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FINAL Flashcards

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1
Q

Identify and describe the four kinds of information that sensory inputs transmit (special senses)

A

TYPE - Hearing, smell, taste etc

INTENSITY - Strength of stimulus (decides which fibers respond, how many respond and how fast they are responding)

LOCATION - Where is it located? arm, finger etc

DURATION - How long does the stimulus last? (how long does it take you to adapt? clothes on skin, smell in a room etc)

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2
Q

Identify and describe the classifications of receptors by stimulus modality. What do they each respond to?

A

Thermoreceptors - temperature
Photoreceptors - light
Nociceptors - pain
Chemoreceptors - chemicals
Mechanoreceptors - physical pressure

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3
Q

Identify the name and number of the cranial nerve(s) involved in olfaction

A

Olfactory Nerve (I)

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4
Q

Identify the three auditory ausicles

A

Malleus
Incus
Stapes

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5
Q

What window does he stapes cover?

A

Oval Window

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6
Q

What is the function of the Organ of Corti?

A

Has hairs (stereocilia) that converts vibration to nerve signals as they open up potassium channels

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7
Q

How is loudness determined within the ear?

A

The vibrations

  • Soft sounds are associated with low vibrations
  • Loud sounds are associated with higher vibrations
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8
Q

How is pitch determined within the ear?

A

The length or distance of the vibrations within the basilar membrane

  • High pitch is at the closer end of the basilar membrane
  • Low pitch is at the further end of the basilar membrane
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8
Q

Describe linear acceleration and its associated structures

A

A change in velocity in a straight line detected by the saccule and utricle

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9
Q

Describe angular acceleration and its associated structures

A

A change in rate of rotation detected by the semicircular ducts

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9
Q

Identify the components of the fibrous layer of the eye

A

Sclera
Cornea

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10
Q

Identify the tunics of the eye in order from most superficial to least superficial

A

Fibrous Layer -
Vascular Layer -
Neural Layer -

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10
Q

Identify the components of the vascular layer of the eye

A

Choroid
Iris
Ciliary Body
(ChIC)

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11
Q

Identify the components of the neural layer of the eye

A

Retina
Beginning of the Optic Nerve

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12
Q

Identify and describe the common causes of blindness

A

Cataracts - Clouding of the lenses

Glaucoma - Result of pressure within the eye and damage to cells and the optic nerve

Macular Degeneration - Death of receptor cells in the retina

Diabetic Neuropathy - Caused by diabetes which affects the retinal blood vessels

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12
Q

What is the clinical term for normal vision?

A

Emmetropia

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12
Q

What is the clinical term for farsightedness? Nearsightedness?

A

Hyperopia
Myopia

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13
Q

What is an astigmatism?

A

An eye disorder caused when the lens or cornea is curved more steeply in one direction than another

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14
Q

What are the two photoreceptors? What type of vision are they both responsible for?

A

Rods - Night Vision, Shades of Gray
Cones - Day Vision, Color

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15
Q

What causes color blindness?

A

Lack of Cones in the eye that help process color (day vision)

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16
Q

Identify the name and number of the cranial nerve(s) involved in vision

A

Optic Nerve (II)

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17
Q

Exocrine vs Endocrine Glands

A

Exocrine - have ducts and EXTERNAL secretions

Endocrine - Lack ducts, INTERNAL secretions have affects on the internal mechanisms of a cell

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18
Q

List the 8 hormones produced by the hypothalamus

A

Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone
Growth Hormone Releasing Hormone
Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone
Thyrotropin Releasing Hormone
Somatostatin
Corticotropin Releasing Hormone
Oxytocin
Antidiuretic Hormone

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19
Q

What 2 hormones are stored in the posterior pituitary? What are their functions?

A

Oxytocin - Stimulate labor contractions and milk release
Antidiuretic Hormone - Retain water in the kidneys

ON AVERAGE

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20
Q

List the 6 hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland

A

Adrenocorticotropic H.
Thyroid Stimulating H.
Follicle Stimulating H.
Growth H.
Luteinizing H.
Prolactin

ALL THE FAT GIRLS LIKE PIZZA

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21
Q

HORMONES:
What Gland Secretes This Hormone + What is its Function?
Adrenocorticotropic Hormone

A

Anterior Pituitary

Stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids

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22
Q

HORMONES:
What Gland Secretes This Hormone + What is its Function?
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone

A

Anterior Pituitary

Stimulates secretion of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland

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23
Q

HORMONES:
What Gland Secretes This Hormone + What is its Function?
Follicle Stimulating Hormone

A

Anterior Pituitary

Stimulates secretion of femal sex hormones and sperm production

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24
Q

HORMONES:
What Gland Secretes This Hormone + What is its Function?
Growth Hormone

A

Anterior Pituitary

Stimulates mitosis and growth

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25
Q

HORMONES:
What Gland Secretes This Hormone + What is its Function?
Luteinizing Hormone

A

Anterior Pituitary

Stimulates ovulation and testosterone secretion

“LOT”

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26
Q

HORMONES:
What Gland Secretes This Hormone + What is its Function?
Prolactin

A

Anterior Pituitary

Stimulates mammary glands to synthesize milk

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27
Q

Identify and describe the three homeostatic imbalanaces associated with Growth Hormon

A

Gigantism - Hyperecretion in children
Acromegaly - Hypersecretion in adults
Pituitary Dwarfism - Hyposecretion in children

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28
Q

HORMONES:
What Gland Secretes This Hormone + What is its Function?
Parathyroid Hormone

A

Parathyroid Gland

Increases blood calcium by taking it out of the bone

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29
Q

What is the fuction of the adrenal medulla?

A

It is an endocrine gland and a main center for the sympathetic nervous system (fight or flight)

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30
Q

What types of hormones are released from the adrenal medulla? What are the two specific hormones? What is their function?

