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Extremities (2) > Final Exam DB > Flashcards

Final Exam DB Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The following structures emerge directly below the inferior border of the piriformis muscle except:
    a. Obturator nerve
    b. Sciatic nerve
    c. Inferior gluteal artery
    d. Inferior gluteal nerve
A

A

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2
Q
  1. The triceps coxae includes the following muscles except:
    a. Obturator externus
    b. Obturator internus
    c. Gemelli superior
    d. Gemelli inferior
A

A

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3
Q
  1. Identify the strongest lateral rotator of the thigh:
    a. Gluteus medius
    b. Gluteus maximus
    c. Obturator internus
    d. Quadratus femoris
A

D

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4
Q
  1. Piriformis syndrome is most often caused by:
    a. Compression of lumbosacral nerve roots as they exit the spinal canal
    b. Irritation of the sciatic nerve just proximal to its bifurcation in the popliteal fossa
    c. Irritation of the sciatic nerve by piriformis muscle spasm
    d. Irritation of the sciatic nerve by a weak piriformis muscle
A

C

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5
Q
  1. Piriformis syndrome differs from “sciatica” by:

a. The distribution of the sensory deficits
b. The cause
c. Distribution of weakness
d. All of the above

A

B

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6
Q
  1. Which hamstring muscle has an insertion that reinforces the intercondylar part of the knee capsule?
    a. Semitendionsus
    b. Semimembranosus
    c. Long head biceps femoris
    d. Short head biceps femoris
A

B

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7
Q
  1. Identify the hamstring muscle that is innervated by the fibular division of the sciatic nerve.
    a. Semitendinosus
    b. Semimembranosus
    c. Long head biceps femoris
    d. Short head biceps femoris
A

D

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8
Q
  1. Which hamstring muscle provides a protective covering over the sciatic nerve as it descends in the posterior thigh?
    a. Semitendinosus
    b. Semimembranosus
    c. Long head biceps femoris
    d. Short head biceps femoris
A

C

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9
Q
  1. Identify the following statement regarding hamstring injuries that is the least accurate.
    a. The biceps femoris is rarely injured
    b. Most injuries occur in the process of decelerating the tibia
    c. The risk of hamstring injury increases with age
    d. Hamstring strengthening decreases the risk of injury
A

A

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10
Q
  1. The following statements accurately describe the femoral nerve except:
    a. The femoral nerve is composed of nerve roots from L2-4
    b. Passes beneath the inguinal canal medial to the femoral artery
    c. Forms in the psoas muscle in the abdomen
    d. Supplies the anterior compartment of the thigh
A

B

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11
Q
  1. The obturator nerve:
    a. Supplies the muscles of the posterior compartment of the thigh
    b. Is composed of sacral nerve roots
    c. Passes through the adductor canal
    d. Splits into anterior and posterior branches that surround the adductor brevis
A

D

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12
Q
  1. The following statements regarding the sciatic nerve are accurate except:
    a. The sciatic nerve supplies a number of gluteal muscles
    b. It is the largest nerve in the body
    c. It is large enough to have its own named arterial supply
    d. As it passes from beneath the piriformis muscle it is lateral to the inferior gluteal artery & nerve
A

A

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13
Q
  1. The perforating arteries of the profunda femoris supply blood to:
    a. The anterior compartment of the thigh
    b. The posterior compartment of the thigh
    c. The medial compartment of the thigh
    d. All of the above
A

D

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14
Q
  1. The femoral artery supplies all of the following except:
    a. The anterior compartment
    b. The head & neck of the femur
    c. The gluteal muscles
    d. The profunda femoris
A

C

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15
Q
  1. Dorsiflexion of the foot
    a. Is as powerful as plantar flexion
    b. Employs muscles from the posterior compartment
    c. Employs lateral compartment muscles
    d. Is 25% as powerful as plantar flexion
A

D

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16
Q
  1. The anterior compartment of the leg is innervated by:
    a. The deep fibular nerve
    b. The common tibial nerve
    c. The superficial fibular nerve
    d. The tibial nerve
A

A

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17
Q
  1. The posterior compartment of the leg is innervated by:
    a. The deep fibular nerve
    b. The common fibular nerve
    c. The superficial fibular nerve
    d. The tibial nerve
A

D

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18
Q
  1. The common fibular nerve is vulnerable to compression
    a. As it crosses posterior to the femoral artery at the adductor hiatus
    b. As it loops around the distal fibular medial to the lateral malleolus
    c. As it winds around the lateral aspect of the fibular neck
    d. As it branches off laterally from the sciatic nerve
A

