to 2/3 thorax width

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what pulse can be used to assess effectiveness of compressions?

A

femoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what is a capnograph?

A

device which measures ventilation and shows CO2 levels leaving the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what can a capnograph show/

A

effectiveness of CPR by showing gaseous exchange is taking place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

how many breaths per minute should be given during CPR?

A

~20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

how much should the chest be inflated during CPR?

A

to normal levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what does ET tube and either an ambubag or anesthetic circuit provide?

A

intermittent positive pressure ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what equipment is needed for basic life support?

A 
Ambu bag/anaesthetic machine and circuits
face mask/endotracheal tubes
laryngoscope
IV catheters
recording sheet
pen
3 people (at least)
Ideally: ECG and capnograph
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

describe the collapsed patient

A

one who can still respond to/is aware of external stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

describe the unconscious patient

A

one who is unaware of surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

describe the alert collapsed patient

A

normal mentation, can’t walk/move

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

describe the depressed collapsed patient

A

quiet, still responds to name/clapping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

describe the obtunded collapsed patient

A

responds only to pain, decreased consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

describe the unconscious patient

A

not at all responsive to external stimuli but has a pulse and is breathing unaided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what does reduced consciousness usually mean for the severity of an injury?

A

usually more severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what can the state of consciousness be used to determine?

A

the severity of a condition that can vary in level (e.g. shock)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what issues do alert patients commonly present with?

A 
orthopaedic disease (fractures)
peripheral neurological disease (e.g. disk disease)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what issues do depressed patients commonly present with?

A

mild/moderate shock and pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what issues do obtunded patients commonly present with?

A

moderate to severe shock, neurological disease and metabolic disease (e.g. renal failure)

112
Q

what issues do unconscious patients with normal heart rates commonly present with?

A

neurological disease and metabolic disease (e.g. diabetic coma)

113
Q

what issues do unconscious patients with a high or low heart rate commonly present with?

A

severe shock or imminent arrest

114
Q

what is the most important nursing consideration of the unconscious patient?

A

they are unable to protect their airway and so the airway must be positioned so it can be kept clear

115
Q

how should a patient be positioned in order to keep the airway clear?

A

lateral recumbancy, neck extended gently and head slightly upwards. Mouth opened with tongue out through the gap between canine and premolar teeth

116
Q

what is the essential equipment for collapsed/unconscious patients?

A 
ET tubes
conforming bandage (to hold mouth open
oxygen supply
laryngoscope
dog catheters (airway access)
mouth gag (or large vetwrap bandage)
ECG
Blood pressure monitor and capnograph
117
Q

how quickly can occular emergencies deteriorate?

A

fast - should be seen urgently if onset of signs is rapid

118
Q

what are 7 common occular emergencies?

A 
traumatic proptosis
occular foreign body
corneal scratch/laceration
corneal ulcer
glaucoma
hyphaema
sudden onset blindness
119
Q

what is traumatic proptosis?

A

forwards displacement of whole globe of eye

120
Q

how do occular emergencies often present?

A

eye closed/half closed
depressed
unwilling to be touched

121
Q

what is hyphaema?

A

bleeding into the anterior chamber of the eye turning it red colour

122
Q

what are the main nursing considerations of an occular emergency?

A

assess entire patient (primary and secondary surveys) and deal with major body system abnormalities first
prevent self-trauma with Elizabethan collar
give analgesia
keep eye moist with false tear solution or sterile saline moistened swabs
keep the patient in a quiet dimly lit kennel

123
Q

what are some common nasal emergencies?

A

epistaxis

nasal foreign body

124
Q

how may a nasal foreign body present?

A

intense sneezing which may ease

125
Q

what are the key nursing considerations of epistaxis?

A 
keep calm
elevate the nose and apply cold compress
plug with an absorbent dressing
monitor for hypovolaemia
can use adrenaline on a moistened swab
126
Q

what are the key nursing considerations of a nasal foreign body?

A

will require nasal examination and flush under GA

127
Q

how should a patient be positioned for nasal flush under GA?

A

sternal recumbancy with rostral end downwards to avoid flush liquid entering trachea

128
Q

what equipment is required for epistaxis?

A

surgical swabs
adrenaline
absorbent dressings

129
Q

what equipment is required for nasal foreign body?

A 
GA equipment (inc. cuffed ET tubes)
otoscope and laryngoscope
surgical swabs
syringes
sterile saline (1l for 25kg dog)
bowl for catching flush solution
130
Q

what size syringe should be used for nasal flush of cat and dog?

A

dog - 60ml

cat - 20ml

131
Q

what side should the patient be laid on for CPR?

