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Medical Assistant > Exam Prep #1 > Flashcards

Exam Prep #1 Flashcards

Foundational Knowledge and Basic Science

1
Q

List 10 responsibilities of a MA.

A

-Checking patients in at the front desk.
-Answering phone calls.
-Scheduling appointments.
-Interviewing patients for case histories and -key information before appointments.
-Compiling medical records and charts.
-Processing insurance payments.
-Transferring lab results to the appropriate clinician.
-Maintaining supplies and appearance for the office.
-Explaining treatment and procedures.
-Preparing and administering vaccinations.
-Obtaining VS.
-Assisting the provider with exams.
-Drawing bloodwork and urine samples.
-Obtaining height and weight.
-Performing EKG.
-Care wounds and complete dressing changes.
-Medications with supervision.

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2
Q

List 5 healthcare personnel.

A

-Medical Doctors
-Osteopathic Doctors
-Nurse Practitioners
-Physician Assistant
-Medical Lab Technicians
-Pharmacy Technician
-Occupational Therapists
-Medical Receptionist
-Physical Therapist
-Radiological Technician

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3
Q

Define Scope of Practice.

A

Refers to the duties and tasks that a healthcare provider can perform based on their education and training.

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4
Q

What are some additional credentials of an MA.

A

-CPT
-CET
-CBCS
-CEHRS

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5
Q

Every state requires an MA to be licensed in the state. T/F?

A

False, except for certain testing (x-ray, phlebotomy)

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6
Q

What are 4 type’s of HMO’s?

A

-Group Model HMOs
-Individual Practice Association Model HMO (IPA)
-Network Model HMO
-Staff Model HMO

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7
Q

HMO’s often use who as the “gatekeepers”.

A

Primary Care Physician (PCP)

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8
Q

Programs which contracts are established with providers of medical care. Provides better benefits for services is called what? PPO

A

Preferred Provider Organization

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9
Q

Health care plan allowing the covered patients to choose to receive a service from participating/non-participating providers is called what? Patients pay higher. POS

A

Point of Service

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10
Q

Delivers high-quality, cost-effective primary care is called what? PCMH

A

Patient-Centered Medical Home

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11
Q

Groups of hospitals, physicians and other providers who coordinate care for patients and deliver the right care at right time is called what? ACO

A

Accountable Care Organizations

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12
Q

What does Hospice provide?

A

Special kind of care for patients experiencing an advanced, end of life illness.

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13
Q

When primary care providers, care managers, and psychiatric consultants work together to monitor patient progress is called what? CCM

A

Collaborative Care Model

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14
Q

A payment model that offers financial incentives to physicians, hospitals, and medical groups for performance measures is called what? P4P

A

Pay for Performance

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15
Q

Pay for Performance is also known as what?

A

Value-Based Purchasing

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16
Q

List 3 general health services.

A
  • General Practitioners
  • Family Practitioners
  • Internists
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17
Q

List 10 specialty health services.

A
  • Allergists
  • Anesthesiologists
  • Cardiologists
  • Dermatologists
  • Endocrinologists
  • Gastroenterologists
  • Hematologists
  • Infectious Disease Specialists
  • Nephrologists
  • Neurologist
  • Obstetrician
  • Gynecologists
  • Oncologists
  • Ophthalmologists
  • Pathologists
  • Pediatrician
  • Podiatrists
  • Plastic Surgeons
  • Urologists
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18
Q

Physician who treats acute and chronic illnesses and provides preventive care and health education to patients of all ages.

A

General Practitioners

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19
Q

Medical specialty doctor within primary care that provides continuing and comprehensive healthcare for the individual and family across all ages.

A

Family Practitioners

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20
Q

Doctors who specialize in the internal organs and systems of the body, but they are not limited to those areas. Treat only adults.

A

Internists

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21
Q

Doctors that treat immune system disorders such as asthma, eczema, food allergies, insect allergies, autoimmune diseases.

A

Allergists/Immunologists

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22
Q

Doctors that give you drugs to numb your pain or to put you under surgery, childbirth, or other procedures. Monitor vital signs when under anesthesia.