A

Catecholamines: Epinephrine, Norepinephrine

Increase alertness and prepare body for physical activity; decrease digestion and urine production

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31
Q

Identify the three layers of the adrenal cortex (outer to inner), what types of hormones they secrete, and their function

A

Zona Glomerulosa - Mineralocorticoids - regulate electrolyte balance

Zona Fasciculata - Glucocorticoids and Androgen

Zona Reticularis - Glucocorticoids and Androgen - Regulate metabolism

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32
Q

How do glucagon and insulin work?

A

Glucagon - Glucose out of the cell
Insulin - Glucose in the cell

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33
Q

Water vs Lipid Soluble Hormones

A

Water Soluble - Cannot Enter the Cell (by simple mechanism), likes being outside of the cell

Lipid Soluble - Can Enter the Cell

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34
Q

Identify and describe the three modes of hormone secretion

A

Neural Stimuli - Within the nervous sytem, brain

Hormonal Stimuli - Hormones causing other hormones to be released

Humural Stimuli - Stimuli from blood

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35
Q

Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

A

Insulin Resistance, treated with healthy diet or physical activity

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36
Q

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

A

Autoimmune disorder that destroys and causes low levels of insulin

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37
Q

What are the formed elements of blood?

A

Erythrocytes
Leukocytes
Thrombocytes

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38
Q

Define Hematocrit. How can it be affected (identify three)?

A

The total volume of whole blood that is red blood cells

Hydration
Blood Loss
Production Issues
Gender Differences (lower values in women)

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39
Q

What stem cell gives rise to all formed elements of blood?

A

Hemocytoblasts

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40
Q

What molecule in hemoglobin binds to oxygen? How many oxygen molecules can one hemoglobin molecule carry?

A

Iron
4

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41
Q

What is the term for erythrocyte production? What hormone controls this?

A

Erythropoiesis
Erythropoietin

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42
Q

What is Polycythemia? What are some causes?

A

Excess amount of RBCs that increase blood viscosity making it thicker and sticky

  • Bone Marrow Cancer
  • When minimal oxygen is available (high altitudes)
  • Erythropoietin production increase
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43
Q

Identify and describe the types of anemia that result from insufficient erythrocytes

A

Hemorrhagic Anemia - Bleeding
Hemolytic Anemia - RBC destruction
Aplastic Anemia - Inability to form RBC

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44
Q

Identify and describe the types of anemia that result from low hemoglobin content

A

Iron-deficiency Anemia - Iron deficient
Pernicious Anemia - Deficiency of vitamin B12

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45
Q

Hypoxemia vs Hypoxia

A

Hypoxemia - Low Oxygen in Blood
Hypoxia - Low Oxygen going to Tissues

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46
Q

What antigens are on the surface of RBCs for each blood type?

A

A - Antigen A
B - Antigen B
AB - Antigens A AND B
O - NONE

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47
Q

What are the antibodies within the plasma for each blood type?

A

A - Antibody B
B - Antibody A
AB - NONE
O - Antibody A AND B

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48
Q

What pathogens do each of the five leukocytes respond to?

A

Neutrophils - Bacteria
Lymphocytes - Viruses
Monocytes - Bacteria
Eosinophils - Parasitic Worms
Basophils - Allergies

BVBPA

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49
Q

What is thrombocytopenia?

A

Deficiency of thrombocytes (platelets)

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50
Q

Identify and briefly describe the three steps of hemostasis

A

Vascular Spasm - Constiction of Blood Vessels
Platelet Plug Formation -
Coagulation (Blood Clotting) - Reinforcing the plug

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51
Q

Identify and describe the phases of blood clotting

A
  • Factor X forms Prothrombin Activator
  • Prothrombin Activator forms Thrombin
  • Thrombin causes fibrinogen to form a fibrin mesh
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52
Q

What is hemophilia?

A

A family of hereditary diseases where the patient cannot form blood clots

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53
Q

What is the goal of the pulmonary circuit?

A

Carries deoxygenated blood to lungs for gas exchange and back to the heart

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54
Q

What is the goal of the systemic circuit?

A

Supplies oxygenated blood to all tissues of the body and returns it to the heart

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55
Q

What are the two circuits?
What side are they each associated with?
Does it deal with oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?

A

Pulmonary Circuit - Right
Deoxygenated Blood

Systemic Circuit - Left
Oxygenated Blood

LORD

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56
Q

Identify the three layers of the pericardium from most to least superficial (outside to inside). Where is serous fluid found?

A
  • Fibrous Pericardium
  • Parietal Layer
  • Serous Fluid (Pericardial Cavity)
  • Visceral Layer (Epicardium)
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57
Q

Identify and describe the layers of the heart wall from most to least superficial (from outside in)

A

Epicardium - Directly covers the heart and has coronary blood vessels traveling through it

Myocardium - Cardiac muscle. Fibrous skeleton anchors muscle fibers

Endocardium - Inner lining of the heart and blood vessles

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58
Q

What is the goal of the SL Valves?

A

SL Valves prevent backflow of blood into the right and left ventricle

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59
Q

List the pathway of blood through the heart

A

1 - Superior + Inferior Vena Cava, Coronary Sinus
2 - Right Atrium
3 - Tricuspid Valve
4 - Right Ventricle
5 - Pulmonary Valve
6 - Pulmonary Arteries
7 - Lungs
8 - Pulmonary Veins
9 - Left Atrium
10 - Mitral Valve
11 - Left Ventricle
12 - Aortic Valve
13 - Aorta

5-8 VALV

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60
Q

List the order of the cardiac conduction system

A

SA Node
AV Node
Bundle of His
Bundle Branches
Purkinje Fibers

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61
Q

Systole

A

Heart Contraction

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62
Q

Diastole

A

Heart Relaxation

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63
Q

What is a the absolute refractory period?
Compared to skeletal muscle, is a cardiomyocyte cell’s absolute refractory period longer or shorter? Why?

A

Absolute refractory period is a time in which a cell cannot be excited again

Cardiomyocytes have a longer absolute refractory period that allows the heart to beat continually (rather than remaining contracted for longer periods of time)

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64
Q

What causes the first heart sound?

