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BIO 142 > Exam 5: Reproductive & Development > Flashcards

Exam 5: Reproductive & Development Flashcards

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1
Q

What originates in the yolk sac, then migrates to the embryo?

A

Primordial germ cells

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2
Q

When do the primordial germ cells migrate to the embryo?

A

At 5 weeks

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3
Q

What do the primordial germ cells give rise to?

A

Gonadal ridge
Hemopoietic/hematopoietic stem cells

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4
Q

Where does the gonadal ridge take form?

A

On the dorsum of the abdominopelvic cavity

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5
Q

What gives rise to the gonads?

A

Gonadal ridge

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6
Q

What are the male and female gonads?

A

Testes for male
Ovaries for female

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7
Q

Are primordial germ cells and primordial germ layers the same?

A

NO

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8
Q

What do hemopoietic/hematopoietic stem cells do?

A

Give rise to blood cells

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9
Q

How many chromosomes are in MOST of our cells?

A

46 chromosomes, or 23 pairs

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10
Q

What are pairs 1-22 of chromosomes called?

A

Autosomes

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11
Q

What are the two chromosomes of the 23rd pair called?

A

Sex chromosomes

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12
Q

What sex chromosomes do females have? Where do they get them from?

A

XX
One maternal X, one paternal X

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13
Q

What sex chromosomes do males have? Where do they get them from?

A

XY
One maternal X, one paternal Y

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14
Q

What chromosome can mom’s oocytes carry?

A

Only X

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15
Q

What chromosomes can dad’s sperm carry?

A

Either an X or Y

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16
Q

Does mom or dad’s chromosomal contribution determine baby’s sex?

A

Dads (as sperm carries either X or Y, and whichever it is will determine the sex)

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17
Q

Are there more genes on the X or Y chromosomes?

A

More on the X, very few on Y

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18
Q

What are characteristics determined by genes on the sex chromosomes, such as that for colorblindness?

A

Sex-linked traits

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19
Q

When primordial germ cells migrate to the gonadal ridge, what two structures are there? (In ALL embryos)

A

Mesonephric (Wolffian) Duct
Paramesonephric (Mullerian) Duct

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20
Q

Is the Mesonephric (Wolffian) Duct developed in male or female fetuses?

A

Male

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21
Q

Is the Paramesonephric (Mullerian) Duct developed in male or female fetuses?

A

Female

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22
Q

Are both Mesonephric (Wolffian) and Paramesonephric (Mullerian) Ducts present in all early fetuses?

A

Yes

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23
Q

What gene does the Y chromosome have?

A

Sex-Determining Region of Y (SRY gene)

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24
Q

What does the SRY gene code for?

A

The protein known as Testis-Determining Factor (TDF)

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25
Q

What does Testis-Determining Factor (TDF) do?

A

Regulates the development of the testes

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26
Q

What do the testes produce?

A

Testosterone
Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH)

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27
Q

What is testosterone responsible for?

A

Male hormone for primary and secondary sex characteristics

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28
Q

What’s the difference between primary and secondary male characteristics?

A

Primary: male genitalia (penis)
Secondary: hair and fat distribution, sebaceous secretions, thicker hair, larynx hypertrophy, > metabolism, >RBCs, > protein synthesis (mass)

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29
Q

What does Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH) do?

A

It causes the regression of female-forming Paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts. This allows for the development of the male-forming Mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts

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30
Q

Which sex of fetus have to suppress the development of the opposite sex in order to develop their characteristics?

A

Males have to suppress the development of female reproduction

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31
Q

What happens if AMH doesn’t work properly?

A

Male fetuses would have testes that wouldn’t descend. The individual would appear female.

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32
Q

What happens to the Paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts in males?

A

They regress, but remain as the Appendix of Epididymis and Appendix of Testis

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33
Q

What cells come from the Greek word for “body”?

A

Somatic cells

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34
Q

What type of cells are seen in the body in all places other than the gametes?

A

Somatic cells

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35
Q

What division do somatic cells do?

A

Mitosis

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36
Q

What are specialized cells that give rise to the gametes?

A

Germ cells

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37
Q

What nuclear division do germ cells use?

A

Meiosis

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38
Q

In mitosis, how many cells does one cell make?

A

One cell divides to make two cells

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39
Q

Are the starting and ending cells in mitosis haploid or diploid?

A

Both are diploid (genetic copies)

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40
Q

What is the cell produced by nuclear division called?

