Family: Parvoviridae Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: Parvoviridae viruses are very stable.

A

True

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2
Q
What type of inclusion bodies does parvoviridae have? 
A. Intracytoplasmic 
B. Intranuclear
C. Bollinger 
D. Borrel
A

B. Intranuclear

  • -Intracytoplasmic is in Porcine circovirus type-2
  • -Bollinger and barrel are in avipoxvirus infections
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3
Q
Where is the site of replication for Parvoviridae? 
A. Nucleus
B. Cytoplasm
C. Mitochondria
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
A

A. Nucleus

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4
Q
Which of the following are within genus Parvovirus? 
A. Feline Panleukopenia 
B. Canine parvovirus 1 and 2 
C. Human parvovirus B19
D. Porcine parvovirus 
E. A, B and C
F. A, B and D
G. All of the above
A

F. A, B and D

–Human parvovirus B19 is in genus Erythrovirus and is referred to as Fifth Disease or Slap Cheek Rash.

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5
Q

T/F: Canine parvovirus and Feline Panleukopenia are Zoonotic.

A

FALSE!!

There is no evidence of transmission to humans

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6
Q
Parvovirus's replicate in cells that pass through \_\_\_\_\_ phase and \_\_\_\_\_ replicated in stationary cells. 
A. Mitotic M; can
B. Mitotic M; cannot 
C. Mitotic S; can 
D. Mitotic S; cannot
A

D. Mitotic S; cannot
–Parvovirus’s replicate in cells that pass throughMitotic S phase and can NOT replicated in stationary cell, as they rely on enzymes of actively dividing cells (mitosis)

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7
Q
What does Feline parvovirus cause? 
A. Feline Panleukipenia (FPV)
B. Feline distemper 
C. Feline infectious enteritis
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

–Feline distemper and Feline infectious enteritis are synonyms used for Feline Panleukipenia (FPV)

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8
Q

Which of the following is not true in regards to Feline Panleukopenia Epidemiology?
A. Virtually all cats are exposed and infected within the first year of life
B. Unvaccinated kittens that acquire material antibodies are protected for top to 3 months of age
C. The virus can shed in the cats urine and feces for up to 6 weeks after recovery
D. The majority of infections, 75%, are subclinical
E. FPV is maintained in population by prolonged visual shedding

A

E. FPV is maintained in population by prolonged visual shedding
—FPV is maintained in the population by environmental persistence rather than by prolonged viral shedding. The virus is ubiquitous because of its contagious nature and capacity for persistence in the environment

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9
Q
What genus of Parvioviridae is unable to replicate except in the presence of a helper virus? 
A. Parvovirus
B. Dependovirus
C. Bocavirus
D. Erythrovirus
A

B. Dependovirus

–It is “dependent” to replicate!

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10
Q
Which genus of Parvioviridae contains a third ORF (open reading Frame) between non- structural and structural coding regions? 
A. Parvovirus
B. Dependovirus
C. Bocavirus
D. Erythrovirus
A

C. Bocavirus

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11
Q

T/F: Feline Panleukopenia is often a fatal disease of cats and is highly contagious, and severe in kittens.

A

True!

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12
Q

Which of the following is not a transmission method of Feline Panleukopenia?
A. Oro-nasally by exposure to infected animals, their feces, secretions, or contaminated fomites
B. In-utero
C. Mechanical by flies
D. Vector: Ticks

A

D. Vector: Ticks

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13
Q

Which of the following is the hallmark of disease due to Feline parvovirus?
A. Enteritis
B. CNS infection
C. In- Utero Infection
D. Panleukopenia
E. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

A

D. Panleukopenia

–All of the others are associated with the feline parvovirus as well

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14
Q

T/F: Feline Panleukopenia involves destruction of ALL white blood cell elements including: lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes and platelets. Thrombocytopenia, due to bone marrow damage, may also accompany leukopenia.

A

True!

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15
Q

T/F: Feline Parvovirus destroys cell deep in crypts of intestinal mucosa, therefore there will be no replacement of the lost absorptive cells at tips of the villi from the crypts. This will result in shortening of intestinal villi, marked villus blunting and fusion, malabsorption and diarrhea.

A

True!