A

When the tricuspid and mitral valves close (AV VALVES); this happens almost simultaneously

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65
Q

What causes the second heart sound?

A

When the pulmonary and aortic valves close (SL VALVES); this happens almost simultaneously

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66
Q

Identify and describe the phases of the cardiac cycle

A

Ventricular Filling - As the ventricles expand, the pressure drops and blood is filled from the RA into the RV via the tricuspid valve

Isovolumetric Contraction - A short period where all the valves are closed and the ventricles begin to contract, as this happens the pressure increases

Ventricular Ejection - The increased pressure triggers the SL Valves to open and blood flows out of the ventricles

Isovolumetric Relaxation - T wave ends
(Diastolic period) and ventricles begin to expand

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67
Q

End Diastolic Volume (EDV)

A

The amount of blood that remains in each ventricle after relaxation

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68
Q

End Systolic Volume (ESV)

A

The amount of blood remaining after contraction

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69
Q

What is the equation for cardiac output?

A

CO = HR x SV

Cardiac Output = Heart Rate x Stroke Volume

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70
Q

What happens to cardiac output if you increase or decrease your HR or SV?

A

Increase HR or SV - Increases CO
Decrease HR or SV - Decrease CO

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71
Q

Tachycardia

A

Persistent resting HR above 100 bpm

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72
Q

Bradycardia

A

Persistent resting HR below 60 bpm

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73
Q

What is the effect of positive chronotropic agents? Identify some examples

A

Raise HR
Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

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74
Q

What is the effect of negative chronotropic agents? Identify some examples

A

Lower HR
Acetylcholine

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75
Q

Stroke Volume (SV)

A

Amount of blood ejected from the ventricles with each contraction

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76
Q

Identify and describe how Preload affects SV

A

The amount of stretch in ventricles. The more stretch the more blood it can hold

(Increased preload leads to Increased SV)

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77
Q

Identify and describe how Contractility affects SV

A

How forcefully the heart muscle contracts for a given preload

(DIRECTLY PROPORTIONAL; Increased contractility leads to Increased SV)

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78
Q

Identify and describe how Afterload affects SV

A

Afterload - The sum of the forces a ventricle must overcome to eject blood. If you have high blood pressure the heart must work more forcefully to get blood into the aorta

(Increased afterload leads to decreased SV)

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79
Q

Identify and describe the three layers of vessels from least to most superficial (inside to out)

A

Tunica Intima - simple squamous epithelium; keeps blood cells from sticking

Tunica Media - Smooth Muscle; vasodilation and vasoconstriction

Tunica Externa - Collagen fibers anchors the vessel to surrounding tissue

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80
Q

Identify and describe the components of an aneurysm. What commonly causes it?

A

A weak point in an artery or within the heart wall that are likely to rupture causing hemorrhaging

Most commonly caused by atherosclerosis and HTN

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81
Q

Identify and describe the capillary types

A

Continuous - Least leaky; found in skin and muscles

Fenestrated - More permeable than continuous capillaries; found in organs that require rapid absorption + filtration: Kidneys + Small Intestine

Sinusoid - Most leaky, contain blood filled spaces + large fenestrations; found in liver, bone marrow, spleen

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82
Q

Pressure in Veins vs Arteries

A

Veins are steady, slow, and continuous unlike arteries

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83
Q

How are pressure, flow, and resistance related?

A

Flow = △ PRESSURE / RESISTANCE

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84
Q

If you increase or decrease pressure, how does that affect flow? Is this relationship inversely or directly proportional?

A

Flow = △ PRESSURE / RESISTANCE

If you increase pressure, you increase flow

If you decrease pressure, you decrease flow

Directly proportional

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85
Q

If you increase or decrease resistance, how does that affect flow? Is this relationship inversely or directly proportional?

A

Flow = △ PRESSURE / RESISTANCE

If you increase resistance, you decrease flow

If you decrease resistance, you increase flow

Inversely proportional

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86
Q

Define arteriosclerosis; how does it impact blood pressure?

A

The stiffening of arteries due to deterioration of elastic tissues

Increases blood pressure to try to increase flow

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87
Q

Define atherosclerosis; how does it impact blood pressure?

A

The buildup of fats, cholesterol, ad other substances on the artery wall

Increases blood pressure to try to increase flow

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88
Q

Hypertension

A

Chonic high resting BP
(any of the two numbers)

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89
Q

Hypotension

A

Chronic low resting BP
(any of the two numbers)

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90
Q

What three variables determine blood pressure? How does changing any of these factors effect BP

A
  • Cardiac Output
  • Blood volume
  • Resistance to flow

These are all directly proportional to BP; if you increase any you increase BP, If you decrease any you decfrease BP

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91
Q

What is peripheral resistance?

A

The resistance of flow that blood encounters away from the heart

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92
Q

What three factors affect peripheral resistance?

A

Blood Viscosity
Directly Proportional

Vessel Length
Directly Proportional

Vessel Radius
Inversely Proportional

93
Q

HORMONAL CONTROL ON VASOMOTOR ACTIVITY:
Identify and describe the function + production of Angiotensin II

A

Angiotensin I > Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) > Angiotensin II

It is a potent vasoconstrictor that raises blood pressure

94
Q

NEURAL CONTROL ON VASOMOTOR ACTIVITY:
Identify the function of Aldosterone

A

Increase BP by retaining sodium + water in the kidneys

95
Q

NEURAL CONTROL ON VASOMOTOR ACTIVITY:
Identify the function of Natriuretic Peptides

A

Secreted by the heart causing the kidneys to excrete sodium + water and has a vasodilator effect which both lower BP

96
Q

NEURAL CONTROL ON VASOMOTOR ACTIVITY:
Identify the function of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

A

Promotes water retention and raises BP

97
Q

NEURAL CONTROL ON VASOMOTOR ACTIVITY:
Identify the function of Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

A

Stimulates vasoconstriction and raises BP

98
Q

What is edema?