A

right

132
Q

what is shock?

A

an acute state of circulatory collapse

133
Q

define shock

A

it is defined as the inability of the circulation to transport enough oxygen to meet tissues needs

134
Q

what are the 4 major types of shock?

A

hypovolaemic
distributive
cardiogenic
obstructive

135
Q

what is the most common form of shock?

A

hypovolaemic

136
Q

what causes hypovolaemic shock?

A

loss/reduced of circulating blood volume
blood loss
loss of fluids through diarrhoea/vomiting

137
Q

what is the defining feature of distributive shock?

A

loss of peripheral resistance

138
Q

what does the loss of total peripheral resistance in distributive shock cause?

A

allows blood to pool in the small blood vessels

139
Q

what are the 4 main divisions of distributive shock?

A

septic shock
toxic shock
anaphylactic shock
neurogenic shock

140
Q

what is cardiogenic shock caused by?

A

heart not working properly so there is inefficient oxygen/blood supply to the tissues

141
Q

what is obstructive shock caused by?

A

obstruction

142
Q

what are 3 common causes of obstructive shock?

A

pericardial effusion
pulmonary embolism
gastric dilation and voluvus

143
Q

what are the general nursing considerations that need to be made when treating a patient with shock?

A

close monitoring as change can happen quickly
oxygen
slow warming after treatment has started
quiet environment to reduce stress and so oxygen consumption

144
Q

what are nursing considerations that need to be made when treating a patient with hypovolaemic shock?

A

place an IV catheter
intravenous fluids
stop haemorrage

145
Q

what are nursing considerations that need to be made when treating a patient with distributive shock?

A

find underlying cause ASAP through history and questioning
place IV catheter
IV fluids

146
Q

what are the 3 first aid tests that can be used as markers of shock?

A

measure blood pressure
measure urine output
measure blood lactate

147
Q

what does urine output during shock show?

A

whether the kidneys are retaining water and so illustrating reduced blood volume

148
Q

what do lactate levels show?

A

amount of anaerobic respiration occurring in the tissues and producing lactate

149
Q

what are 4 main cardiac emergencies?

A

acute congestive heart failure (CHF)
pericardial effusion
aortic thromboembolism
arrhythmias (irregular, tachycardia or bradycardia)

150
Q

what are the key nursing considerations of cardiovascular emergencies?

A 
oxygen
place IV catheter
ECG attached to patient
analgesia to help with pain and to calm
kept in a calm and quiet environment
ultrasound ready
prep for pleural or pericardial tap
151
Q

what equipment is often used during cardiovascular emergencies?

A

3 way tap - pericardial or pleural tap
ECG machine
Butterfly catheter (tap)
ECG trace

152
Q

are aural emergencies usually life threatening?

A

no but can be distressing to owner and patient

153
Q

what are 3 common aural emergencies?

A

aural foreign body
otitis externa and media
aural haematoma

154
Q

what is otitis externa?

A

outer ear infection often leading to self trauma

155
Q

what is otitis media?

A

middle ear infection

156
Q

what are common signs of otitis media?

A

head tilt and altered walking pattern

157
Q

what causes aural haematoma?

A

headshaking

fighting/paly

158
Q

what is an aural haematoma?

A

collection of blood between skin and cartilage of ear

159
Q

what equipment is required for aural emergencies?

A

Elizabethan collar
otoscope
analgesia (to prevent further self trauma)

160
Q

what are the 2 main environmental emergencies?

A

hyperthermia

hypothermia

161
Q

what can cause hyperthermia?

A

bracheocephallic breeds are prone due to altered respiration
heat stroke
over exercise
seizure

162
Q

what can cause hypothermia?

A

sedation
anaesthesia
shock (particularly in cats)

163
Q

what are other environmental emergencies?

A

burns
smoke inhalation
electrocution

164
Q

what can smoke inhalation cause?

A

pulmonary oedema

165
Q

what can electrocution cause?

A

burns and pulmonary oedema

166
Q

at what temperature should cooling start for hyperthermia?

A

41.5 degrees

167
Q

at what temperature should cooling end for hyperthermia?

A

39.5 degrees

168
Q

why can active cooling end before the body temperature has returned to normal?

A

cooling continues within the body

169
Q

what methods of active cooling are there?

A

fan
cool mat
cooling coats

170
Q

what can be done to raise body temperature in hypothermic patients?

A

bubble wrapping limbs
warmed IV fluids (including fluid line)
Bair Hugger - warm air filled cover that can be laid over the patient and act as insulation

171
Q

which patients are often hypothermic?

