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Atlas Air B747 April 2022 > Extra - Limitations > Flashcards

Extra - Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

400F, 400C, 400P

Maximum operating Altitude

A

400F, 400C, 400P:

45,100’ PA

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2
Q

400F, 400C, 400P,
Maximum Altitude for Takeoff and Landing

LCF
Maximum Altitude for Takeoff and Landing

A

400F, 400C, 400P,

10,000’ PA

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3
Q

400F, 400C, 400P,

Maximum Field Elevation

A

400F, 400C, 400P,

9,500’ MSL

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4
Q

Runway slope

A

+/- 2%

L.10.2

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5
Q

-4

Turbulent Air penetration

A

-4

290 to 310 KIAS / 0.82 - 0.85 Mach, whichever is lower

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6
Q

-4

Maximum Tire speed (takeoff)

A

-4

235 mph / 204 kts

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7
Q

Minimum flight crew

A

Captain and First Officer

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8
Q

Maximum Takeoff and Landing Tailwind component

A

15 Knots

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9
Q

Ground wind limits for all doors

A

40 knots when opening or closing

65 knots while open

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10
Q

Takeoff and landing crosswind limits refer to _____

A

FCOM L.10.5

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11
Q

-8Reserve tanks 1 and 4 must remain full above the maximum fuel transfer weight of ________

A

375,286KG

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12
Q

For Zero Fuel Weights greater than ___________(Variable Zero Fuel Weight) comply with decrease maximum weight limits

A

*For Zero Fuel Weights greater than (276, 691 Kgs) (Variable Zero Fuel Weight) comply with decrease maximum weight limits (see table in Weight and Balance Manual). WBM VOL 1 (1.1.6 / 1.1.7 / 1.1.8)

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13
Q

The maximum weight limits may be less as limited by __________, _________, and _________ limits in FCOM limitations section.

Refer to the __________ manual for additional specific airplane loading limitations.

A

The maximum weight limits may be less as limited by (Center of Gravity), (Fuel Density), and (Fuel Loading Limits) limits in FCOM limitations section.

Refer to the (Weight and Balance Manual) manual for additional specific airplane loading limitations.

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14
Q

Maximum differential pressure (relief valves)

A

9.4 psi

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15
Q

Maximum allowable cabin pressure differential for takeoff and landing

A

0.11 psi

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16
Q

Do not operate the APU below __________

A
  • 1,000’ PA
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17
Q

The APU may be used to supply bleed air to air conditioning pack number 2 for takeoff, provided __________ remain closed.

If an engine failure occurs do NOT change air conditioning bleed configuration until ____________ has been achieved to meet engine out performance.

A

The APU may be used to supply bleed air to air conditioning pack number (2) for takeoff, provided (isolation valves) remain closed.

If an engine failure occurs do (NOT) change air conditioning bleed configuration until (engine-out acceleration height)has been achieved to meet engine out performance.

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18
Q

Do NOT use APU __________ in flight

A

Do NOT use APU (Generator power) in flight

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19
Q

APU operations between ________ and _______ pressure altitude is limited to “no load” only

APU bleed air should not be used above _________

A

APU operations between (15,000 feet) and (20,000 feet) pressure altitude is limited to “no load” only

APU bleed air should not be used above (15,000 feet pressure altitude)

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20
Q

APU start cycle restrictions are:

1 and 2 _____ _______
2 and 3 _____ _______
3 and 4 _____ _______

APU is normally started on ______. The TR wait column are not applicable to aircraft without a TR start source.

If the TR should overheat with the start source switch in TR starting power is transferred to the _____ and the start continued on battery power. Any further start attempts with an overheated TR are ________.

A failure of the TR, other than an overheat does ______ provide automatic switching)to the APU Battery. Under these conditions, moving APU start source switch to BATTERY removes the TR from the Starting Circuit and allows APU starting on ______ power

A

Between Battery TR
Starts Wait Wait

1 and 2 1 min 1 min
2 and 3 1 min 10 min
3 and 4 75 min 75 min

APU is normally started on (Battery). The TR wait column are not applicable to aircraft without a TR start source.

If the TR should overheat with the start source switch in TR, starting power is transferred to the (battery) and the start continued on battery power. Any further start attempts with an overheated TR are (inhibited).

A failure of the TR, other than an overheat, does (NOT) provide automatic switching to the APU Battery. Under these conditions, moving APU start source switch to BATTERY removes the TR from the Starting Circuit and allows APU starting on (battery) power.