A

Accumulation of excess fluid in a tissue

99
Q

Identify and describe the three primary causes of edema

A

Increased Capilary Filtration- Too much liquid leaving the capillaries

Reduced Capillary Reabsorption - Not enough fluid is being absorbed by the capillaries

Obstructed Lymphatic Drainage - Lymphatic issues with draining excess fluid

100
Q

What is venous return? Identify and describe the five mechanisms that help achieve this

A

Flow of blood back to the heart

Pressure Gradient - difference in pressure that drives flow

Gravity - Drains blood from the head to the neck

Skeletal Muscle Pump - Moving muscles to help milk blood through the veins

Thoracic Pump - Pressure changes that come from breathing allows blood to be sucked up to the heart

Cardiac Suction - Suction draws blood from the vena cava into the atria

GPS TC

101
Q

Identify and describe the two types of circulatory shock

A

Cardiogenic Shock - Inadequate pumping of the heart

Hypovolemic Shock - Most common; due to a loss of blood

102
Q

Identify the functions of the immune system

A

Fluid Recovery - Look out for and filter pathogens from excess fluid from the capillaries

Immune Surveilance - picks up foreign cells and chemicals from tissues

Lipid Absorption - Uses lacteals in the small intestines to absorb fat that is not absorbed by the capillaries

FRISLA

103
Q

What is the flow of lymph starting at the capillaries

A

Capillaries
Vessles
Trunks
Ducts
Subclavean Veins

104
Q

Identify the two collecting ducts and describe the regions of the body that they each drain

A

Right Lymphatic Duct - Right head, Right Arm + Right throax region
Thoracic Duct - Everywhere else; Most of the body

105
Q

Identify and describe the cells associated with the lymphoid system

A

Neutrophils - Antibacterial

Natural Killer (NK) Cells - Destroy infected host cells and cancerous cells

Macrophages - Eat unwanted material; hold + display antigens for other immune cells

Dendritic Cells - Hold + Display antigens for other immune cells

T Cells - Mature in Thymus

B Cells - Make antiBodies

Nice nancy moves downtown (for) TB

106
Q

Identify primary lymphoid organs and decribe their function

A

Red Bone Marrow + Thymus
This is where T and B cells learn to be active lymphocytes and are sent to secondary lymphoid organs

107
Q

Identify secondary lymphoid organs and decribe their function

A

Lymph Nodes, Tonsils, Spleen
After leaving primary lymphoid organs they do thier job within the lymphatic system

108
Q

What is the function of red bone marrow?

A

Create the formed elements of blood + provide immunity; Develop B Cells

109
Q

Lymphadenitis

A

Inflammation in response to foreign pathogens and antigens

110
Q

Lymphadenopathy

A

Term used to describe lymph node diseases

111
Q

Identify and describe the four functions of the spleen

A
  • Breakdown RBC
  • Blood cell production for fetal life
  • Lymphocytes within the white pulp that destroy pathogens
  • Stabilizes blood volume
112
Q

Innate vs Adaptive Immune Systems

A

Innate - Defenses we are born with; has a local effect
First and Second Lines of Defense

Adaptive - Defends against specific pathogens; has memory
Third Line of Defense

113
Q

Identify the type and components of the second line of defense

A

Internal Defences: PINK AF
- Phagocytes
- Inflammation
- NK Cells
- Antimicrobial Proteins
- Fever

114
Q

Identify the role of pyrogens and what happens during this state

A

Raise the body’s thermostat causing a fever
- Promotes interferon activity (alarm nearby cells)
- Elevate metabolism and tissue repair
- Inhibit reproduction of bacteria and viruses

115
Q

What is the impact of antipyretics?

A

These are fever reducing medications like tylenol.

Reducing the fever slows down the speed it takes for our bodies to recover

116
Q

Identify the four cardinal signs of inflammation

A

Swelling
Heat
Redness
Pain

SHRP (Sherp)

117
Q

Identify and describe the steps and purpose of phagocyte mobilization

A

Phagocyte Mobilization is the process by which we get phagocytes to injured areas
- - - - -
Leukocytosis - Neutrophils enter the blood from bone marrow

Margination - Stick to the wall of the capillaries

Diapedesis of Neutrophils - Flatten and squeeze between capillary gaps

Chemotaxis - Chemical trail that tells neutrophils where to go (chemical taxi)

Let Me Drive Cars

118
Q

Identify and describe the two branches of the adaptive immune system

A

Cellular Immunity - T Cells attack foreign and affected host cells
Humoral Immunity - B Cells tag pathogens for destruction

119
Q

Define Antigen

A

A foreign substance that triggers immune response in our bodies

120
Q

Define Haptens; Identify some examples

A

“Half” or incomplete antigens. When they interact with someone’s specific proteins it creates antibodies against them

Examples include things that some people are allergic to, but not others:
Poison Ivy, Animal Dander, Detergent, Cosmetics

121
Q

Identify and describe Mature T Cell Selection Processes

A

Positive Selection - Must be able to bind to MHC Proteins (an antigen presenting cell)

Negative Selection - Must NOT bind to self antigens

122
Q

What are antigen presenting cells? What cell types are included?

A

Cells that have MHC on their surface and present the antigens

Includes:
Dendritic Cells, Macrophages, and B Cells

123
Q

Describe what happens if an APC displays a self-antigen OR a non-self antigen to a T-Cell

A

SELF Antigen - T Cell Disregards it
NONSELF Antigen - T Cell attacks is

124
Q

When a B Cell undergoes clonal selection what do most cells differentiate to? What do they secrete ?