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16
Q

Which of the following is/are sign(s) of early in- utero infection in pregnant queens infected with feline parvovirus?
A. Early fetal death and resorption with infertility
B. Birth of live kittens with varying degree of damage
C. Abortions
D. Birth of mummified fetuses
E. Variable effects on kittens form the same litter
F. A, C and D
G. B and E

A

F. A, C and D

– Early fetal death and resorption with infertility; Abortions; and Birth of mummified fetuses

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17
Q

Which of the following is/are sign(s) of infection closer to the end of gestation of pregnant queens with feline parvovirus?
A. Early fetal death and resorption with infertility
B. Birth of live kittens with varying degree of damage
C. Abortions
D. Birth of mummified fetuses
E. Variable effects on kittens form the same litter
F. A, C and D
G. B and E

A

G. B and E
–Birth of live kittens with varying degree of damage to the late- developing neural tissues; Variable effects on kittens form the same litter

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18
Q

Which of the following is incorrect regarding Feline parvovirus’s effects on the CNS?
A. Optic nerve and reta are susceptible to damage during prenatal or early neonatal development
B. Cerebellar damage is most commonly reported neurological lesion
C. Cerebellar hypoplasia is usually observed in fetuses infected during the last 2 weeks of pregnancy and the first two weeks of life
D. All of the above are correct

A

D. All of the above are correct

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19
Q

T/F: A kitten with cerebellar hypoplasia may present with marked ataxia.

A

True!

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20
Q

Which of the following is not true in regards to feline parvovirus that causes Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation?
A. Kittens with FPV are susceptible to secondary bacterial infections
B. Gram- Negative Endotoxemia, only with bacteremia, is a common sequelae of systemic FPV infection
C. Endotoxin (LPS) induces expression of tissue factor III on endothelial cells
D. Tissue factor is a potent activator of coagulation, resulting in DIC, followed by hemorrhages

A

B. Gram- Negative Endotoxemia, only with bacteremia, is a common sequelae of systemic FPV infection
–Gram- Negative Endotoxemia, WITH OR WITHOUT BACTEREMIA, is a common sequelae of systemic FPV infection

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21
Q
Clinical signs of FPV are most common during what age?
A. Kittens 2-4 months of age
B. Kittens 3 to 5 months of age
C. Kittens 6-8 months of age
D. Kittens 8-12 months of age
A

B. Kittens 3 to 5 months of age

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22
Q
A cat diagnosed with FPV has a clinical manifestation of Diarrhea, which cells are most likely infected?
A. Bone marrow
B. Lymph nodes, thymus
C. Developing cerebellum
D. Intestinal crypt epithelium 
E. All cells in fetus
A

D. Intestinal crypt epithelium

–Consequences: Villus collapse, enteritis

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23
Q
A cat diagnosed with FPV has a clinical manifestation of Lymphopenia, which cells are most likely infected?
A. Bone marrow
B. Lymph nodes, thymus
C. Developing cerebellum
D. Intestinal crypt epithelium 
E. All cells in fetus
A

B. Lymph nodes, thymus

–Consequences: Germinal centre depletion, apoptosis of lymphocytes, thymic atrophy

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24
Q
A cat diagnosed with FPV has a clinical manifestation of Neutropenia (later also thrombocytopenia and anaemia), which cells are most likely infected?
A. Bone marrow
B. Lymph nodes, thymus
C. Developing cerebellum
D. Intestinal crypt epithelium 
E. All cells in fetus
A

A. Bone marrow

–Consequences: Stem cell depletion

25
Q
A cat diagnosed with FPV has a clinical manifestation of Cerebellar ataxia, which cells are most likely infected?
A. Bone marrow
B. Lymph nodes, thymus
C. Developing cerebellum
D. Intestinal crypt epithelium 
E. All cells in fetus
A

C. Developing cerebellum

–Consequences: Cerebellar hypoplasia– which isn’t apparent until kettle begins to walk at 3-4 weeks of age

26
Q
A cat diagnosed with FPV has a clinical manifestation of loss of pregnancy, which cells are most likely infected?
A. Bone marrow
B. Lymph nodes, thymus
C. Developing cerebellum
D. Intestinal crypt epithelium 
E. All cells in fetus
A

E. All cells in fetus

–Consequences: fetal death

27
Q

Which of the follows is a clinical sign of FPV?
A. Fever, depression, anorexia, rough coat, repeated vomiting, profuse, persistent and frequently bloody diarrhea
B. Severe dehydrated, hypothermia, sudden death from complications with secondary bacterial infections, dehydration and DIC
C. Retinal degeneration in kittens
D. Cerebellar hypoplasia
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

28
Q

Which of the following is not a method of diagnosis for FPV?
A. Fecal viral antigen testing using immunochromatographic test kit or ELISA
B. Hematology: Leukopenia, neutropenia more consistent than lymphopenia
C. Serological Testing: Virus neutralization test is commonly used
D. All of the above are methods of diagnosis for FPV

A

D. All of the above are methods of diagnosis for FPV

29
Q

T/F: Single sample antibody titers distinguish between active infection or past expose to virulent or vaccine strains.