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21
Q

the use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is ________

A

Prohibited

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22
Q

the autopilot must not be engaged below ________ after takeoff

A

250 feet

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23
Q

the autopilot must be disengaged before the airplane descends more than _________ below minimums unless it is coupled to an ILS _____________ or in the _________

A

the autopilot must be disengaged before the airplane descends more than (50 feet) below minimums unless it is coupled to an ILS (glideslope and localizer) or in the (go-around mode).

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24
Q

WITHOUT LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must not remain engaged below _______

A

(100 feet RA)

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25
Q

Do not use FLCH on final approach below ________ AFE

A

Do not use FLCH on final approach below 1,000 feet AFE

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26
Q

When using autobrakes during Autoland operations, touchdown is assumed to occur at 2,500 feet from the runway threshold. ________ feet must be added to the advisory landing distance in the PI chapter or to the TLR WITHOUT Autoland distance provided

______ if using (ACARS) or (TLR with Autoland distance)

A

(1,000) feet must be added

N/A if using (ACARS) or (TLR with Autoland distance)

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27
Q

Automatic landings may be made with flaps _______

A

Automatic landings may be made with flaps (25 or 30 only)

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28
Q

Maximum GS angle for autoland is ________

minimum GS angle for autoland is _________

A

Maximum GS angle for autoland is (3.25)

minimum GS angle for autoland is (2.5)

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29
Q

Automatic landings require ____ operating hydraulic systems

A

Automatic landings require (4) operating hydraulic systems

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30
Q

Max wind component for Autoland

Headwind _____
Tailwind _______
Crosswind _______
Crosswind CAT II/III ______

A

Headwind

Headwind (25kts)
Tailwind (15kts)/(LCF 10kts)
Crosswind (25kts)
Crosswind CAT II/III (15kts)

L.10.7

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31
Q

The minimum threshold crossing height is ______

A

The minimum threshold crossing height is (44’)

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32
Q

ACARS is limited to the transmissions and receipt of messages, which will not create an ____________ if the message is improperly received

A

ACARS is limited to the transmissions and receipt of messages, which will not create an (unsafe condition) if the message is improperly received

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33
Q

PDC, D-ATIS, Oceanic Clearance, W/B, Performance Data messages can be transmitted and received over ACARS if they are ____________ per approved operational procedures

A

PDC, D-ATIS, Oceanic Clearance, W/B, Performance Data messages can be transmitted and received over ACARS if they are (verified) per approved operational procedures

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34
Q

ATC clearance data received through the FMC which can only be viewed on the flight deck printer must be independently ________ with the origination group station.

A

ATC clearance data received through the FMC which can only be viewed on the flight deck printer must be independently (verified) with the origination group station

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35
Q

Do NOT operate HF radios during ___________operations

A

Do NOT operate HF radios during (refueling) operations

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36
Q

N409MC, N480MC, N496MC - N499MC

Do NOT use the center VHF radio on _______ or ______ unless the left and right VHF radio communication systems are operational

A

N409MC, N480MC, N496MC - N499MC

Do not use center VHF radio on (120.000 MHz) or (120.005 MHz) unless the left and right VHF radio communication systems are operational

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37
Q

LCF, N419MC, N429MC, N464MC, N465MC, N471MC

Do NOT use the center VHF radio for voice communications with an operational __________ system, except for FIR boundary reports

A

LCF, N419MC, N429MC, N464MC, N465MC, N471MC

with an operational ACARS system, except for FIR boundary reports, Do NOT use the center VHF radio for voice communications with an operational (ACARS) system, except for FIR boundary reports

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38
Q

For Communication/Navigation/Surveillance(CNS) and RVSM required equipment refer to __________

A

L.10.9, L.10.10, QRM 3.1, QRM 3.2

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39
Q

The flight crew must use oxygen when cabin altitude is ABOVE _________. If 100% or Emergency is not needed, set the regulator to ________.

A

The flight crew must use oxygen when cabin altitude is ABOVE (10,000 feet). If 100% or Emergency is not needed, set the regulator to (Normal).

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40
Q

WITHOUT operable main deck signaling/alert system

Supernumeraries are ______ from accessing the main deck cargo any time the aircraft is moving

With operable main deck signaling/alert system

Supernumeraries are prohibited from accessing the main deck cargo compartment during _________, ______, and _______

A

WITHOUT operable main deck signaling/alert system

prohibited

With operable main deck signaling/alert system

(taxi), (takeoff), and (landing)

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41
Q

A maximum of _____ supernumeraries are allowed access to the main deck cargo compartment in-flight for cargo or liven animal operation

A

3

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42
Q

Supernumeraries must be _______ to return to their seats at the onset of a smoke, fire, or pressurization event, turbulence and prior to landing.