A

Plasma Cells: Antibodies

125
Q

Identify Antibody Class:
Pentamer and the first to be secreted in immune response

A

IgM

126
Q

Identify Antibody Class:
Found in plasma, mucus, saliva, tears, and breast milk

A

IgA

127
Q

Identify Antibody Class:
Functions in B Cell activation

A

IgD

128
Q

Identify Antibody Class:
Constitutes 80% of circulating antibodies

A

IgG

129
Q

Identify Antibody Class:
Bound to Basophils and mast cells. Functions in inflammation and allergy response

A

IgE

130
Q

Agammaglobulinemia

A

Deficient number of antibodies

131
Q

Identify and describe the mechanisms in which antibodies assist the immune system

A

Neutralization - Neutralize epitopes on the antigens so that the antigens cannot cause harm

Complement Fixation - Activate Complement System

Agglutination - Causing enemy cells to clump, lose mobility, and phagocytes easily eat them

Precipitation - Antigen molecules clump together, lose mobility, and phagocytes easily eat them

132
Q

Primary Immune Response

A

Brought by the first exposure to an antigen:
Has a lag phase where it takes our B and T cells to be activated and start responding

133
Q

Secondary Immune Response

A

Immune response when you have already been exposed to the antigen:
Has no lag phase and immediate response; you often do not know you were infected or resolves in shorter time

134
Q

HUMORAL IMMUNITY:
Naturally Acquired Active

A

Infected with a pathogen (getting sick) and creating memory to respond in later time

135
Q

HUMORAL IMMUNITY:
Artificially Acquired Active

A

Vaccine with inactive viral particles and creating memory to respond in later time

136
Q

HUMORAL IMMUNITY:
Naturally Acquired Passive

A

Antibodies pass from mother to fetus or infant from placenta or milk; has no memory

137
Q

HUMORAL IMMUNITY:
Artificially Acquired Passive

A

Injection of immune serum or someone else’s antibodies and has no memory

138
Q

Conducting vs Respiratory Zone

A

Conducting Zone: Passage of airway
- Nostrils down through the major bronchioles

Respiratory Zone: Regions that participate in gas exchange
- Alveoli and the surrounding capillaries

139
Q

Identify the three divisions of the pharynx from most to least superior (top to bottom); identify the tissue that lines each of these

A

Nasopharynx: Ciliated Pseudostratified Columnar Epithelium

Oropharynx: Stratified Squamous Epithelium

Laryngopharynx: Stratified Squamous Epithelium

140
Q

What is the clinical term for a temporary opening in the trachea to allow for a tubal insert

A

Tracheotomy

141
Q

Which main bronchus is wider and more vertical? Why is this important to know?

A

The RIGHT Main Bronchus; this is important because foreign objects (through aspiration) often lodge in the right main bronchus more often than the left

142
Q

What type of tissue lines the alveoli?

A

Simple Squamous Epithelium

143
Q

Identify and describe the function of the different cells found in the alveoli?

A

Great Alveolar Cells: Secrete pulmonary surfactant that keep our alveoli from closing as we exhale; keeps them open

Alveolar Macrophages: Most numerous of all cells, and keep alveoli free from debris by phagocytosing dust particles

Squamous Alveolar Cells: Composed of simple squamous epithelium and allows for gas exchange

GAS

144
Q

What happens during inspiration?

A
  • Ribs + Intercostal Muscles Expands
  • Diaphragm Moves Down
  • Volume Increases (the size of our lungs) + Pressure decreases until the intrapulmonary pressure matches with that of the atmosphere
145
Q

What happens during expiration?

A
  • Ribs + Intercostal Muscles Relax
  • Diaphragm moves Up
  • Volume Decreases (the size of our lungs) + Pressure Increases until the intrapulmonary pressure matches with that of the atmosphere
146
Q

What factors influence airway resistance? How?

A

Bronchiole Diameter
- Bronchodilation lowers resistance and increases airflow (epinephrine)
- Bronchoconstriction increases resistance and decreases airflow (cold air, allergies)

Pulmonary Compliance
- Stretchiness and ability of the lungs to expand
- Increasing pulmonary compliance, decreasing resistance and increasing airflow
- Decreasing pulmonary compliance, increasing resistance and decreasing airflow

147
Q

Chemoreceptors

A

Brainstem neurons that responds to a chnage in pH of the CSF (reflected by the amount of CO2 in the blood)

148
Q

Stretch Receptors of the Respiratory System

A

Found in the smooth muscles of bronchi and bronchioles that responds to the amount of stretch as we are breathing in. This helps prevent us from breathing in for too long and avoiding damage to our muscles (Hering-Breur Reflex)

149
Q

Irritant Receptors

A

Nerve endings in the airway that restricts bronchioles in response to harmful substances to keep them out. This can causes us to hold our breath, take shallow breathing, or coughing.
Harmful substances include smoke, dust, pollen, fumes etc

150
Q

What is AVR and what does it tell us?

A

The amount of air that reaches the alveoli per minute of breathing. This tells us about our body’s ability to get oxygen to the tissues and dispose of CO2

151
Q

What is total lung capacity

A

The total amount of air the lungs can hold
ALL OF IT

152
Q

Restrictive vs Obstuctive Pulmonary Disorders
Identify an Example of Each
+ Where does Emphysema Fall

A

Restrictive: Loss of functional tissue that limits how much our lungs can inflate (ex: tuberculosis)

Obstructive: Interferance or block of the airway (ex: asthma)

Emphysema combines elements of both

153
Q

Identify (DO NOT DESCRIBE) the variables that affect alveolar gas exchange efficiency

A
  • PRESSURE GRADIENT
  • MEMBRANE SURFACE AREA
  • MEMBRANE THICKNESS
  • SOLUBILITY OF GASES
  • VENTILATION PERFUSION COUPLING

People Make Money (for) Speedy Vehicles

154
Q

VARIABLES AFFECTING ALVEOLAR GAS EXCHANGE:
Pressure Gradient

A

The pressure gradient of oxygen and carbon dioxide (the difference in concentrations across the membrane) draw oxygen into the blood and carbon dioxide out of the blood

155
Q

VARIABLES AFFECTING ALVEOLAR GAS EXCHANGE:
Solubility of Gases

A

Although CO2 has a lower pressure gradient (much closer to isotonic than O2) this balances out because CO2 is much more soluble and diffuses across the membrane much faster