A

Anesthesiologists

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23
Q

Doctors who specialize on the heart and blood vessels. Ideal for heart failure, heart attack, high blood pressure, irregular heartbeat.

A

Cardiologists

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24
Q

Doctors who help with skin, hair, nails, moles, scars, acne or skin allergies.

A

Dermatologists

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25
Q

Doctors who specialize on hormones and metabolism. Treat conditions such as diabetes, thyroid problems, infertility, and calcium and bone disorders.

A

Endocrinologists

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26
Q

Doctors who specialize in digestive organs, stomach bowels, pancreas, liver, and gallbladder. Ideal for abdominal pain, ulcers, diarrhea, jaundice, or cancers in the digestive tract. As well as colonoscopy.

A

Gastroenterologists

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27
Q

Doctors who specialize in diseases of the blood, spleen, and lymph glands, like sickle cell disease, anemia, hemophilia, and leukemia.

A

Hematologists

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28
Q

Doctors who diagnose and treat infections in any part of your body, like fevers, Lyme disease, pneumonia, tuberculosis, HIV, and AIDS.

A

Infectious Disease Specialists

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29
Q

Doctors who treat kidney diseases as well as high blood pressure and fluid and mineral imbalances linked to kidney disease.

A

Nephrologists

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30
Q

Doctors who specialize in the nervous system, which includes the brain, spinal cord, and nerves. Treat strokes, brain and spinal tumors, epilepsy, Parkinson’s disease, and Alzheimer’s disease.

A

Neurologist

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31
Q

A doctor who specializes in the care of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and after delivery

A

Obstetrician

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32
Q

Doctor who diagnoses and treats issues with female reproductive organs.

A

Gynecologists

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33
Q

Doctors who specialize in cancer. Perform chemotherapy treatments and often work with radiation oncologists and surgeons

A

Oncologists

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34
Q

Eye doctors. Prescribe glasses or contact lenses and diagnose and treat disease like glaucoma.

A

Ophthalmologists

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35
Q

Lab doctors that identify the cause of diseases by examining body tissues and fluids under microscopes.

A

Pathologists

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36
Q

Doctors who care for children from birth to young adulthood.

A

Pediatricians

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37
Q

Doctors who care for problems in ankles and feet. Includes injuries from accidents or sports or ongoing health conditions like diabetes.

A

Podiatrists

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38
Q

Doctors who rebuild or repair the skin, face, hands, breasts, or body.

A

Plastic Surgeons

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39
Q

These are surgeons who care for men and women for problems in the urinary tract, like a leaky bladder.

A

Urologists

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40
Q

List 7 insurance plans.

A

-Managed Care Plan
-Medicare
-Medicaid
-TRICARE
-Worker’s Compensation
-Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Department of Veterans Affairs (CHAMPVA)
-Private Health Insurance Companies

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41
Q

An umbrella term for all healthcare plans that provide healthcare in return for preset monthly payments and coordinated care. MCP

A

Managed Care Plan

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42
Q

A federally sponsored health insurance program for those over the age of 65 and for individuals under 65 who are disabled.

A

Medicare

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43
Q

Joint federal and state program that provides health coverage to qualifying children, pregnant women, parents, seniors, and individuals with disabilities. Largest source of healthcare in the United States.

A

Medicaid

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44
Q

Government-sponsored program under which authorized dependents of military personnel receive medical care. Originally called CHAMPUS.

A

TRICARE

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45
Q

A system of laws that protects employees against the loss of wages and the cost of medical care resulting from an occupational accident, disease, or death. Unless the employee is proven negligent.

A

Worker’s Compensation

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46
Q

A comprehensive health care program in which the VA pays the cost of covered health care services and supplies for eligible beneficiaries. Cannot be eligible for TRICARE, but can be the spouse or child of disabled veterans.

A

Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Department of Veterans Affairs (CHAMPVA)

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47
Q

Which insurance plan are patients not eligible for covered under the CHAMPVA insurance?

A

TRICARE

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48
Q

Individual health insurance available to an individual or family through either the federal health insurance marketplace.

A

Private Health Insurance Companies

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49
Q

Insurance fundamental that helps Medicare Fee for Service (FFS) beneficiaries make informed decisions about items and services Medicare usually covers, but not in specific situations.

A

Advanced Beneficiary Notice

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50
Q

Insurance fundamental when the maximum amount of money that many third-party payers allow for specific procedure or service.

A

Allowed Charge

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51
Q

Insurance fundamental where a policy provision frequently found in medical insurance whereby the policyholder and the insurance company share the cost of covered losses in a specified ratio.

A

Co-Insurance

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52
Q

Insurance fundamental where a sum of money that is paid at the time of medical service. Form of co-insurance

A

Co-Payment

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53
Q

Insurance fundamental where specific amounts of money a patient must pay out of pocket before the insurance carrier begins paying. Average between $100-$500. Amount is met on a yearly or per-incident basis.

A

Deductible

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54
Q

Insurance fundamental when a letter or statement from the insurance carrier describing what was paid, denied, or reduced in payment.

A

Explanation of Benefits (EOB)

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55
Q

Insurance fundamental when a physician or other healthcare provider who enters into a contract with a specific insurance company or program and by doing so agrees to abide by certain rules and regulations set forth by that third-party payer.

A

Participating Provider (PAR)

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56
Q

Medical term for bone.

A

Oste-

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57
Q

Medical term for muscle.

A

Myo-

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58
Q

Medical term for nerves.

A

Neur-

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59
Q

Medical term for heart.

A

Cardio-

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60
Q

Medical term for blood.

A

Hemo- or Sangru-

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61
Q

Medical term for blood vessels.

A

Angio-

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62
Q

Medical term for veins.

A

Veno- or Phleb-

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63
Q

Medical term for aorta.

A

Aort-

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64
Q

Medical term for arteries.

A

Arteo-

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65
Q

Medical term for brain.

66
Q

Medical term for nose-

67
Q

Medical term for eardrum.

A

Tympa- or Myringo-

68
Q

Medical term or tooth.

A

Odont- or Dento-

69
Q

Medical term for above normal.

70
Q

Medical term for below normal.

71
Q

Medical term for fast.

72
Q

Medical term for slow.

73
Q

Medical term for around.

74
Q

Medical term for across.

75
Q

Medical term for inside.

76
Q

Medical term for between.

77
Q

Medical term for using ultrasonic waves.

78
Q

Medical term for using electricity.

79
Q

Medical term for surgical binding.

80
Q

Medical term for removal of.

81
Q

Medical term for device of measurement.

82
Q

Medical term for measurement of.

83
Q

Medical term for visual examination.

84
Q

Medical term for opening.

85
Q

Medical term for surgical fixation.

86
Q

Medical term for surgical reconstruciton.

87
Q

Medical term for examining.

88
Q

Medical term for surgical opening.

89
Q

Medical term for cutting/incision.

90
Q

Medical term for recording, written, picture.

91
Q

Medical term for process of making a picture.

92
Q

Medical term for clean cut in.

93
Q

Direction toward the head or upper part of the body; above.

A

Superior (Cranial)

94
Q

Direction away from the head or toward the lower part of the body; below

A

Inferior (Caudal)

95
Q

Direction toward or at the front of the body; in front of.

A

Ventral (Anterior)

96
Q

Direction toward or at the back of the body; behind.

A

Dorsal (Posterior)

97
Q

Direction towards or at the midline of the body.

98
Q

Direction away from the midline of the body.

99
Q

Between a medial and lateral position

A

Intermediate

100
Q

Direction closer to the origin of the body part or point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk.

101
Q

Direction away from the origin of a body part or point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk.

102
Q

Direction toward or at the body surface.

A

Superficial (External)

103
Q

Direction away from the body surface.

A

Deep (Internal)

104
Q

A vertical plane that divides the body into the right and left parts.

A

Sagittal Plane

105
Q

Route of administration to administer pills, capsules, syrups, elixirs, and lozenges. Medications for mucosal absorption may be given sublingually or in the buccal mucosa as well.

106
Q

Route of administration for metered dose inhalers, dry inhalers, nebulizers, as well as oxygen by nasal cannula or mask. Medication works very quickly.

A

Inhalation

107
Q

Route of administration for creams, ointments, gels. Applied directly to skin for absorption. Occluding a topical medication with clothing or bandages may enhance its systemic absorption.

108
Q

Route of administration to deliver medication by drops. Can be used for eyes, or nose. Includes eye drops, ear drops, and nasal drops. Patients must be positioned appropriately

A

Instillation

109
Q

Route of administration for patches that deliver medication topically, but usually do so slowly overtime. Examples include Fentanyl patches for pain and Estrogen patches for hormone replacement therapy.

A

Transdermal

110
Q

Route of administration that is used for medications delivered vaginally typically come in the form of suppositories, pills, or creams. Vaginal ring may also be used as a form of contraception.

111
Q

Route of administration through the rectum, which provides a mucosal surface for drug absorption that typically produces a rapid effect using smaller medication doses. Nausea, anti-seizure, and narcotic and non-narcotic pain medications are frequently given in this manner.

112
Q

Name the 3 types of injections.

A
  • Subcutaneous
  • Intramuscular
  • Intradermal
113
Q

Medication is injected into the fat. An example of a drug that is delivered this way is Insulin.

A

Subcutaneous (SQ)

114
Q

Medication is injected into the muscle belly itself. An example of a drug that is delivered this way is Corticosteroid, such as Dexamethasone.

A

Intramuscular (IM)

115
Q

Medication is injected very superficially into the dermis or second layer of skin. An example of a drug that is delivered this way is PPD, known as the Mantoux test for Tuberculosis.

A

Intradermal (ID)

116
Q

Drugs with no currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. Examples include Heroin, Lysergic Acid, Diethylamide (LSD). Marijuana (Cannabis), 3,4 Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (Ecstasy), Methaqualone, and Peyote. Which Drug Schedule?

A

Schedule I

117
Q

Drugs with high potential for abuse, with use potentially leading to severe psychological or physical dependence. Considered dangerous. Examples include Cocaine, Methamphetamine, Vicodin, Methadone, Hydromorphone (Dilaudid), Meperidine (Demerol), Oxycodone (OxyContin), Fentanyl, Dexedrine, Adderall, and Ritalin. Which Drug Schedule?

A

Schedule II

118
Q

Drugs with moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence. Abuse potential is less than I and II but more than IV. Examples include Tylenol with Codeine, Ketamine, Anabolic Steroids, Testosterone. Which Drug Schedule?

A

Schedule III

119
Q

Drugs with low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence. Examples include Xanax, Soma, Darvon, Darvocet, Valium, Ativan, Talvin, Ambien, and Tramadol. Which Drug Schedule?

A

Schedule IV

120
Q

Drugs with lower potential for abuse than IV and consist of preparation containing limited quantities of certain narcotics. Generally used for antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic purposes. Examples include Codeine, Robitussin AC, Lomotil, Motofen, Lyrica, and Praepectolin. Which Drug Schedule?

A

Schedule V

121
Q

List 10 Forms of Medication

A
  • Tablets
  • Capsules
  • Chewable tablets
  • Injections
  • Powders
  • Solutions
  • Emulsions
  • Suspensions
  • Lotions
  • Creams
  • Ointments
  • Effervescent Granules
  • Aerosols
  • Gasses
  • Suppositories
122
Q

Name the branch of pharmacology that examines how drug concentrations change with respect to time as a function of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.

A

Pharmacokinetics

123
Q

Time course of drug movement from the site of administration to the site of measurement, blood, is called what?

124
Q

Describes the time course of distribution and elimination from the site of measurement, blood.

A

Deposition

125
Q

1 cc equals how many mL?

126
Q

1 teaspoon contains how many cc?

127
Q

1 tablespoon contains how much cc?

128
Q

List the 6 Rights of Medication Administration.