A

(signaled)

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43
Q

There must be at least _____ portable oxygen unit with a full face mask attached to it provided for each supernumerary allowed to enter the main deck cargo compartment during flight

A

one

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44
Q

During the flight, the supernumerary must carry the ______________ unit whenever he or she is in the main deck cargo compartment

A

(portable oxygen)

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45
Q

There must be at least ______ portable oxygen unit with a full face mask attached to it provided for each supernumerary allowed to enter the main deck cargo compartment during flight.

A

one

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46
Q

For aircraft WITHOUT an automatic aural and visual system installed, supernumeraries must also _________ the full-face mask and initiatee the oxygen flow whenever the main deck cargo compartment is accessed during flight. see placard on the smoke barrier door to determine requirement status.

A

don

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47
Q

An adequate quantity of oxygen for sustenance must be provided for each occupant for flight at ________ feet cabin altitude to the nearest suitable airport. in the event of cabin depressurization for any emergency condition, oxygen flow to upper deck occupant’s mask no longer in use must be turned ______. this will conserve oxygen and increase flow rates to mask remaining in use.

A

25,000

off

48
Q

Target Oxygen Pressures (psi) Land Ocean

Crew System _____ _____

Pass System _____ _____

Is based on what altitude?

A

Target Oxygen Pressures (psi) Land Ocean

Crew System 950 1,200

Pass System 1,200 1,200

FL250

49
Q

The smoke barrier door must be ______ during taxi, takeoff, flight and landing. The door must be _______ in-flight except when entering or leaving the main deck cargo compartment.

A

closed

closed

50
Q

Takeoff EGT is limited to _______ minutes

A

400
- GE/PW 5 min

-8
10 min in the even of engine fail during takeoff

51
Q

B5F

With EEC in Alternate mode, Takeoff power must be set after ________

A

Brake Release

52
Q

GE
Minimum oil Pressure

PW
Minimum oil Pressure

-8
Oil Pressure limits

A

GE 10 PSI
PW 57 PSI

GE
see L10.25

On Ground, pressure in the amber region requires correction before flight.

53
Q

PW

Oil Temperature must be greater than ____ C before advancing thrust levers to takeoff power

A

50

54
Q

Engine Ignition must be ON when encountering:Use standby ignition if continuous is ______ available

A 
Moderate to Heavy Rain
Moderate to severe turbulence
Icing conditions
Hail or sleet
Volcanic ash
Standing water or slush on the runway

Use standby ignition if continuous is (not available)

SP7.5

55
Q

During Ground operations (including taxi-in, taxi-out, and ground hold) in visible moisture and OAT 3C or below the flight crew must comply with the __________ in the SP Cold weather op

A

Run up procedures in the SP Cold weather ops

56
Q

Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight is _____

A

Prohibited

57
Q

Backing the airplane with the use of reverse thrust is _________

A

Prohibited

58
Q

Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw as they may result in __________ at any speed, including below Va

A

Structural failure

59
Q

Maximum altitude with flaps extended

A

20,000 feet

60
Q

Flaps up Maneuvering load acceleration

Flaps down Maneuvering load acceleration

A

+2.5g to -1.0g

+2.0g to 0.0g

-8 varies linearly from +2.0g at MLW to +1.5g at MTOW

61
Q

use of speedbrakes in flight with flaps extended past ________ is not recommended N249BA, N780BA (LCF)use of speedbrakes in flight with flaps extended past ________ is not recommended

A

20

10 for N249BA, N780BA

62
Q

Engine Max, Min and Cautionary limits are what colorIf EICAS markings show more conservative limits than those specified in this section, the markings shown on the EICAS must be _______

A

Max/Min - Red

Caution - Amber

If EICAS markings show more conservative limits than those specified in this section, the markings shown on the EICAS must be observed

63
Q

Max speed operating in RVSM airspace

A

0.90 Mach

64
Q

Max allowable in-flight difference between captain and first officer altitude displays for RVSM operations is ____

A

200 feet

65
Q

Max allowable on the ground altitude display difference for RVSM operations

A

Max Diff Capt and FO

  • Sea Level to 5,000’- 35’
  • 5,001’ - 9,000’ - 40’

Max Diff Capt and FO and Field Elevation
- 75’

66
Q

Do ______ delete/add waypoints to RNAV/RNP DP’s or STAR procedures

A

NOT

67
Q

The use of LNAV or VNAV with QFE isLCFQFE operations are ________

A

Prohibited

68
Q

Min and Max VNAV path angle

A

2.75 / 3.5

69
Q

If leveling off within 2,000 feet AFTER changing altimeter setting from QNE to QNH or QNH to QNE, do not use VNAV to execute the level off if the QNH is less than ________. After level off is complete, VNAV may be re-engaged.