A

sick/sedated/anaesthetised

172
Q

what methods of heating should not be used in hypothermic patients?

A

heat lamps or mats where the patient cannot move themselves away from the heat and may get burned

173
Q

what are the main points when treating burns?

A

15 mins under running, cold water ASAP but at practise if owner is unable
analgesia
prevent interference and infection
treat shock

174
Q

what are superficial burns?

A

involve only the epidermis

175
Q

what are partial thickness burns?

A

involve the epidermis and dermis

176
Q

what are full thickness burns?

A

involve destruction of the epidermis, dermis and any or all underlying structures (muscle, fat, bones, nerves)

177
Q

are full thickness burns the most painful?

A

no as nerves are damaged so painful signal cannot reach the brain/be registered

178
Q

what is the other way that burns can be described?

A

% of body burnt

179
Q

what are the 3 main types of trauma?

A

haemorrhage
wounds
fractures

180
Q

define haemorrhage

A

loss of blood from vessels

181
Q

how is haemorrhage best assessed?

A

cardiovascular parameters - HR, MM, CRT

182
Q

what are the 2 presentations of haemorrhage?

A

internal

external

183
Q

how can you tell what vessel is loosing blood?

A

arteries spurt

veins and capillaries ooze darker blood

184
Q

what may affect haemorrhage?

A

clotting disorders

185
Q

what is the main first aid concern with haemorrhage?

A

apply pressure to wound with sterile dressing and complete primary and secondary survey

186
Q

what may indicate internal haemorrhage?

A

breathing difficulties
swollen abdomen
melena
blood in urine

187
Q

what can be done to try and slow bleeding in limbs?

A

partial occlusion of blood vessels above injury in order to reduce supply - only temporary

188
Q

what are the 6 types of wound?

A 
incised
lacerated
abrasion/grazes
contusion
puncture
gunshot
189
Q

describe incised wounds

A

clean cut, usually surgical or can be glass/metal

190
Q

describe lacerated wounds

A

tearing of tissue with a less sharp/more jagged material. Always dirty (e.g. barbed wire)

191
Q

describe abrasion/grazes

A

don’t penetrate skins full thickness and are often very dirty with embedded gravel/dirt

192
Q

describe contusion

A

bruising- bleeding from capillaries under the skin surface. May indicate deeper injury and often accompanied by abrasion

193
Q

describe puncture wounds

A

small external wound with massive internal/deep tissue damage. Will rapidly become infected and then liffe threatening

194
Q

describe gunshot wounds

A

mixed - vary due to differing types of shot. A small entry wound often hides massive internal damage

195
Q

how should a wound be treated on initial viewing?

A

cover to prevent contamination and complete primary and secondary survey
give analgesia ASAP
once/if patient is stable clip wide area around the wound
flush wound with warmed 0.9% NaCl
then approach vet about dressing/suture

196
Q

what should the wound be covered with prior to clipping to prevent contamination from clipped hair?

A

sterile water soluble gel

197
Q

what wounds should be flushed under GA and why?

A

bites/punctures to assess depth of injury

198
Q

what is a fracture?

A

a break in the continuity of the bone

199
Q

what is a complete fracture?

A

both sides of the bone are broken

200
Q

what is an incomplete fracture?

A

only one side of the bone is broken

201
Q

what is the difference between open and closed fractures?

A

open fractures have broken through the skin, closed have not

202
Q

what is the difference between pathological and traumatic fractures?

A

pathological fractures are caused by disease rather than direct trauma

203
Q

what are luxations?

A

dislocation

204
Q

how should a patient with suspected fractures be transported?

A

minimal movement

in a cage/box wherever possible

205
Q

what must always be preformed on fracture patients?

A

primary and secondary surveys as fracture is often no the most life threatening problem

206
Q

what is metabolism?

A

chemical reactions that occur within living organisms in order to maintain life

207
Q

when do metabolic emergencies occur?

A

when homeostasis is not maintained by normal metabolic processes

208
Q

what are 5 common metabolic emergencies?

A 
hypoglycaemia
hyperkalaemia
hypocalcaemia
hypoadrenocorticism (addisons disease)
diabetic ketoacidosis
209
Q

what is hypoglycaemia?

A

low blood sugar

210
Q

how can an owner aid their hypoglycaemic patient?

A

smear honey on the gums

211
Q

what are the main signs of hypoglycaemia?

A

weakness, collapse, seizures, coma

212
Q

what is hyperkalaemia?

A

increase in blood K+ leading to cardiac issues

213
Q

what can hyperkalaemia lead to?