A

Daughter cells

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41
Q

What nuclear division is seen in gametogenesis?

A

Meiosis

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42
Q

What is the production of the gametes called?

A

Gametogenesis

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43
Q

How many cells do you end up with in meiosis?

A

One cell makes 4 daughters

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44
Q

Are the starting and ending cells in meiosis haploid or diploid?

A

One diploid cell (46 chromosomes) makes 4 haploid cells (23 chromosomes each)

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45
Q

What is the production of sperm or gametogenesis in the male called?

A

Spermatogenesis

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46
Q

What is the production of oocytes (eggs) or gametogenesis in the female called?

A

Oogenesis

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47
Q

What are the 3 main phases in somatic cell division?

A

Interphase
Nuclear division (mitosis/meiosis)
Cytokinesis

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48
Q

What phase is preparation for cell division?

A

Interphase

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49
Q

What subphase of interphase has biosynthesis of proteins and organelle duplication?

A

G1

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50
Q

What subphase of interphase has DNA replication?

A

S

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51
Q

What subphase of interphase has cell growth and enzyme production?

A

G2

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52
Q

What subphase of interphase has cells no longer dividing?

A

G0

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53
Q

What is the division of the nucleus called?

A

Mitosis

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54
Q

In what phase do chromosomes condense and become visible as individual chromosomes?

A

Prophase

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55
Q

In what phase does the nuclear membrane and nucleoli disappear?

A

Prophase

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56
Q

In what phase do the spindle fibers and asters appear?

A

Prophase

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57
Q

What are specialized microtubules that connect chromatids to their respective poles?

A

Spindles

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58
Q

What are specialized microtubules that anchor the centrosomes or centrioles in place?

A

Asters

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59
Q

In what phase do centromeres of chromosomes line up on the metaphase plate?

A

Metaphase II

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60
Q

In what phase do centromeres divide and migration happens to the poles?

A

Anaphase

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61
Q

What migrates in anaphase?

A

Sister chromatids

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62
Q

How is the migration in anaphase powered?

A

The motor proteins of the kinetochores

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63
Q

What phase is essentially the opposite of prophase?

A

Telophase

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64
Q

What is the division of cytoplasm called?

A

Cytokinesis

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65
Q

How many base pairs are there in 46 chromosomes?

A

About 3 billion base pairs

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66
Q

When does spermatogenesis begin/end?

A

Begins in puberty, lasts throughout life

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67
Q

When does oogenesis begin/end?

A

Begins in the fetus, stops at first meiotic arrest.
Resumes at puberty, stops at second meiotic arrest

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68
Q

What ends the first meiotic arrest?

A

Puberty

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69
Q

What ends the second meiotic arrest?

A

Fertilization

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70
Q

Which gametogenesis is this:
a single diploid cells gives rise to 4 functional haploid cells

A

Spermatogenesis

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71
Q

Which gametogenesis is this:
a single diploid cell gives rise to 1 functional haploid cell and 3 chromosomal dumps (polar bodies and ootids)

A

Oogenesis

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72
Q

What phase does first meiotic arrest happen?

A

Prophase I

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73
Q

What phase does second meiotic arrest happen?

A

Metaphase II

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74
Q

When does meiosis stop permanently for females?

A

Once all the follicles and their oocytes are lost, after menopause

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75
Q

What is another name for first meiotic division?

A

Reduction division

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76
Q

What happens to the number of chromosomes and cells in first meiotic division/reduction division?

A

The number of chromosomes is cut from 1 cell with 46 to 2 cells with 23

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77
Q

Are the chromosomes in the 2 cells with 23 chromosomes in first meiotic division/reduction division still replicated?

A

YES

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78
Q

What is it called when homologous pairs pair up? (#1 from mom pairs with #1 from dad)

A

Synapsis

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79
Q

What is it called when some paternal genes swap over to the maternal chromosomes and vice versa to mix up the traits?

A

Crossing over

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80
Q

Why is crossing over important?

A

Increases genetic variability

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81
Q

What happens to the number of chromosomes and cells in second meiotic division?

A

The number of chromosomes is maintained from 2 haploid cells with 23 chromosomes to 2 more haploid cells with 23 chromosomes (a total of 4)

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82
Q

In what phase do homologous pairs line up on the metaphase plate?

A

Metaphase I

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83
Q

What are two chromatids still attached at the centromere called?

A

Dyad

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84
Q

What is a tetrad?