156
Q

VARIABLES AFFECTING ALVEOLAR GAS EXCHANGE:
Membrane Surface Area

A

Higher surface areas are more efficient at gas exchange than lower suface areas

157
Q

VARIABLES AFFECTING ALVEOLAR GAS EXCHANGE:
Membrane Thickness

A

In pulmonary edema and pneumonia the respiratory membrane thickens and makes the gas exchange process much more difficult

158
Q

VARIABLES AFFECTING ALVEOLAR GAS EXCHANGE:
Ventilation-Perfusion Coupling

A

Pulmonary blood vessels dilating or consticting in relation to how much airflow is coming into a particular area of the lungs

159
Q

Identify the ways CO2 is transported in the body (what is percentage occurence of each)

A

90% - reacts with water to form carbonic acid which dissociates into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions to balance the pH of the blood

5% - binds to amino groups of proteins and hemoglobin to form carbaminohemoglobin; this allows us to transfer oxygen and carbon dioxide AT THE SAME TIME

5% - settles as dissolved gas within plasma

160
Q

Why is carbon monoxide dangerous?

A

Competes with oxygen binding sites on our hemoglobin and is much better at occupying these spaces

161
Q

What is the Haldane Effect?

A

As we use up our oxygen and give it to our tissues we create deoxyhemoglobin which enables our blood to transport more carbon dioxide to the lungs

162
Q

What do hyperventilation and hypoventilation do?

A

They moderate our breathing to get our blood pH back to healthy range

Hyperventilation occurs in response to acidosis and increases blood pH

Hypoventilation occurs in response to alkalosis and decreases blood pH

163
Q

How does exercise impact the respiratory rhythm?

A

Exercise stimulates our proprioceptors present in our muscles and joints; this stimulation sends excitatory signals to our brain and respiratory centers to increase breathing

164
Q

Hypoxia

A

Oxygen deficiency or the inability to use oxygen

165
Q

Cyanosis

A

Blueness of the skin; indicative of low oxygen in those tissues

166
Q

Hypoxemic Hypoxia

A

Not enough oxygen in the arteries and thus lower volumes in the tissues

167
Q

Identify and describe the different types of hypoxia

A

Histotoxic Hypoxia - Poisons that affect the use of oxygen in tissues

Anemic Hypoxia - Inability of blood to carry oxygen

Ischemic Hypoxia - Inadequate circulation of blood

HAIpoxia

168
Q

Identify 5 (/8) functions of the kidneys

A
  • Filter blood and excrete wastes
  • Regulate blood volume and pressure
  • Regulate electrolytes and pH
  • Clear hormones from the blood
  • Detoxify free radicals
  • Secrete Erythopoietin to synthesize RBCs
  • Secrete Calcium to regulate calcium levels
  • Synthesize glucose from amino acids in starvation
169
Q

List the pathway of fluid through the urinary system

A

Glomerular Capsule
PCT
Nephron Loop
DCT
Collecting Duct
Papillary Duct
Minor Calyx
Major Calyx
Renal Pelvis
Ureter
Urinary Bladder
Urethra

170
Q

Juxtamedullary vs Cortical Nephrons
Which is more numerous?
Which one maintains the osmotic gradient?

A

Juxtamedullary - VERY long nephron loops get close into the renal medulla (~15% of nephrons); maintains osmotic gradient

Cortical - Short nepphron loops dip slightly into the renal medulla (~85% of nephrons)

171
Q

Identify and describe the stages of urine development

A

Glomerular Filtration - The high pressure in the glomerulus allows waste products to leave and create a plasmalike filtrate of the blood

Tubular Reabsorption - Removes useful solute from the filtrate and returns them into the blood

Tubular Secretion - Removes harmful or waste solute from the blood and takes them into the nephron

Water Conservation - Removes excess water from urine to return to the blood (works to ensure that we are keeping enough water in our body)

172
Q

What type of molecules can freely pass through the filtration membrane in glomerular filtration?
Identify four examples

A

Any molecule smaller than 3nm;
ex: water, electrolytes, amino acids, glucose, vitamins

173
Q

Proteinuria and Hematuria; why does this happen and why is it dangerous?

A

Proteinuria - Albumin in urine
Hematuria - Blood in urine
This is caused by damage to the filtration membrane (which in a healthy person albumin and RBCs are normally too large to pass through the membrane) (this is dangerous because we lost important substances from our blood )

174
Q

Define Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR); What factors is this directly proportional to?

A

The amount of filtrate formed per minute by the two kidneys combined

  • NFP: The slight outward pressure that draws solutes out of the glomerulous and into the glomerular space
  • Surface area available for filtration
  • Filtration membrane permeability
175
Q

How does GFR affect blood pressure?

A

High GFR leads to increased urine output which lowers blood pressure

Low GFR leads to urine retention whihc increases blood pressure

176
Q

Briefly describe the Myogenic Mechanism and describe the role of the afferent arteriole in this renal autoregulation

A

Regulating blood flow based on the stretching and contraction of smooth muscle

When arteriole blood pressure increases the afferent arteriole is stretched. The muscle recognizes this response and reacts by consticting and regulating blood flow to the glomerulus

When arteriole blood pressure falls the afferent arteriole relaxes. The muscle recognizes this response and reacts by dilating and regulating blood flow to the glomerulus

177
Q

What cells are involved in the juxtaglomerular apparatus? What do they do and how do they respond to chnaging GFR?