A

FALSE!!!
–Single sample antibody titers DO NOT distinguish between active infection or past expose to virulent or vaccine strains.

30
Q

T/F: A fourfold rise in titer is considered indicative of chronic infection.

A

FALSE!!!

– A fourfold rise in titer is considered indicative of ACUTE infection.

31
Q
Which of the following is possible treatments for FPV?
A. Fluid therapy
B. Antiparasitic drugs
C. Broad spectrum antibiotics
D. A and C
E. All of the above
A

D. A and C

– Broad spectrum antibiotic are to prevent secondary bacterial infection

32
Q

T/F: To control FPV use strict hygiene and quarantine of incoming cats, and disinfections using: Inactivated bleach (6% sodium hypochlorite), 4% formaldehyde, and 1% glutaraldehyde in 10 minuets at room temperature.

A

True!

33
Q

Which of the following is not an appropriate vaccination method of FPV?
A. Attenuated (modified) live vaccines given to a healthy cat over 4 weeks of age
B. Attenuated (modified) live vaccine can safely be administered to pregnant cats
C. Attenuated live vaccine should not be administered in sick or immunosuppressed cats
D. Inactivated vaccines in immunosuppressed animals

A

B. Attenuated (modified) live vaccine can safely be administered to pregnant cats
–Should NOT be given to pregnant cats!!

34
Q
Which of the following viruses causes milt to inapparent illness (diarrhea) in dogs, especially young pups less than 8 weeks of age but isn't very relevant? 
A. FPV
B. Canine parvovirus 1
C. Canine parvovirus 2
D. Porcine parvovirus
A

B. Canine parvovirus 1

35
Q
Which of the following is the most common infectious diseases of dogs? 
A. Canine poxvirus
B. Canine parvovirus 1
C. Canine parvovirus 2
D. Canine Herpesvirus 1
A

C. Canine parvovirus 2

36
Q
What is/are the antigenic variant(s) of Canine parvovirus 2? 
A. CPV-2a
B. CPV-2c
C. CPV-2d
D. CPV-2b
E. A and B 
F. A, B and D
G. All of the above.
A

F. A, B and D

–CPV-2a, CPV-2b, CPV-2c

37
Q
What is/are the antigenic variant(s) of Canine parvovirus 2 that are common in North America? 
A. CPV-2a
B. CPV-2c
C. CPV-2d
D. CPV-2b
E. A and B 
F. B and D
G. All of the above.
A

F. B and D

–CPV-2b and CPV-2c

38
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding the epidemiology of CPV-2?
A. Infectious CPV can persist indoors at room temp for at least 2 months
B. It is resistant to may common detergents and disinfectants
C. Not very contagious
D. Very stable in the environment

A
  • -C. Not very contagious

- -It is HIGHLY CONTAGIOUS!

39
Q

Which of the following is not a method of transmission of CPV-2?
A. Oral-nasal via contaminated feces
B. In-utero
C. Vetor: fleas
D. Contact with virus- contaminated fomites

A

C. Vetor: fleas

40
Q
Which of the following are pathogenesis and clinical findings of CPV-2? 
A. Panleukopenia
B. CNS infection
C. Myocarditis
D. Enteritis
E. A, B and C
F. A, C and D
G. All of the above 
G.
A

F. A, C and D

–Panleukopenia, Myocarditis, and Enteritis

41
Q

T/F: Enteritis of Canine parvovirus-2 leads to hemorrhagic diarrhea and ballooned small intestines, severe bloody diarrhea can be seen.

A

True!