A

A homologous pair that is lined up together (a total of 4 chromatids and 2 centromeres)

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85
Q

What is the “pinch” in the cell membrane demonstrating the cytoplasm’s division?

A

Cleavage furrow

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86
Q

When are chromatids counted as separate chromosomes?

A

After they divide in anaphase II

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87
Q

What is intermeiotic interphase?

A

Interphase II, also known as interkinesis
Between meiosis I and meiosis II

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88
Q

How long does spermatogenesis take in days?

A

70-75 days

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89
Q

What is the miotic development of diploid spermatogonia called?

A

Spermatocytogenesis

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90
Q

What is the release of sperm into the seminiferous tubules called?

A

Spermiation

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91
Q

What part of the spermatozoan is filled with hydrolytic/proteolytic enzymes?

A

Acrosome

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92
Q

What do the hydrolytic/proteolytic enzymes do?

A

Digest the sperms way into the oocyte

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93
Q

Where is the DNA contained in the spermatozoan?

A

Nucleus

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94
Q

What does the head of the spermatozoan consist of?

A

Nucleus + acrosome

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95
Q

What is another name for the midpiece in the spermatozoan?

A

Mitochondria

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96
Q

What does the mitochondria/midpiece do?

A

Make ATP

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97
Q

What is another name for the sperm’s tail?

A

Flagellum

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98
Q

What produces spermatozoa?

A

Testes

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99
Q

What are the tubules within testes where sperm develops?

A

Seminiferous tubules

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100
Q

What cells surround and maintain the developing sperm?

A

Sertoli cells (sustentacular or nurse cells)

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101
Q

What do the sertoli cells make up?

A

The blood-testes barrier

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102
Q

What happens if the blood-testes barrier is compromised?

A

The immune system will attack the sperm as “non-self” resulting in sterility

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103
Q

What cells are in the connective tissue just outside the seminiferous tubules?

A

Leydig cells (interstitial cells)

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104
Q

What do Leydig cells produce?

A

Testosterone and other androgens

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105
Q

What is a term for male hormones?

A

Androgens

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106
Q

What do accessory sex glands make?

A

Semen

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107
Q

What accessory sex gland produces 60% of the semen?

A

Seminal vesicles

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108
Q

What accessory sex gland makes the other 40% of semen?

A

Prostate gland

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109
Q

What accessory sex gland produces a lubricating fluid to protect and support sperm?

A

Bulbourethral gland

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110
Q

What is semen made out of?

A

Fructose, bicarb ions, enzymes

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111
Q

What % of total ejaculate is actually sperm cells (as opposed to semen)?

A

2-5%

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112
Q

What hormone causes the release of gonadotropins from the anterior pituitary gland?

A

Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)

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113
Q

What are examples of gonadotropins that are released from the anterior pituitary?

A

FSH and LH

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114
Q

What does the LH do in males?

A

Causes Leydig cells to make testosterone

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115
Q

What does FSH do in males?

A

Up-regulates testosterone receptors (make the sperm sensitive to testosterone)

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116
Q

Which hormone stimulates spermatogenesis?

A

FSH

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117
Q

What hormone triggers spermatogenesis directly?

A

Testosterone

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118
Q

What is another term for sex drive?

A

Libido

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119
Q

What is the single erectile structure surrounding the urethra?

A

Corpus spongiosum

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120
Q

What are the two structures of erectile tissue?

A

Corpus cavernosum (singular: corpora cavernosa)

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121
Q

What drains the erectile tissues?

A

Dorsal vein of the penis

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122
Q

What is the head of the penis?

A

Glans

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123
Q

What is the foreskin called?

A

Prepuce

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124
Q

Once spermatozoa are released from seminiferous tubules, where are they stored?

A

The epididymis

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125
Q

When does sperm become mobile?

A

In the epididymis

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126
Q

What transports sperm to the prostatic urethra?

A

Vas deferens/ductus deferens

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127
Q

What is the swollen portion of the vas deferens just prior to the prostatic urethra?

A

Ampulla

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128
Q

What is the “heat exchanger” that allows cooler venous blood from the scrotum cool hot arterial blood prior to entering the testes?

A

Pampiniform plexus

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129
Q

How much cooler does sperm need to be than body temperature?

A

4 degrees cooler

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130
Q

What muscle is in the spermatic cord allowing testes to drop/rise to regulate temperature?

A

Cremaster

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131
Q

What muscle in the walls of the scrotum contract when cold to hold heat and relax when hot to release heat?