C

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19
Q
  1. Common fibular nerve injury results in impaired:

a. Plantar flexion
b. Dorsiflexion
c. Both
d. Neither

A

C

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20
Q
  1. Laceration of the ulnar nerve just proximal to the Guyon canal would result in:

a. Loss of flexion at the distal interphalangeal joint
b. Loss of extension of the thumb
c. Loss of flexion at the metacarpophalangeal joint of the 2nd & 3rd digits
d. Loss of abduction of the digits

A

D

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21
Q
  1. The gluteus medias acts in relation to the gluteus maximus as a(n)
    a. Antagonist
    b. Synergist
    c. Both
    d. Neither
A

C

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22
Q
  1. The tibialis anterior is located in what compartment?
A

Anterior compartment

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23
Q
  1. The soleus is located in which compartment?
A

Superficial posterior compartment

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24
Q
  1. The flexor digitorum longus is located in which compartment?
A

Deep posterior compartment

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25
Q
  1. The superficial fibular nerve supplies innervation to this compartment?
A

Lateral compartment

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26
Q
  1. This compartment contains the triceps surae muscles
A

superficial posterior compartment

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27
Q
  1. Damage to the nerves in this compartment would result in greater use of the thigh flexors in ambulation:
A

Anterior compartment

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28
Q
  1. The plantar flexion to dorsiflexion strength ratio is approximately:
    a. 4:1
    b. 2:1
    c. 1:2
    d. 1:1
A

A

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29
Q
  1. Shin splints are most accurately described as a mild: (FALL ’15)
    a. Muscle strain
    b. Nerve irritation
    c. Compartment syndrome
    d. Muscle weakness
A

C

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30
Q
  1. The triceps surae includes the following except:
    a. Medial head gastrocnemius muscle
    b. Lateral head gastrocnemius muscle
    c. Soleus muscle
    d. Popliteus muscle
A

D

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31
Q
  1. Rupture of the Achilles tendon is associated with all of the following except:
    a. The location of the rupture is a couple of inches from the insertion of the tendon on the calcaneus
    b. The injured person experiences great difficulty with flexion of the great toe
    c. The injured person has difficulty with plantar flexion of the ankle
    d. Recovery time can be 4-6 months or longer
A

B

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32
Q
  1. The following statements regarding the popliteal artery are accurate except:

a. It supplies the major branches involved in the perigenicular anastomotic network
b. It is located superficial to the popliteal vein in the popliteal fossa
c. It is at risk for injury in knee dislocations
d. Chronic repetitive flexion/extension cycles may play a role in the development of popliteal artery aneurysms

A

B

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33
Q
  1. On physical exam at the beginning of rehab of a patient with the X-ray below, the most likely physical finding would be? (A picture of a humerus fracture healed):

a. Weakness of all posterior compartment muscles of the upper extremity
b. Weakness of lateral head of triceps
c. Weakness of anconeus
d. Diminished brachial pulse

A

C

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34
Q
  1. With a lesion of this nerve elbow flexion is severely weakened
A

Lateral cord of the superior trunk

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35
Q
  1. All posterior compartment musculature of the upper extremity would be denervated by a lesion at this site:
A

Posterior cord

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36
Q
  1. Injury to this nerve would severely impair fine motor control of the hand, particularly the 4th and 5th digits:
A

medial cord

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37
Q
  1. Transection of the posterior cord would result in:
    a. Slightly weakened elbow flexion
    b. Impaired shoulder abduction
    c. Weakened supination of the hand with the elbow extended
    d. All of the above
A

D

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38
Q
  1. At which location will occlusion of the identified artery result in significant impairment of arterial flow to the distal upper extremity.
    a. Subclavian artery distal to the thyrocervical trunk
    b. Proximal profunda brachii artery
    c. Brachial artery just proximal to the profunda brachii artery
    d. Brachial artery just proximal to the thoracoacromial artery
A

C

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39
Q
  1. The interosseous membrane in the arm & leg does all of the following except:
    a. Connects long bones (tibia-fibula, radius-ulna)
    b. Provides a site of origination for muscles
    c. Plays a major role in force transmission from distal structures to proximal structures
    d. All are accurate
A

C

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40
Q
  1. The most powerful supinator of the hand when the elbow is flexed:
    a. Brachialis
    b. Biceps brachii
    c. Supinator
    d. Pronator quadratus
A

B

41
Q
  1. The most powerful supinator of the hand when the elbow is extended:
    a. Brachialis
    b. Biceps brachii
    c. Supinator
    d. Pronator quadratus
A