A

bradycardia and asystole

214
Q

how can hyperkalaemia be managed once in practice?

A

IV fluids and drugs to protect the heart and lower K+ concentration in the blood

215
Q

what is hypocalcaemia?

A

low calcium

216
Q

what is hypoadrenocorticism?

A

impaired secretion of adrenal hormones - leads to a multitude of issues including hypo/hyperkalaemia

217
Q

what are the signs of hypoadrenocorticism?

A

vague - collapse, weakness, depression, acute vomiting or diarrhoea

218
Q

what is diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

hyperglycaemia over a long period of time leading to cells breaking down proteins and lipids to gain energy as glucose is not being stored.

219
Q

what are the signs of diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

vague - weight loss, collapse and excessive urination and drinking

220
Q

what questions can be asked on the phone to aid identification of metabolic emergencies?

A

is the patient lactating (identify hypocalcaemia)
can the patient urinate normally
does the patient have diabetes
has the patient been polydipsic (prior to collapse)
does the patient smell of pear drops (not reliable as not all owners can smell this)
is there sudden diarrhoea/vomiting
are the mm normal and is CRT normal

221
Q

what are 3 main urological emergencies?

A

urethral obstruction
uroabdomen
acute renal failure

222
Q

what can urethral obstruction be caused by?

A

cellular debris
stones
cancer
stricture

223
Q

within how many hours is urethral obstruction life threatening?

A

24 hours

224
Q

what animal is urethral obstruction seen in?

A

male cats

225
Q

what is uroabdomen?

A

urine leaking into abdomen due to hole on the urinary tract

226
Q

why can uroabdomen and urethral obstruction lead to hyperkalaemia?

A

waste cannot be voided and so K+ builds up

227
Q

what is acute renal failure?

A

sudden failure of kidneys

228
Q

what causes acute renal failure?

A

blood clots, medication, toxins, end point of chronic renal failure

229
Q

what are the main first aid considerations when nursing a urological emergency?

A 
careful and extensive phone triage to discover signalment, drinking, urination and history of trauma
careful handling
pain relief ASAP
place IV catheter
consider whether PPE is needed
230
Q

why may PPE be needed for urological emergencies?

A

some cases of acute renal failure are zoonotic

231
Q

what equipment should be made ready when you know a urological emergency is on the way?

A 
equipment for: 
monitoring urine output
anaesthesia
urinary catheters
imaging of tract
232
Q

on what animals may cystocytosis not be performed?

A

draining of urine from bladder via needle - not in cats as tissue is too friable

233
Q

what is the main equipment needed in urological emergencies?

A

IV catheter
suture material
urinary catheter and suture device to hold it in place
IV fluids

234
Q

name 5 common toxins of cats and dogs

A 
cats:
lilies
anti-freeze
advantix (spot on for dogs)
paracetamol
poison
dogs:
raisins
grapes
chocolate
paracetamol (overdose as dogs can metabolise it)
poison
235
Q

what are important questions to ask during telephone triage of a toxological emergency?

A 
exactly what has been ingested
how much
how long ago
how long exposed (level of absorption and will inform treatment)
body weight of patient
symptoms
contact details
236
Q

what should you advise the client when dealing with a toxological emergency?

A

consider own safety - bite risk and poisoning
safely - bring sample/package
prevent the patient licking dermal contamination
directions to practice

237
Q

what are the 4 key aims of toxological first aid?

A

identify poison and amount ingested/exposed to
prevent further absorption of poison
treat any signs that develop symptomatically (e.g. ulceration, seizures, pain)
administer antidote (rare) or specific treatment

238
Q

what is a toxbox?

A

access to common antidotes/poison treatments which are not often needed in practice and would be costly to buy in and often dispose of.
Many locations across the country - may have to drive to get it

239
Q

where can you get more information about poisons?

A

VPIS - 24hr helpline for both vets and owners

BSAVA/VPIS guide

240
Q

how much of gastric contents should be cleared by emesis?

A

40-60%

241
Q

how many hours after ingestion of poison is emesis effective?

A

up to 3

242
Q

when should emesis not be induced?

A

with caustic/acidic substances
volatile petroleum (or anything ending in ‘ol’)
patients with cardiac or laryngeal disease (vomiting will stress heart and patients with laryngeal disease cannot protect airway from vomit)
depressed or seizing patients
patients that can’t vomit (rabbits/horses)

243
Q

what drugs are used to induce emesis in dogs and cats?

A

Apermorphine (Emedog) - dogs

Xylazine - cats

244
Q

what are the main nursing considerations when performing dermal decontamination?