A

29.70/1006

70
Q

Do ______ cycle CWT and HST pump switches form ON to OFF to ON with any continuous low pressure indication present

A

NOT

71
Q

Do _____ reset a tripped fuel pump circuit breaker

A

NOT

72
Q

The CWT fuel quantity indication system must be operative to dispatch with ______ Trip fuel

A

CWT trip fuel

73
Q

If the Fuel Low CTR L or R message is displayed, both override/jettison pumps must be selected _____

A

OFF

Except in a low fuel situation

74
Q

If the Fuel Press CTR L or R message is displayed, both override/jettison pumps must be selected _____ except in a low _____ situation

A

OFF

Except in a low fuel situation

75
Q

When Defueling or transferring fuel refer to to

A

FCOM limitations

76
Q

-400
Do not extend or retract the flaps between postilions 1 and 5 during _____

A

fuel jettison

77
Q

For fuel densities less than _______ gross weight is limitedFuel density limitations refer to the _______

A

2.92 kgs / 6.43 lbs / 0.771 ltr

FCOM limitations

78
Q

PWTank fuel temperature prior to takeoff must not be less than ______ or ______ above the fuel freezing point temperature, whichever is higherIn flight tank fuel temperature must be maintained at least _______ above the fuel freezing point of the fuel being used.-8minimum tank fuel temperature in flight is ____

A

-43C or 3C

3C

-48C

L10.20

79
Q

Max tank Temp is

A

+54C

80
Q

The use of Jet B and JP4 is

A

prohibited

81
Q

Nacelle anti-ice must be on during all ground and flight operations when __________

A

icing conditions exist or are anticipated except when the temperature is -40C OAT

82
Q

Do not using ant-ice if OAT or TAT exceeds

A

10C

83
Q

Icing conditions exist when indicated in flight by the primary ice detection if installed or else when the OAT on the ground and for takeoff or TAT in flight is _____ or below and visible moisture in any form is present.

A

10C

84
Q

Icing conditions exist when the OAT on the ground and for takeoff is

A

10C or below when operating on ramps, taxiways or runways with surface snow, ice, standing water or slush

85
Q

Operatins in ICING (GE CF6-80C2)Nacelle anit-ice must be _______ when ice crystal icing conditions exist even when the temperature is below -40C. If at or below 22,000 ft wing anti-ice must be ______ when ice crystal icing conditions exist even when the temperature is below -40C. Do not use ant-ice if OAT or TAT exceeds _____

A

ON

ON

10C

86
Q

Window heat must be _______ for all normal flight conditions.

If window heat or anti fogging is inop, refer to the ________

A

ON

Limitations

87
Q

Flaps Speeds

-400 -400 ERF -8

1

5

10

20

25

30

A

-400 -400 ERF -8
280 285 285

260 265 265

240 245 245

230 235 235

205 210 210

180 180 185

88
Q

Landing gear retract or extend speed

Landing gear extended speed

A

270/0.82

320/0.82

89
Q

The total number of persons including crew member that may occupy the upper deck cabin during taxi, takeoff, flight and landing are:

400F, -8

400C

LCF

A

400F, -8: 8

400C: 12

LCF: 4

90
Q

Do ____ use the terrain display for navigation

A

not

91
Q

The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions is prohibited within _____of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain databases.

A

15nm

of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain databases.

92
Q

Avoid weather radar operation in a hangar, or within______ of fueling operations or a fuel spill or when personnel are within the area normally enclosed by the aircraft nose radome.

A

hangar, or within 50 feet of fueling operations or a fuel spill or when personnel are within the area normally enclosed by the aircraft nose radome.

93
Q

Flap Maneuvering Speed can be found in the

A

QRH PI

94
Q

400P

Without Cabin Crew on board, Cockpit ACMs and supernumeraires are ___________ to the upper deck cabin for taxi, takeoff and landing

A

restricted

95
Q

-8For crosswinds greater than _____ knots, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi(______%N1)with a tailwind component greater than _____ knots and winds greater than _____ Knots, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi(______%N1)For winds greater than ______ knots, limit engine thrust to idleEngines must be shut down when the _____ degree crosswind exceeds _____ knots

A

For crosswinds greater than (35) knots, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi(45 %N1)

with a tailwind component greater than (5) knots and winds greater than (26) Knots, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi(45%N1)

For winds greater than (55)knots, limit engine thrust to idle

Engines must be shut down when the (90) degree crosswind exceeds (55) knots

96
Q

400C, LCF

A/C PACKS OFF for takeoff or go-around is not ______.