C

42
Q
  1. What structure lies on the posterior aspect of the knee joint capsule in the popliteal fossa?

a. Popliteal vein
b. The popliteal artery
c. Tibial nerve
d. Small saphenous vein

A

B

43
Q
  1. Significant blood supply to the femoral head and neck in an adult is least likely to arise from which of the following arteries?

a. The femoral artery
b. The profunda femoris artery
c. The medial circumflex artery
d. The obturator artery

A

D

44
Q
  1. Identify the ligament most effective at preventing hyper-abduction of the hip: (FALL ’15)
    a. Ischial femoral ligament
    b. Pubofemoral ligament
    c. Iliofemoral ligament
    d. Sacrospinous ligament
A

B

45
Q
  1. Which motion of the hip joint results in drawing the femoral head deeper into the acetabulum?

a. Flexion
b. Extension
c. Adduction
d. Abduction

A

B

46
Q
  1. The following muscles may contribute to the calcaneal ligament except:
    a. Gastrocnemius
    b. Popliteus
    c. Soleus
    d. Plantaris
A

B

47
Q
  1. The ligament of the head of the femur:

a. Is formed by the reflected head of the rectus femoris
b. Contains an artery essential to the vascular supply of the fetal femoral head
c. Forms a strong ligament key to maintaining hip integrity especially in extreme hip flexion
d. Attaches to the femoral neck OR all of the above

A

B

48
Q
  1. “The terrible triad of O’Donoghue” (also the “unhappy triad”) includes damage to all of the following except:
    a. Medial collateral ligament
    b. Anterior cruciate ligament
    c. Patellar ligament
    d. Medial meniscus
A

C

49
Q
  1. The ankle joint is more stable in dorsiflexion because:
    a. The trochlea of the talus is wider anteriorly than posteriorly
    b. The muscles involved in dorsiflexion are stronger than those of plantar flexion
    c. The medial and lateral malleoli move closer together in dorsiflexion
    d. The calcaneal ligament provides more reinforcement of the tibio-talar joint in dorsiflexion
A

A

Also- The medial and lateral malleoli move further apart in dorsiflexion

50
Q
  1. Which lateral ligament is most often injured in ankle injuries?

a. Anterior tibiofibular ligament
b. Posterior talofibular ligament
c. Calcaneofibular ligament
d. Anterior talofibular ligament

A

D

51
Q
  1. Ankle injuries most often involve
    a. Eversion while the foot is dorsiflexed
    b. Eversion while the foot is plantar flexed
    c. Inversion while the foot is plantar flexed
    d. Inversion while the foot is dorsiflexed
A

C

52
Q
  1. Which arch is supported by both the tibialis posterior and fibularis longus tendons?
    a. Medial arch
    b. Lateral arch
    c. Transverse arch
A

C

53
Q
  1. The active factors which support the arches of the foot including all of the following except:
    a. The reflexive bracing action of the intrinsic foot muscles
    b. Gastrocnemius muscle
    c. Flexor hallicus longus
    d. Flexor digitorum longus
A

B

54
Q
  1. The intrinsic muscles of the foot
    a. Refine the efforts of the long muscles of the leg to produce a stable platform
    b. Function to increase the transmission of force from the leg and thigh muscles to the ground
    c. Function as a group in supporting body weight and maintaining the arches of the foot
    d. All of the above
A

D

55
Q
  1. While standing at ease, the muscles that are most active include the erector spinae and…
    a. The triceps surae
    b. Biceps femoris
    c. Quadriceps, especially the vastus medialis
    d. Adductor magnus, adductor part
A

A

56
Q
  1. Periarticular anastomotic networks
    a. Allow for continuous blood flow despite single vessel occlusion
    b. Allow for continued flow despite extremes of joint position
    c. Create difficulty in the management of penetrating injuries of the hands and feet
    d. All of the above
A

D

57
Q
  1. When the knee is flexed to 90 which muscle is most effective for foot plantar flexion

a. Gastrocnemius
b. Soleus
c. Posterior tibialis
d. Extensor hallicus longus

A

B

58
Q
  1. John has had trouble catching his great toe when he’s walking, especially on deep shag carpet and going up the stairs. Injury to which of the following nerves would cause this difficulty?

a. Superficial fibular nerve
b. Deep fibular nerve OR common fibular nerve
c. Anterior tibial nerve
d. Lateral plantar nerve

A

B

59
Q
  1. All of the following are accurate regarding the fibula except:
    a. Distally it forms the lateral malleolus
    b. It bears ~10-15% of body weight while standing
    c. Articulates with the talus
    d. Articulates with the tibia
A