A

wear PPE including face mask
use warm water
clip hair where possible instead of washing
take care when drying not to increase skin temp

245
Q

what effect can hot water have on dermal contamination?

A

increase speed of absorption through the skin

246
Q

what are the main nursing considerations for occular decontamination?

A

contaminated eyes flushed with sterile 0.9% NaCl
after flushing cornea should be stained with fluorescein and examined for ulceration
check pH

247
Q

what are the 4 most common GI first aid emergencies?

A

GI obstructions
vomiting
diarrhoea
gastric dilatation-volvulus

248
Q

what is volvulus?

A

twisting

249
Q

what are the important questions to ask in a telephone triage of GI emergencies?

A

history of ingestion
sudden unproductive retching, restless, salivation, hard bloated abdomen
vomiting and lethargy
diarrhoea and lethargy

250
Q

what is an important consideration when discussing possible GI emergencies over the phone?

A

the breed of the dog - deep chested breeds need to have GDV considered

251
Q

what are the main nursing considerations during GI emergencies?

A

PPE and consideration as to route through practice if infectious disease is possible
ABC’s
place a catheter
prepare a stomach tube
consider shock, hypothermia and hypoglycaemia

252
Q

what are the 5 main reproductive emergencies?

A 
dystocia
neonatal resuscitation
paediatric emergencies
pyometra
paraphimosis
253
Q

define dystocia

A

difficulty giving birth or progressing with birth

254
Q

what are some key paediatric emergencies?

A

hypothermia

hypoglycaemia

255
Q

what is pyometra?

A

life threatening condition of uterus seen in entire bitches/queens

256
Q

when is pyometra often seen?

A

4-6 weeks post season (can be up to 3-12)

257
Q

what within a history may indicate pyometra?

A

vague history of polydipsea, inappetance and vulval discharge

258
Q

what is paraphimosis?

A

penis extrudes and becomes stuck out of the prepuce

259
Q

within what sort of animals is paraphimosis seen?

A

entire dogs

260
Q

what indicates dystocia?

A

unproductive straining for over 1hr after start of stage 2

unproductive straining for over 30 minutes after last puppy

261
Q

what RR is considered high in cats and dogs?

A

> 40

262
Q

what are the signs of respiratory distress in cats?

A 
hunched over
hiding
coughing (hacking sound)
open mouth breathing (can also be seen in distress but only lasts a short term)
blue tinged gums
foam/froth from mouth
263
Q

what are the signs of respiratory distress in dogs?

A 
constant coughing (especially at night)
exercise intolerance
change in bark sounds/vocalisation
anxious/restless/pacing
panting
stretching neck to make passage of air easier
lack of lateral recumbancy (more sternal)
tired
abduction of elbows
blue gums/foam from mouth
paradoxical/abdominal breathing
264
Q

what is sub-cutaneous crepitus?

A

air escapes from lung through hole and collects in sub-Q tissues

265
Q

what can cause sub-Q crepitus?

A

break in pleural integrity

266
Q

what happens during a pneumothorax?

A

pleural space fills with air due to breach in integrity of lung tissue

267
Q

what is a tension pneumothorax?

A

large hole that becomes rapidly life threatening, the leak functions as the one way valve. Air enters on inspiration and doesn’t exit leading to increasing compression of the lung. The air must be drained

268
Q

how should respiratory patients be nursed?

A

airway should be maintained in obtunded and unconscious patients (extend neck and pull tongue)
provide supplementary O2
restrict movement in small/comfortable space
management of ambient/patient temperature
reduction of stress leading to reduction of O2 need

269
Q

what are the main causes of neurological emergencies?

A

head trauma
seizures
spinal cord disease
vestibular disease

270
Q

define seizure

A

uncontrolled burst of electrical activity between brain cells. Causes temporary abnormalities in muscle tone/movement but doesn’t necessarily mean loss of consciousness

271
Q

what are the main causes of spinal cord disease?

A 
injuries
infections
compression by fractured bone
loss of blood supply
tumor
272
Q

what are the signs of spinal cord disease?

A

weakness
paralysis
sensation is abnormal/lost
bladder/bowel functions are lost or different

273
Q

what is required for seizure patients?

A

those in status epilepticus require immediate care, those who are no longer seizing may appreciate time in a quiet area to readjust

274
Q

what are vestibular diseases?

A

group of diseases affecting balance systems

275
Q

what are the main principles of neurological nursing?

A 
ABCs
immobilise suspected fractures
head elevated 30 degrees in head trauma
monitor temperature
history of toxin exposure
hypoglycaemia

X PPPVN (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions