Extra - Limitations Flashcards
400F, 400C, 400P
Maximum operating Altitude
400F, 400C, 400P:
45,100’ PA
400F, 400C, 400P,
Maximum Altitude for Takeoff and Landing
LCF
Maximum Altitude for Takeoff and Landing
400F, 400C, 400P,
10,000’ PA
400F, 400C, 400P,
Maximum Field Elevation
400F, 400C, 400P,
9,500’ MSL
Runway slope
+/- 2%
L.10.2
-4
Turbulent Air penetration
-4
290 to 310 KIAS / 0.82 - 0.85 Mach, whichever is lower
-4
Maximum Tire speed (takeoff)
-4
235 mph / 204 kts
Minimum flight crew
Captain and First Officer
Maximum Takeoff and Landing Tailwind component
15 Knots
Ground wind limits for all doors
40 knots when opening or closing
65 knots while open
Takeoff and landing crosswind limits refer to _____
FCOM L.10.5
-8Reserve tanks 1 and 4 must remain full above the maximum fuel transfer weight of ________
375,286KG
For Zero Fuel Weights greater than ___________(Variable Zero Fuel Weight) comply with decrease maximum weight limits
*For Zero Fuel Weights greater than (276, 691 Kgs) (Variable Zero Fuel Weight) comply with decrease maximum weight limits (see table in Weight and Balance Manual). WBM VOL 1 (1.1.6 / 1.1.7 / 1.1.8)
The maximum weight limits may be less as limited by __________, _________, and _________ limits in FCOM limitations section.
Refer to the __________ manual for additional specific airplane loading limitations.
The maximum weight limits may be less as limited by (Center of Gravity), (Fuel Density), and (Fuel Loading Limits) limits in FCOM limitations section.
Refer to the (Weight and Balance Manual) manual for additional specific airplane loading limitations.
Maximum differential pressure (relief valves)
9.4 psi
Maximum allowable cabin pressure differential for takeoff and landing
0.11 psi
Do not operate the APU below __________
- 1,000’ PA
The APU may be used to supply bleed air to air conditioning pack number 2 for takeoff, provided __________ remain closed.
If an engine failure occurs do NOT change air conditioning bleed configuration until ____________ has been achieved to meet engine out performance.
The APU may be used to supply bleed air to air conditioning pack number (2) for takeoff, provided (isolation valves) remain closed.
If an engine failure occurs do (NOT) change air conditioning bleed configuration until (engine-out acceleration height)has been achieved to meet engine out performance.
Do NOT use APU __________ in flight
Do NOT use APU (Generator power) in flight
APU operations between ________ and _______ pressure altitude is limited to “no load” only
APU bleed air should not be used above _________
APU operations between (15,000 feet) and (20,000 feet) pressure altitude is limited to “no load” only
APU bleed air should not be used above (15,000 feet pressure altitude)
APU start cycle restrictions are:
1 and 2 _____ _______
2 and 3 _____ _______
3 and 4 _____ _______
APU is normally started on ______. The TR wait column are not applicable to aircraft without a TR start source.
If the TR should overheat with the start source switch in TR starting power is transferred to the _____ and the start continued on battery power. Any further start attempts with an overheated TR are ________.
A failure of the TR, other than an overheat does ______ provide automatic switching)to the APU Battery. Under these conditions, moving APU start source switch to BATTERY removes the TR from the Starting Circuit and allows APU starting on ______ power
Between Battery TR
Starts Wait Wait
1 and 2 1 min 1 min
2 and 3 1 min 10 min
3 and 4 75 min 75 min
APU is normally started on (Battery). The TR wait column are not applicable to aircraft without a TR start source.
If the TR should overheat with the start source switch in TR, starting power is transferred to the (battery) and the start continued on battery power. Any further start attempts with an overheated TR are (inhibited).
A failure of the TR, other than an overheat, does (NOT) provide automatic switching to the APU Battery. Under these conditions, moving APU start source switch to BATTERY removes the TR from the Starting Circuit and allows APU starting on (battery) power.
the use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is ________
Prohibited
the autopilot must not be engaged below ________ after takeoff
250 feet
the autopilot must be disengaged before the airplane descends more than _________ below minimums unless it is coupled to an ILS _____________ or in the _________
the autopilot must be disengaged before the airplane descends more than (50 feet) below minimums unless it is coupled to an ILS (glideslope and localizer) or in the (go-around mode).
WITHOUT LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must not remain engaged below _______
(100 feet RA)
Do not use FLCH on final approach below ________ AFE
Do not use FLCH on final approach below 1,000 feet AFE
When using autobrakes during Autoland operations, touchdown is assumed to occur at 2,500 feet from the runway threshold. ________ feet must be added to the advisory landing distance in the PI chapter or to the TLR WITHOUT Autoland distance provided
______ if using (ACARS) or (TLR with Autoland distance)
(1,000) feet must be added
N/A if using (ACARS) or (TLR with Autoland distance)
Automatic landings may be made with flaps _______
Automatic landings may be made with flaps (25 or 30 only)
Maximum GS angle for autoland is ________
minimum GS angle for autoland is _________
Maximum GS angle for autoland is (3.25)
minimum GS angle for autoland is (2.5)
Automatic landings require ____ operating hydraulic systems
Automatic landings require (4) operating hydraulic systems
Max wind component for Autoland
Headwind _____
Tailwind _______
Crosswind _______
Crosswind CAT II/III ______
Headwind
Headwind (25kts)
Tailwind (15kts)/(LCF 10kts)
Crosswind (25kts)
Crosswind CAT II/III (15kts)
L.10.7
The minimum threshold crossing height is ______
The minimum threshold crossing height is (44’)
ACARS is limited to the transmissions and receipt of messages, which will not create an ____________ if the message is improperly received
ACARS is limited to the transmissions and receipt of messages, which will not create an (unsafe condition) if the message is improperly received
PDC, D-ATIS, Oceanic Clearance, W/B, Performance Data messages can be transmitted and received over ACARS if they are ____________ per approved operational procedures
PDC, D-ATIS, Oceanic Clearance, W/B, Performance Data messages can be transmitted and received over ACARS if they are (verified) per approved operational procedures
ATC clearance data received through the FMC which can only be viewed on the flight deck printer must be independently ________ with the origination group station.
ATC clearance data received through the FMC which can only be viewed on the flight deck printer must be independently (verified) with the origination group station
Do NOT operate HF radios during ___________operations
Do NOT operate HF radios during (refueling) operations
N409MC, N480MC, N496MC - N499MC
Do NOT use the center VHF radio on _______ or ______ unless the left and right VHF radio communication systems are operational
N409MC, N480MC, N496MC - N499MC
Do not use center VHF radio on (120.000 MHz) or (120.005 MHz) unless the left and right VHF radio communication systems are operational
LCF, N419MC, N429MC, N464MC, N465MC, N471MC
Do NOT use the center VHF radio for voice communications with an operational __________ system, except for FIR boundary reports
LCF, N419MC, N429MC, N464MC, N465MC, N471MC
with an operational ACARS system, except for FIR boundary reports, Do NOT use the center VHF radio for voice communications with an operational (ACARS) system, except for FIR boundary reports
For Communication/Navigation/Surveillance(CNS) and RVSM required equipment refer to __________
L.10.9, L.10.10, QRM 3.1, QRM 3.2
The flight crew must use oxygen when cabin altitude is ABOVE _________. If 100% or Emergency is not needed, set the regulator to ________.
The flight crew must use oxygen when cabin altitude is ABOVE (10,000 feet). If 100% or Emergency is not needed, set the regulator to (Normal).
WITHOUT operable main deck signaling/alert system
Supernumeraries are ______ from accessing the main deck cargo any time the aircraft is moving
With operable main deck signaling/alert system
Supernumeraries are prohibited from accessing the main deck cargo compartment during _________, ______, and _______
WITHOUT operable main deck signaling/alert system
prohibited
With operable main deck signaling/alert system
(taxi), (takeoff), and (landing)
A maximum of _____ supernumeraries are allowed access to the main deck cargo compartment in-flight for cargo or liven animal operation
3
Supernumeraries must be _______ to return to their seats at the onset of a smoke, fire, or pressurization event, turbulence and prior to landing.
(signaled)
There must be at least _____ portable oxygen unit with a full face mask attached to it provided for each supernumerary allowed to enter the main deck cargo compartment during flight
one
During the flight, the supernumerary must carry the ______________ unit whenever he or she is in the main deck cargo compartment
(portable oxygen)
There must be at least ______ portable oxygen unit with a full face mask attached to it provided for each supernumerary allowed to enter the main deck cargo compartment during flight.
one
For aircraft WITHOUT an automatic aural and visual system installed, supernumeraries must also _________ the full-face mask and initiatee the oxygen flow whenever the main deck cargo compartment is accessed during flight. see placard on the smoke barrier door to determine requirement status.
don
An adequate quantity of oxygen for sustenance must be provided for each occupant for flight at ________ feet cabin altitude to the nearest suitable airport. in the event of cabin depressurization for any emergency condition, oxygen flow to upper deck occupant’s mask no longer in use must be turned ______. this will conserve oxygen and increase flow rates to mask remaining in use.
25,000
off
Target Oxygen Pressures (psi) Land Ocean
Crew System _____ _____
Pass System _____ _____
Is based on what altitude?
Target Oxygen Pressures (psi) Land Ocean
Crew System 950 1,200
Pass System 1,200 1,200
FL250
The smoke barrier door must be ______ during taxi, takeoff, flight and landing. The door must be _______ in-flight except when entering or leaving the main deck cargo compartment.
closed
closed
Takeoff EGT is limited to _______ minutes
400
- GE/PW 5 min
-8
10 min in the even of engine fail during takeoff
B5F
With EEC in Alternate mode, Takeoff power must be set after ________
Brake Release
GE
Minimum oil Pressure
PW
Minimum oil Pressure
-8
Oil Pressure limits
GE 10 PSI
PW 57 PSI
GE
see L10.25
On Ground, pressure in the amber region requires correction before flight.
PW
Oil Temperature must be greater than ____ C before advancing thrust levers to takeoff power
50
Engine Ignition must be ON when encountering:Use standby ignition if continuous is ______ available
Moderate to Heavy Rain Moderate to severe turbulence Icing conditions Hail or sleet Volcanic ash Standing water or slush on the runway
Use standby ignition if continuous is (not available)
SP7.5
During Ground operations (including taxi-in, taxi-out, and ground hold) in visible moisture and OAT 3C or below the flight crew must comply with the __________ in the SP Cold weather op
Run up procedures in the SP Cold weather ops
Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight is _____
Prohibited
Backing the airplane with the use of reverse thrust is _________
Prohibited
Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw as they may result in __________ at any speed, including below Va
Structural failure
Maximum altitude with flaps extended
20,000 feet
Flaps up Maneuvering load acceleration
Flaps down Maneuvering load acceleration
+2.5g to -1.0g
+2.0g to 0.0g
-8 varies linearly from +2.0g at MLW to +1.5g at MTOW
use of speedbrakes in flight with flaps extended past ________ is not recommended N249BA, N780BA (LCF)use of speedbrakes in flight with flaps extended past ________ is not recommended
20
10 for N249BA, N780BA
Engine Max, Min and Cautionary limits are what colorIf EICAS markings show more conservative limits than those specified in this section, the markings shown on the EICAS must be _______
Max/Min - Red
Caution - Amber
If EICAS markings show more conservative limits than those specified in this section, the markings shown on the EICAS must be observed
Max speed operating in RVSM airspace
0.90 Mach
Max allowable in-flight difference between captain and first officer altitude displays for RVSM operations is ____
200 feet
Max allowable on the ground altitude display difference for RVSM operations
Max Diff Capt and FO
- Sea Level to 5,000’- 35’
- 5,001’ - 9,000’ - 40’
Max Diff Capt and FO and Field Elevation
- 75’
Do ______ delete/add waypoints to RNAV/RNP DP’s or STAR procedures
NOT
The use of LNAV or VNAV with QFE isLCFQFE operations are ________
Prohibited
Min and Max VNAV path angle
2.75 / 3.5
If leveling off within 2,000 feet AFTER changing altimeter setting from QNE to QNH or QNH to QNE, do not use VNAV to execute the level off if the QNH is less than ________. After level off is complete, VNAV may be re-engaged.
29.70/1006
Do ______ cycle CWT and HST pump switches form ON to OFF to ON with any continuous low pressure indication present
NOT
Do _____ reset a tripped fuel pump circuit breaker
NOT
The CWT fuel quantity indication system must be operative to dispatch with ______ Trip fuel
CWT trip fuel
If the Fuel Low CTR L or R message is displayed, both override/jettison pumps must be selected _____
OFF
Except in a low fuel situation
If the Fuel Press CTR L or R message is displayed, both override/jettison pumps must be selected _____ except in a low _____ situation
OFF
Except in a low fuel situation
When Defueling or transferring fuel refer to to
FCOM limitations
-400
Do not extend or retract the flaps between postilions 1 and 5 during _____
fuel jettison
For fuel densities less than _______ gross weight is limitedFuel density limitations refer to the _______
2.92 kgs / 6.43 lbs / 0.771 ltr
FCOM limitations
PWTank fuel temperature prior to takeoff must not be less than ______ or ______ above the fuel freezing point temperature, whichever is higherIn flight tank fuel temperature must be maintained at least _______ above the fuel freezing point of the fuel being used.-8minimum tank fuel temperature in flight is ____
-43C or 3C
3C
-48C
L10.20
Max tank Temp is
+54C
The use of Jet B and JP4 is
prohibited
Nacelle anti-ice must be on during all ground and flight operations when __________
icing conditions exist or are anticipated except when the temperature is -40C OAT
Do not using ant-ice if OAT or TAT exceeds
10C
Icing conditions exist when indicated in flight by the primary ice detection if installed or else when the OAT on the ground and for takeoff or TAT in flight is _____ or below and visible moisture in any form is present.
10C
Icing conditions exist when the OAT on the ground and for takeoff is
10C or below when operating on ramps, taxiways or runways with surface snow, ice, standing water or slush
Operatins in ICING (GE CF6-80C2)Nacelle anit-ice must be _______ when ice crystal icing conditions exist even when the temperature is below -40C. If at or below 22,000 ft wing anti-ice must be ______ when ice crystal icing conditions exist even when the temperature is below -40C. Do not use ant-ice if OAT or TAT exceeds _____
ON
ON
10C
Window heat must be _______ for all normal flight conditions.
If window heat or anti fogging is inop, refer to the ________
ON
Limitations
Flaps Speeds
-400 -400 ERF -8
1
5
10
20
25
30
-400 -400 ERF -8
280 285 285
260 265 265
240 245 245
230 235 235
205 210 210
180 180 185
Landing gear retract or extend speed
Landing gear extended speed
270/0.82
320/0.82
The total number of persons including crew member that may occupy the upper deck cabin during taxi, takeoff, flight and landing are:
400F, -8
400C
LCF
400F, -8: 8
400C: 12
LCF: 4
Do ____ use the terrain display for navigation
not
The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions is prohibited within _____of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain databases.
15nm
of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain databases.
Avoid weather radar operation in a hangar, or within______ of fueling operations or a fuel spill or when personnel are within the area normally enclosed by the aircraft nose radome.
hangar, or within 50 feet of fueling operations or a fuel spill or when personnel are within the area normally enclosed by the aircraft nose radome.
Flap Maneuvering Speed can be found in the
QRH PI
400P
Without Cabin Crew on board, Cockpit ACMs and supernumeraires are ___________ to the upper deck cabin for taxi, takeoff and landing
restricted
-8For crosswinds greater than _____ knots, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi(______%N1)with a tailwind component greater than _____ knots and winds greater than _____ Knots, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi(______%N1)For winds greater than ______ knots, limit engine thrust to idleEngines must be shut down when the _____ degree crosswind exceeds _____ knots
For crosswinds greater than (35) knots, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi(45 %N1)
with a tailwind component greater than (5) knots and winds greater than (26) Knots, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi(45%N1)
For winds greater than (55)knots, limit engine thrust to idle
Engines must be shut down when the (90) degree crosswind exceeds (55) knots
400C, LCF
A/C PACKS OFF for takeoff or go-around is not ______.
permitted
400P
If pack 3 is available, do not move the Pack 3 control selector to _____ during normal ground operations unless Pack 1 and Pack 2 selectors are OFF
OFF
LCF
Autoland capability may only be used for operations into runways at or below ________ feet AFE
5,000
N408MC - N412MC, N457MC - N477MC, N492MC - 499MCIf one HF radio is selected for transmission, _______ the other HF radio on all audio control panels to prevent audio interference
deselect
400P
verify that an operational check of the flight deck access system has been accomplished ______ each day
once
-8
in the event of a loss of primary air data, standby system corrections must be _____ by the flight crew
applied
Pilots must monitor the required primary navigation aid(s) inside the FAF by display of the following:
DME: ______
VOR:______
NDB:_______
DME: Valid DME data
VOR: ND map may be used VOR/ADF switches must be in VOR
NDB: ND map may be used VOR/ADF switches must be in ADF
Pilots must ______ if the EICAS alert message “Unable RNP” displays while on an RNAV approach, unless adequate visual reference can be established and maintained
Go-around
RNAV(RNP) or RNP(AR) are ______
not authorized
LCF
Reserve tank 2 and 3 maximum fuel tank quantity is __________
Main tank 1 and 4 maximum fuel tank quantity is _______
Res. 2/3: 2,065 kg (4553 lbs)
Main 1/4 9,933 kg (21,900 lbs)
Horizontal Stabilizer Tank(HST)
The HST fuel quantity indication system must be _______ to dispatch with HST mission fuel
if the FUEL PMP STB L or R or FUEL LO STAB L or R or FUEL PRES STAB L or R message is displayed in flight the corresponding HST pumps must be selected _____
The remaining fuel in the HST must be considered ______
operative
Off
unusable
-8
use of the powered outlets in flight is ______
prohibited
-8
minimum OAT for takeoff and landing is ______
-47.8C
-8
minimum runway width is _____
172 feet(52.4 meters)
-8
on ground, oil pressure in the amber region requires _______ before flight
correction
-400 QRC
Cabin Altitude/Rapid Depressurization
Eng 1,2,3,4 Autostart/Aborted Engine Start
Engine limit or surge or stall
IAS Disagree/Airspeed unreliable
Flaps extended ………… 10deg and 90% N1
Flaps up …………………….. 4deg and 80% N1
Fire ENG 1,2,3,4/Engine Severe Damage or separation
Multiple Engine Flameout or stall
Evacuation
-8 QRC
[ ] Cabile Altitude
[ ] Eng 1,2,3,4 Autostart/Aborted Engine Start
[ ] Eng 1,2,3,4 Lim Exceed/ Surge
[ ] Engine Svr damge/Sep 1,2,3,4
[ ] IAS Disagree/Airspeed unreliable
Flaps extended ………… 10deg and 90% N1
Flaps up …………………….. 4deg and 80% N1
[ ] Fire ENG 1,2,3,4
Multi Eng Fail/Stall
Evacuation
-400 WingspanMin width of pavement for 180 deg turn
213’ (64.9m)
153’ (46.6m)
-400 Fcom Vol 2
-8WingspanMin turn radius
224’5”(68.4m)
172’(45.7m)
-8 Fcom Vol 2
Pitch and Power
-400
Climb
Cruise
Descent
5,000 / Flaps up
Flaps 25
Flaps 30
GA
-8
Climb
Cruise
Descent
5,000 / Flaps up
Flaps 25
Flaps 30
GA
Pitch and Power -400
Climb: 11 deg, drops 2 deg per 10,000’
Cruise : 1 - 4 deg, 80% - 90% N1
Descent: -3 to +1.5 deg
5,000 / Flaps up: 5 - 6.5 deg, 55 - 70% N1
Flaps 25: 2 deg, 50% - 70%
Flaps 30: 1 deg, 60% - 70%
GA: 12 deg
-8 Climb: 11 deg, drops 2 deg per 10,000' Cruise: 1 - 4 deg, 80% - 90% N1 Descent: -3 tp +1.5 deg 5,000 / Flaps up: 5 - 6.5 deg, 55 - 70% N1 Flaps 25: 1 deg, 50% - 70% Flaps 30: 1 deg, 50% - 70% GA: 12 deg