B

60
Q
  1. The area of the acetabulum involved in weight bearing is called:

a. The lunate surface
b. The acetabular rim
c. The acetabular articulum
d. The acetabular ligament

A

A

61
Q
  1. The following statements regarding the acetabular fossa are accurate except:
    a. It contains a fat pad
    b. It contains the ligament of the femoral head
    c. It is in direct contact with the articular surface of the femoral head during weight bearing
    d. The contents are covered by a synovial membrane
A

C

62
Q
  1. All of the following are accurate regarding the menisci of the knee except:
    a. The medial meniscus is directly attached to the medial collateral ligament
    b. The are free along their medial margins
    c. The lateral meniscus is larger
    d. They play a role in shock absorption in the knee
A

C

63
Q
  1. Which foot arch is mainly involved in maintaining balance?
    a. Medial arch
    b. Lateral arch
    c. Transverse arch
A

B

64
Q
  1. Acquired “fallen arches” are due to:
    a. Dysfunction of the tibialis posterior muscle
    b. A defect in the spring ligament
    c. A stress fracture of the calcaneal head
    d. A congenital defect in the talonavicular joint
A

A

65
Q
  1. During walking, foot/ankle dorsiflexors are most active:

a. Just prior to toe-off in a concentric contraction to produce preload in the plantar flexors
b. In an eccentric contraction as the forefoot is lowered to the ground immediately after heel strike
c. During the mid-stance phase maintaining the transverse arch
d. All of the above

A

B

66
Q
  1. Most of the muscular propulsive force in normal walking is provided by:

a. Plantar flexors
b. Dorsiflexors
c. Quadriceps muscles
d. Gluteus medius & minimus

A

A

67
Q
  1. The contents of the carpal tunnel includes all of the following except:

a. Tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus
b. Tendon of the flexor pollicis longus
c. Tendon of the palmaris longus
d. The median nerve

A

C

68
Q
  1. Identify the structure that exits the greater sciatic foramen and enters the lesser sciatic foramen:
    a. Superior gluteal nerve
    b. Inferior gluteal nerve
    c. Pudendal nerve
    d. Obturator nerve
A

C

69
Q

he fibula forms the lateral malleolus and:

a. Bears approximately 25% of the body weight
b. Provides a site for muscle attachment
c. Is completely avascular
d. Is the attachment site for the leg muscles of the medial compartment

A

B

70
Q
  1. Varicose veins are:
    a. Often only a cosmetic concern
    b. Can cause lower extremity discomfort
    c. Associated with hormonal changes
    d. All of the above
A

D

71
Q
  1. The formation of varicose veins in the leg is due to:
    a. Arterial pressure blood entering the venous system
    b. Increased blood flow due to an abnormal arterio-venous connection
    c. Incompetence of the valves in the venous system
    d. A connective tissue disorder involving type IV collagen
A

C

72
Q
  1. Leg flexors are supplied by which of the following nerves:
    a. Sciatic nerve
    b. Femoral nerve
    c. Obturator nerve
    d. All of the above
A

D

73
Q
  1. This test indicates normal function of: (Trendelenburg’s Sign – when standing on one leg, pelvis drops on the side opposite of the stance leg = weakens on the side of the stance leg, superior gluteal nerve)

a. The right femoral nerve
b. The left superior gluteal nerve (If lifting left leg, answer is right superior gluteal nerve)
c. The right inferior gluteal nerve
d. The left inferior gluteal nerve

A

B

74
Q
  1. The test pictured is used to assess the function of:
    a. the left gluteus medius muscle
    b. the right gluteus medius muscle (if lifting left leg)
    c. the right quadratus femoris
    d. the left inferior gluteal nerve
A

A

75
Q
  1. With respect to the adductor muscles (longus, brevis and magnus)
    a. Only the adductor magnus crosses both the hip and knee joint
    b. Play such a critical role that any diminished function results in functional disability
    c. Cutting the obturator nerve results in complete loss of adductor function
    d. None of the above
A

D

76
Q
  1. The following statements regarding the gluteus maximus are accurate except:

a. It is the largest muscle in the body
b. It inserts on the iliotibial tract and the gluteal tubercle of the femur
c. It is a strong hip/femur extender
d. It plays a major role in hip/femur abduction

A

D

77
Q
  1. All the posterior compartment thigh muscles, except the short head of the biceps femoris originate from:

a. Inferior pubic ramus
b. Ischial ramus
c. Ischial tuberosity
d. Ischial spine

A

C

78
Q
  1. The strongest foot dorsiflexor is:
    a. Extensor digitorum longus
    b. Extensor hallicus longus
    c. Tibialis anterior
    d. Fibularis tertius
A

C

79
Q
  1. All of the following muscles have an origination on the femur except: (FALL ’15)
    a. Gastrocnemius
    b. Popliteus
    c. Soleus
    d. Plantaris
A

C

80
Q
  1. The following statements regarding the posterior cruciate ligament are accurate EXCEPT:
    a. it is stronger than the anterior cruciate ligament
    b. in the flexed weight bearing knee, it is a major stabilizing element
    c. it passes medially to the ACL
    d. it prevents the anterior displacement of the tibia from the femur
A

D

81
Q
  1. The deltoid ligament of the ankle connects all of the following to the distal tibia EXCEPT:
    a. Cuboid
    b. Talus
    c. Calcaneus
    d. Navicular
A

A

82
Q
  1. Which arch is supported by both the tibialis anterior and the fibularis longus tendons?

a. medial arch
b. lateral arch
c. transverse arch

A

A

83
Q
  1. Passive factors maintaining the arches of the foot include all the following EXCEPT:

a. the shape of the bone to the foot
b. quadratus plantae muscle
c. spring ligament
d. plantar aponeurosis

A

B

84
Q
  1. The active factors that support the arches of the foot include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. the reflexive bracing action of the intrinsic foot muscles
b. soleus muscle
c. flexor hallicus longus
d. flexor digitorum longus

A

B

85
Q
  1. The following statements regarding hip dislocations are accurate EXCEPT
    a. posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations
    b. although less frequent than anterior dislocations, posterior dislocations are more often associated with sciatic nerve injuries
    c. although less common than posterior dislocations, anterior dislocations are more often associated with fractures of the acetabular rim
    d. a defect in the fibrous joint capsule may facilitate posterior hip dislocations
A

B

86
Q
  1. The forward motion of the thigh during the middle of the swing phase is due to

a. gluteus maximus contraction
b. quadriceps contraction
c. iliopsoas contraction
d. momentum

A

D

87
Q
  1. The major propulsive force in a normal walking gait on flat ground is
    a. the gluteus maximus
    b. the quadriceps
    c. hip extenders
    d. gravity
A

D

88
Q
  1. The popliteus muscle’s main function is to:

a. Resist anterior rotation of the medial condyle of the knee during extension
b. Pull the lateral meniscus posteriorly during knee flexion
c. Assist in knee abduction
d. Antagonize knee abduction

A

B

89
Q
  1. The main function of the labrum of the acetabulum is to:
    a. Prevent hyper extension of the hip
    b. To resist hyper flexion of the hip
    c. Increase the depth of the acetabulum
    d. Maintain the transverse angle of the femoral neck
A

C

90
Q
  1. The insertion of the Tibialis posterior:
    a. Navicular and cuboid bones
    b. Cuneiform bones
    c. Metatarsals
    d. A & B
    e. All of the above
A

E

91
Q
  1. Which one of these has an attachment to the extracapsular ligament?

a. Medial collateral ligament
b. Lateral collateral ligament
c. Both
d. Neither

A

C

92
Q
  1. A question about a runner that fractures a bone while running. Which bone is fractured that enables him to continue running and finish the race?
    a. Tibia
    b. Fibula
    c. Patella
    d. Femur
A

B

93
Q
  1. Blood supply to the cruciate ligaments:

a. Popliteal artery
b. Femoral artery
c. Middle genicular artery
d. An option I can’t remember

A

C

94
Q
  1. Action of the Fibularis tertius with the lateral leg compartment muscles:
    a. Antagonist
    b. Synergistic
    c. Both
    d. Neither
A

C… double check make sure this is correct…

95
Q
  1. Which muscle is responsible for initiation of walking when foot is planted?
    a. Tibialis anterior
    b. Plantaris
    c. Patella
    d. An answer I can’t remember
A

A

96
Q
  1. Impaired distal interphalangeal joint extension of the third digit would occur following interruption of which of the following nerves?

a. Posterior interosseous nerve
b. Median nerve
c. Ulnar nerve
d. All of the above

A

B

97
Q
  1. Which posterior compartment muscle crosses the fewest joints?
    a. Plantaris
    b. Popliteus
    c. Flexor Hallicus longus
    d. Tibialis posterior
A

B

98
Q

View rest of DB questions to review more. The rest are based on pictures

A

Happy Finals week!

Extremities (2) (28 decks)

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