42
Q
Which of the following pathogenesis occurs in CPV-2 that develops in- utero or form pups less than 6 weeks of age and can result in sudden death?
A. Panleukopenia
B. CNS infection
C. Myocarditis
D. Enteritis
A

C. Myocarditis

–myocaridal encores with acute cardiopulmonary failure

43
Q

Which of the following is the BEST way to diagnose Canine Parvovirus-2?
A. Serology (antibody detection)
B. SNAP parvo test
C. Fecal- viral antigen test
D. all are equally good ways to diagnose CPV-2

A

B. SNAP parvo test

–Serology is not the best method because most dogs are vaccinated so hard to tell by antibody detection.

44
Q
Which of the following vaccine method is indicated in pregnant dogs or colostrum-derived puppies before 6-8 weeks of age for CPV-2?
A. Modified- live vaccine
B. Live vaccine
C. Inactivated vaccine
D. Any of these are okay to use
A

C. Inactivated vaccine
–It does cross the barrier, so live and modified-live are not okay to use as it could lead to cerebellar or myocardial cell damage.

45
Q

What is the recommended vaccine for healthy puppies and dogs, and what is the recommended time of administration?
A. Modified live vaccine at 6-8 weeks of age, 10-12 weeks, and 14-16 weeks of age, then a booster 1 year later and continuous yearly vaccination.
B. Modified live vaccine at 6-8 weeks of age, 10-12 weeks, and 14-16 weeks of age, then a booster 1 year later and then vaccination every 3 years.
C. Live vaccine at 6-8 weeks of age, 10-12 weeks, and 14-16 weeks of age, then a booster 1 year later and continuous yearly vaccination.
D. Live vaccine at 6-8 weeks of age, 10-12 weeks, and 14-16 weeks of age, then a booster 1 year later and then vaccination every 3 years.

A

B. Modified live vaccine at 6-8 weeks of age, 10-12 weeks, and 14-16 weeks of age, then a booster 1 year later and then vaccination every 3 years.

46
Q
What treatment can be given to canines infected with CPV-2?
A. Tamiflu
B. Robitussin
C. Aspirin 
D. All of the above
A

A. Tamiflu

–Oseltamivir= Tamiflu

47
Q

T/F: Porcine parvovirus disease is an infectious cause of reproductive failure in swine throughout the world

A

True!

48
Q
Which of the following is not a manifestation of Porcine Parvovirus?
A. Stillbirth
B. Abortion
C. Mummification
D. Embryonic Death 
E. Infertility
A

B. Abortion

  • -ABORTION IS UNCOMMON!!
  • -SMEDI is the acronym for how it manifests.
49
Q
Which is not a route of transmission of PPV?
A. Transplacental 
B. Oronasal 
C. Vector 
D. Venereal
A

C. Vector

50
Q

T/F: In regards to PPV: oronasal infection in non immune pregnant sows leads to viremia and infection of fetus. Transplacental infection leads to death at different stages of pregnancy.

A

True!

51
Q
What is the hallmark of PPV after a normal gestation period?
A. Increase in mummified fetuses
B. Abortions
C. Stillbirth
D. All of the above
A

A. Increase in mummified fetuses

–ABORTIONS ARE UNCOMMON!!!

52
Q
Which of the following accurately describes the time of infection of PPV to cause death and reabsorbed embryo/ fetus? 
A. <30 days 
B. 30-70 days
C. >70 days to term 
D. 100 days to term
A

A. <30 days

53
Q
Which of the following accurately describes the time of infection of PPV to Mummified fetuses? 
A. <30 days 
B. 30-70 days
C. >70 days to term 
D. 100 days to term
A

B. 30-70 days

54
Q
Which of the following accurately describes the time of infection of PPV to develop lesions, but mount an immune response and survival in- utero? 
A. <30 days 
B. 30-70 days
C. >70 days to term 
D. 100 days to term
A

C. >70 days to term

55
Q

T/F: Boars, Sows and Gilts mostly have inapparent or subclinical infection.

A

True!

56
Q

T/F: Serological test are a great way to diagnose PPV.

A

FALSE!!!

–Serological test are of LIMITED VALUE

57
Q

T/F: Like most parvoviruses, PPV can cause persistent infection with periodical shedding of virus.

A

FALSE!!!

—UNLIKE most parvoviruses, PPV can cause persistent infection with periodical shedding of virus

58
Q

T/F: The best way to vaccinate for PPV is to vaccinate all susceptible breeding stock twice, 2 weeks apart, several weeks before breeding.

A

True!