A

permitted

97
Q

400P

If pack 3 is available, do not move the Pack 3 control selector to _____ during normal ground operations unless Pack 1 and Pack 2 selectors are OFF

A

OFF

98
Q

LCF

Autoland capability may only be used for operations into runways at or below ________ feet AFE

A

5,000

99
Q

N408MC - N412MC, N457MC - N477MC, N492MC - 499MCIf one HF radio is selected for transmission, _______ the other HF radio on all audio control panels to prevent audio interference

A

deselect

100
Q

400P

verify that an operational check of the flight deck access system has been accomplished ______ each day

A

once

101
Q

-8

in the event of a loss of primary air data, standby system corrections must be _____ by the flight crew

A

applied

102
Q

Pilots must monitor the required primary navigation aid(s) inside the FAF by display of the following:

DME: ______

VOR:______

NDB:_______

A

DME: Valid DME data

VOR: ND map may be used VOR/ADF switches must be in VOR

NDB: ND map may be used VOR/ADF switches must be in ADF

103
Q

Pilots must ______ if the EICAS alert message “Unable RNP” displays while on an RNAV approach, unless adequate visual reference can be established and maintained

A

Go-around

104
Q

RNAV(RNP) or RNP(AR) are ______

A

not authorized

105
Q

LCF

Reserve tank 2 and 3 maximum fuel tank quantity is __________

Main tank 1 and 4 maximum fuel tank quantity is _______

A

Res. 2/3: 2,065 kg (4553 lbs)

Main 1/4 9,933 kg (21,900 lbs)

106
Q

Horizontal Stabilizer Tank(HST)

The HST fuel quantity indication system must be _______ to dispatch with HST mission fuel

if the FUEL PMP STB L or R or FUEL LO STAB L or R or FUEL PRES STAB L or R message is displayed in flight the corresponding HST pumps must be selected _____

The remaining fuel in the HST must be considered ______

A

operative

Off

unusable

107
Q

-8

use of the powered outlets in flight is ______

A

prohibited

108
Q

-8

minimum OAT for takeoff and landing is ______

A

-47.8C

109
Q

-8

minimum runway width is _____

A

172 feet(52.4 meters)

110
Q

-8

on ground, oil pressure in the amber region requires _______ before flight

A

correction

111
Q

-400 QRC

A

Cabin Altitude/Rapid Depressurization

Eng 1,2,3,4 Autostart/Aborted Engine Start

Engine limit or surge or stall

IAS Disagree/Airspeed unreliable
Flaps extended ………… 10deg and 90% N1
Flaps up …………………….. 4deg and 80% N1

Fire ENG 1,2,3,4/Engine Severe Damage or separation

Multiple Engine Flameout or stall

Evacuation

112
Q

-8 QRC

A

[ ] Cabile Altitude

[ ] Eng 1,2,3,4 Autostart/Aborted Engine Start

[ ] Eng 1,2,3,4 Lim Exceed/ Surge

[ ] Engine Svr damge/Sep 1,2,3,4

[ ] IAS Disagree/Airspeed unreliable
Flaps extended ………… 10deg and 90% N1
Flaps up …………………….. 4deg and 80% N1

[ ] Fire ENG 1,2,3,4

Multi Eng Fail/Stall

Evacuation

113
Q

-400 WingspanMin width of pavement for 180 deg turn

A

213’ (64.9m)
153’ (46.6m)
-400 Fcom Vol 2

114
Q

-8WingspanMin turn radius

A

224’5”(68.4m)
172’(45.7m)
-8 Fcom Vol 2

115
Q

Pitch and Power

                               -400

Climb

Cruise

Descent

5,000 / Flaps up

Flaps 25

Flaps 30

GA

                                 -8

Climb

Cruise

Descent

5,000 / Flaps up

Flaps 25

Flaps 30

GA

A

Pitch and Power -400
Climb: 11 deg, drops 2 deg per 10,000’
Cruise : 1 - 4 deg, 80% - 90% N1
Descent: -3 to +1.5 deg
5,000 / Flaps up: 5 - 6.5 deg, 55 - 70% N1
Flaps 25: 2 deg, 50% - 70%
Flaps 30: 1 deg, 60% - 70%
GA: 12 deg

-8
Climb: 11 deg, drops 2 deg per 10,000' 
Cruise:  1 - 4 deg, 80% - 90% N1 
Descent:  -3 tp +1.5 deg  
5,000 / Flaps up: 5 - 6.5 deg, 55 - 70% N1
Flaps 25: 1 deg, 50% - 70%
Flaps 30: 1 deg, 50% - 70%
GA: 12 deg

Atlas Air B747 April 2022 (41 decks)

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