A

Macula Densa - When we have high GFR, we have more NaCl. They absorb excess NaCl and secrete ATP to stimulate nearby granular cells

Granular Cells - When triggered by the ATP, they constrict afferent arterioles, lower blood flow, and thus lowering and correcting GFR

178
Q

Identify the primary function of Angiotensin II

A

INCREASE Blood Pressure

179
Q

Describe the three actions by angiotensin II that work to increase blood pressure

A
  • Triggers hypothalamus telling us that we are thirsty and triggering us to drink water to raise BP
  • Triggers vasoconstriction which raises BP
  • Triggers the secretion of aldosterone which tells our kidneys to retain water and minerals to raise BP
180
Q

Where does most reabsorption occur in the nephron? Compare the two routes of reabsorption

A
  • PCT
    Trancellular Route: substances travel THROUGH cells
    Paracellular Route: substances travel AROUND cells
181
Q

Tubular reabsorption vs secretion

A

Reabsorption: The process by which we remove useful solute from the filtrate and return them to the blood

Secretion: The process by which we remove harmful or waste solutes from the blood and take them into the nephron

These both relate to the blood:
in reabsorption we are reabsorbing into the blood and in secretion we are secreting from the blood

182
Q

Describe how aldosterone, ANP, ADH, and PTH impact the DCT and Collecting Duct

A

Aldosterone: Increases Na+ reabsorption and increases BP

ANP: Inhibits NaCl reabsorption and lowers BP

ADH: Increases water reabsorption and increases BP

PTH: Increases Ca reabsorption and increases blood calcium

183
Q

Collecting Duct activity when body is dehydrated vs hydrated

A

Dehydrated: ADH increases water reabsorption in the collecting duct and making our urine more yellow and concentrated

Hydrated: ADH function decreases and we decrease water reabsorption in the collecting duct making our urine more clear and less concentrated

184
Q

What is a diuretic and why are they used to treat hypertension?

A

A chemical that increases urine volume;
This works for reducing the body’s fluid volume and thus blood pressure

185
Q

Identify and describe the five stages of digestion

A

Ingestion - Intake of food

Digestion - Mechanical and chemical breakdown

Absorption - Uptake of nutrients into cells and blood

Compaction - Absorbing water and building up waste

Defacation - Elimination of feces

186
Q

Identify the 6 structures of the digestive tract

A

Mouth
Pharynx
Esophagus
Stomach
Small Intestine
Large Intestine

187
Q

Identify the 5(/6) accessory structures/organs of the digestive tract

A

Teeth
Tongue
Salivary Gland
Liver
Gallbladder
Pancreas

188
Q

Identify and describe the two reflexes regulate the digestive tract

A

Short Reflexes - Triggers peristalsis as we stretch organs in swallowing, MYENTERIC

Long Reflexes - Parasympathetic stimulation, VAGOVAGAL

189
Q

Identify and describe the function of the components of saliva

A

IgA - Antimicrobial antibody found in secretions

Mucus - Lubricates Food

Salivary Amylase - Enzymatic Starch Digestion

Electrolytes - Salty Environment

Lingual Lipase - Enzymatic Fat Digestion

Lysozyme - Enzyme Kills Bacteria

IM SELL

190
Q

What are the three pairs of salivary glands?

A

Sublingual Gland
Submandibular Gland
Parotid Gland

191
Q

Identify the tissue type found in the stomach, small intestine and (MOST OF THE) large intestine

A

Simple Columnar Epithelium

192
Q

Identify and describe the function of the cells found in the stomach mucosa

A

Parietal Cells - Secrete HCl, Intrinsic Factor, Ghrelin

Enteroendocrine Cells - Secrete hormones that regulate digestion

Chief Cells - Most Numerous, Secrete Gastric Lipase and Pepsinogen

Mucous Cells - Secrete Mucus

People Eat Cow Meat

193
Q

What is the function of Pepsin? What is its inactive form and what stomach cell secretes it?

A

Pepsin digests protein

PEPSINOGEN: Secreted by Chief Cells

194
Q

What is the function of gastric lipase and what stomach cell secretes it?

A

Gastric lipase digests fats
- Secreted by Chief Cells

195
Q

What is the function of intrinsic factor and what stomach cell secretes it?

A

Intrinsic factor absorbs vitamin B12 which is necessary to synthesize hemoglobin
- Secreted by Parietal Cells

196
Q

Where does most digestion and absorption of food occur in the digestive system?

A

Small intestine (Mainly Jejunum)

197
Q

What chemicals of the intestinal phase suppress gastric secretion?

A

Secretin and 9CCK

198
Q

What is the liver’s role in digestion? What cells make up the liver?

A

In digestion, the liver functions in the secretion of bile in the DUODENUM.
Hepatocytes

199
Q

Where is bile made and stored, and what is its function in digestion?

A

Bile is made in the liver, stored in the gallbladder and works by digesting fats

200
Q

What is the exocrine function of the pancreas? What are the associated structures?

A

Excreting pancreatic juice into the duodenum

201
Q

Identify the enzymes the pancreas provides to the small intestines and what they digest

A

Pancreatic Amylase - Starch
Pancreatic Lipase - Fats
Ribonuclease - RNA
Deoxyribonuclease - DNA

202
Q

What molecules stimulate the release of pancreatic juice and bile?

A

ACh, CCK, Secretin

203
Q

What three structures increase the surface area within the small intestine? Which includes capillaries and lacteals? What is the function of lacteals?

A

Circular Folds
Villi - Capillaries and lacteals (absorb lipids)
Microvilli

204
Q

What enzymes breaks down starch? Where are they found?

A

Salivary amylase breaks down most of the starch in the mouth but is continues again in the small intestine by pancreatic amylase

205
Q

What enzymes digest proteins? Where are they found? Where are they absent

A

Protease and peptidases(carboxypeptidase, aminopeptidase, dipeptidase) found in the stomach and small intestine
not in saliva

206
Q

What enzymes digest fats? Where are they found and what else happes in the stomach?

A

Lingual Lipase - MOUTH
Pancreatic Lipase - Duodenum
Gastric Lipase - antral pumping in the stomach breaks down clumps of fat

207
Q

What enzymes break down nucleic acids

A

Deoxyribonuclease
Ribonuclease
Nucleosidase
Phosphatase

208
Q

Diarrhea vs Constipation

A

Diarrhea - Food causes irritation and passes too quickly, not allowing enough time for the large intestine to absorb water

Constipation - Fecal movement is too slow and large intestine absorbs too much water

209
Q

Internal vs External Anal Aphincters. Intrinsic and Parasympathetic Defacation Reflexes control which sphincter?

A

Internal - Involuntary, smooth muscle
External - Voluntary, skeletal muscle

INTERNAL is controlled by the intrinsic and parasympathetic defacation reflexes (external is controlled by you)

210
Q

What are the primary sex organs in a male and in a female?

A

Male - Testes
Female - Ovaries

211
Q

Where in the testes are sperm produced?

A

Seminiferous Tubules

212
Q

What is the role of nurse cells?

A

Protect germ cells, promote their development, and regulate sperm production

213
Q

Identify and describe the three sets of accesory glands of the male reproductive system

A

Seminal Vessicles - Empy into ejaculatory duct and form 60% of semen

Prostate - Provides thin milky secretions and forms 30% of semen

Bulbourethral Glands - Produces pre-ejcaulate that lubricates the penis in preparation for intercourse, neutralizes acidity of residual urine in the urethra (ensures that sperm dont die)

214
Q

What is Spermatogenesis

A

The process of sperm production

215
Q

Identify the following:

A

A - Head
B - Middle Piece of Tail
C - Principal Piece of Tail
D - Endpiece of Tail
E - Acrosome
F - Nucleus

216
Q

Describe the composition of semen

A
  • The prostate forms a clotting enzyme to activate proseminogelin
  • Converts it into a sticky like substance semenogelin
  • This allows sperm to stick in the inner walls of the vagina and that they are not drained outward
  • 20-30 mins after ejaculation serine protease liquifies the semen
217
Q

List the pathway of sperm through the male reproductive system

A

Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis
Vas deferens
Ejaculatory duct
(Nothing)

Urethra
Penis

SEVEN UP

218
Q

How do Phosphodiesterase Inhbitors Work? Provide an example

A

They slow the breakdown of cGMP to prolong an erection (this is usually broken down by phosphodiesterase and leads to the loss of an erection)

ex: Viagra

219
Q

Identify and describe the ligaments of the female reproductive system

A

Mesovarium - covers the enture overy and anchors it in place

Ovarian Ligament - Attaches the ovaries to the uterus

Suspensory Ligament - Contains an artery, vein, and nerves. Attaches to the pelvic wall

220
Q

What commonly causes cervical cancer? How can it be detected?

A

Almost always caused by HPV
- Detected with a papsmear

221
Q

List the layers of the uterus from outside to inside

A

Perimetrium - Outermost layer
Myometrium - Middle, muscular layer

Endometrium:
Basal Layer - Deep layer and regenerates a new layer with every menstrual cycle
Functional Layer - Superficial layer shed in every menstrual cycle

222
Q

What is the name of the arteries that enter the endometrium?

A

Spiral Arteries

223
Q

What is the goal of Leptin

A

Monitors how much fat you have and if you have enough fat you will start puberty by the release of Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone

224
Q

What is the goal of Follicle Stimulating Hormone in females

A

Stimulates overian follicles causing them to secrete estrogen, progesterone, inhibin, and small amounts of androgen

225
Q

What is the goal of gonadotropin releasing hormone in females

A

Stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete Follicle Stimulating Hormone and Luteinizing Hormone

226
Q

What is the goal of estrogens in females?

A

Feminizing hormones that have widespread effects on the body

227
Q

What is the goal of luteinizing hormone in females

A

Triggers the release of an egg from the ovary

228
Q

Identify and describe the puberty timeline in females

A

Thelarche - Breast development, earliest notable sign of puberty

Pubarche - Pubic and axillary hair, sebaceous and axillary glands

Menarche - First menstrual period

229
Q

Describe the role of progesterone and inhibin in the female reproductive system

A

Progesterone - Prepares for possible pregnancy
Inhibin - Selectively regulates FSH secretion

230
Q

Define sexual cycle. What two cycles fall under this sexual cycle category?

A

Events that recur every month when fertilization does not happen.

  • Ovarian Cycle
  • Menstrual Cycle
231
Q

What is oogenesis?

A

The process of egg (ova/ovum) production

232
Q

What is folliculogenesis? Describe the different follicles that form as a result of this process

A

The development of the follicle as the egg undergoes oogenesis:

Primoridal follicles surround primary oocytes

Primary follicles surround secondary oocytes

Secondary follicles grow layers of cells around the egg

Tertriary follciles build up follicular fluid and develop a structure called the antrum (pools)

Mature follicle - one follicle wins and all others die off. Oocyte begins to float within the follicle

233
Q

Describe the hypothalamo-pituitary-ovarian axis

A

Hormones of the hypothalamus regulate the pituitary gland
Pituitary hormones regulate the ovaries
Ovaries secrete hormones that regulate the uterus

234
Q

What occurs during the follicular and luteal phase of the sexual cycle?

A

Follicular: first two weeks, menstruation occurs within the first 3-5 days. Uterus replaces lost tissue by forming the corpus luteum

Luteal Phase: second two weeks, corpus luteum stimulates endometrial secretion and thickening. If pregnancy does not occur endometrium breaks down

235
Q

Identify and descirbe the phases of the ovarian cycle

A

Follicular Phase - days 1-14. follicles grow and the dominant one is chosen

Ovulation - Mature follicle releases the egg

Luteal Phase - days 15-28. ovulated follicle becomes the corpus luteum and hormones prepare for pregnancy. If pregnancy does not occure the corpus luteum shrinks and leaves the behind the corpus albicans

236
Q

Identify and describe the four phases of the menstrual cycle

A

Proliferative Phase - functional layer of endometrium is rebuilt

Secretory Phase - Endometrium thickens

Premenstrual Phase - Corpus luteum atrophies

Menstrual Phase - Menstrual fluid is discharged

237
Q

Endometriosis

A

Growth of the endometrial tissue outside of the uterus

BIO 2102 (13 decks)

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