A
  • Right Patient
  • Right Drug
  • Right Route
  • Right Time
  • Right Dose
  • Right Documentation
129
Q

List the 6 dietary nutrients

A
  • Carbohydrates
  • Fats
  • Proteins
  • Vitamins
  • Fiber
  • Water
130
Q

Dietary nutrient that manages blood sugar, weight, insulin dosage and ketosis.

131
Q

Too much of this dietary nutrient causes weight gain, acne, and metabolic syndrome. Too little causes headaches, hypoglycemia and constipation.

132
Q

Dietary nutrition that manages inflammation, visceral fat, and regulates body fat percentage.

133
Q

Too much much of this dietary nutrient causes heart disease, cancer and diabetes. Too little causes slow wound healing, skin inflammation and vitamin deficiencies.

A

Fat nutrients

134
Q

Dietary nutrient that helps build and repair tissue, digestion, regulates hormones, prevents muscle loss, and helps with cell function.

135
Q

Dietary nutrients that help bodily functions, regulate fluid balance, and produce energy.

A

Minerals and Electrolytes

136
Q

Magnesium, Potassium and Sodium fall under which dietary nutrient?

A

Minerals and Electrolytes

137
Q

Dietary nutrient that help convert food to energy, fight infections, blood clotting wounds, growth and development, and repair cell damage.

138
Q

Dietary nutrient that help with digestion, reduce heart disease, prevents cancer, manages cholesterol, and weight loss.

139
Q

Fruits, vegetables, and certain grains are sources of which dietary nutrient?

140
Q

Dietary nutrient that regulates temperature, organ protection, waste removal, improves kidney health, heightened sense functions, and nutrient delivery.

141
Q

Which 4 food labels are required on food products by the USDA?

A
  • Serving size
  • Calories per serving
  • Grams of different fats
  • Sodium, potassium, cholesterol, carbs, sugar and proteins
142
Q

Conditions related to persistent eating behaviors that negatively impact your health, emotion, and ability to function in important areas of life is called what?

A

Eating disorder

143
Q

3 most common eating disorders are?

A
  • Anorexia Nervosa
  • Bulimia Nervosa
  • Binge-Eating Disorder
144
Q

Potentially life-threatening eating disorder characterized by abnormally low body weight, intense fear of gaining weight, and distorted perception of weight is called? AN

A

Anorexia Nervosa

145
Q

Potentially life-threatening eating disorder. Episodes of binging and purging that involve feeling a lack of control over your eating is called? BN

A

Bulimia Nervosa

146
Q

Regularly eat too much food and feel a lack of control of your eating is called? BED

A

Binge-Eating Disorder

147
Q

Erickson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development consist of how many stages?

148
Q

Developmental Stage #1 are?

A

Trust vs Mistrust

149
Q

Developmental Stage #2 are?

A

Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt

150
Q

Developmental Stage #3 are?

A

Initiative vs. Guilt

151
Q

Developmental Stage #4 are?

A

Industry vs. Inferiority

152
Q

Developmental Stage #5 are?

A

Identity vs. Confusion

153
Q

Developmental Stage #6 are?

A

Intimacy vs. Isolation

154
Q

Developmental Stage #7 are?

A

Generativity vs. Stagnation

155
Q

Developmental Stage #8 are?

A

Integrity vs. Despair

156
Q

Air, food, drink, shelter, warmth, sex, sleep is considered what kind of need?

A

Biological and Physiological Needs

157
Q

Protection from elements, security, order, law, stability, freedom from fear is considered what kind of need?

A

Safety Needs

158
Q

Friendship, intimacy, trust, and acceptance, receiving and giving affection and love is considered what kind of need?

A

Love and Belongingness Needs

159
Q

Realizing personal potential, self-fulfillment, seeking growth and peak experience is considered what kind of need?

A

Self-Actualization Needs

160
Q

Esteem for oneself such as dignity and independence. As well as needed to be accepted and valued by others is considered what kind of need?

A

Esteem Needs

161
Q

Maslov’s Hierarchy of Needs consists of how many human needs?

162
Q

What are the 5 stages of grief?

A
  • Denial
  • Anger
  • Bargaining
  • Depression
  • Acceptance

Medical Assistant (42 decks)

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