A

Dartos muscle

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132
Q

What allows the testes to remain cooler than the body temperature?

A

Scrotum

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133
Q

What happens to sperm at body temperature?

A

They are unable to mature

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134
Q

What gene do females NOT have, thanks to XX (missing the Y)?

A

SRY gene

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135
Q

What hormone is NOT present in females, thus allowing the Mullerian ducts to develop?

A

Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH)

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136
Q

What structures do the paramesonephric/mullerian ducts form?

A

Fallopian tubes, uterus, upper 1/3 of vagina

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137
Q

What is the shell that surrounds the oocyte?

A

Zona pellucida

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138
Q

What does the ovarian follicle contain?

A

The oocyte

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139
Q

What is the fluid-filled space in the follicle called?

A

Antrum

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140
Q

What cells are the inner wall of ovarian follicles made of?

A

Granluosa cells

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141
Q

What do granulosa cells contain?

A

The enzyme aromatase

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142
Q

What does aromatase do?

A

Convert testosterone into estrogen

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143
Q

What in females makes testosterone?

A

Thecal cells

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144
Q

What cells are the outer wall of the ovarian follicle made of?

A

Thecal cells

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145
Q

What is the degeneration of oocyte called?

A

Atresia

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146
Q

When does atresia happen?

A

Throughout reproductive life

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147
Q

How many oocytes are there at:
20 weeks of fetal development

A

6-7 million

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148
Q

How many oocytes are there at:
Birth

A

1.5 million

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149
Q

How many oocytes are there at:
Puberty

A

400,000

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150
Q

How many oocytes are there at:
After menopause

A

0

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151
Q

What cells are gone after menopause?

A

Granluolsa cells

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152
Q

What is the serous layer of the uterus?

A

Perimetrium

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153
Q

What layer of the uterus has interlacing smooth muscle?

A

Myometrium

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154
Q

What is the mucosal lining of the uterus?

A

Endometrium

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155
Q

Which layer of the endometrium is lost during menses?

A

Functional layer

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156
Q

Which layer of the endometrium remains during menses?

A

Basal layer

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157
Q

Which is deeper, functional or basal layer?

A

Basal

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158
Q

What tissue are the functional layer of the endometrium made of?

A

Simple columnar epi

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159
Q

What follicles develop in the fetus?

A

Premordial

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160
Q

What follicle is an oocyte surrounded by a single layer of simple squamous epi?

A

Premordial follicle

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161
Q

What follicles begin development at puberty in small numbers?

A

Primary follicles

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162
Q

What follicles are surrounded by a single layer of cuboidal cells?

A

Primary follicles

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163
Q

What follicles have multiple layers of cuboidal cells and the beginning formation of spaces?

A

Secondary follicles

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164
Q

What follicles have a fully formed antrum?

A

Tertiary/mature/Graafian follicles

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165
Q

What is the release of the oocyte from the tertiary follicles called?

A

Ovulation

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166
Q

Which follicle does ovulation occur from?

A

Tertiary follicle

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167
Q

What is it called when the antrum is filled with blood (just after ovulation)?

A

Corpus hemorrhagicum

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168
Q

What is it called when progesterone is produced to maintain the uterus for pregnancy?

A

Corpus luteum

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169
Q

If fertilized, how long will the corpus luteum last producing hormones?

A

8 weeks

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170
Q

What takes over after 8 weeks producing hormones to maintain the uterus for pregnancy?

A

The placenta

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171
Q

What is the scar tissue made from the corpus luteum called?

A

Corpus albicans

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172
Q

After puberty, how many oocytes will resume meiosis each month?

A

5-9

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173
Q

How many oocytes will survive to be ovulated?

A

Usually only 1

174
Q

At metaphase II and the second meiotic arrest…What happens if there’s no fertilization?

A

The oocyte will enter the uterus and be lost during menses

175
Q

At metaphase II and the second meiotic arrest…What happens if there IS fertilization?

A

Meiosis will resume

176
Q

Where does fertilization occur?

A

In the swollen upper 1/3 of the fallopian tubes (ampulla)

177
Q

How many days does it take the embryo to reach the uterus?

A

3 days

178
Q

At what phase, in females, is there a brief period with 69 chromosomes (before the second polar body is dumped)?

A

Anaphase II

179
Q

Once telophase II and cytokinesis II occur, what will the division switch to?

A

Mitosis

180
Q

Is the normal relationship between steroids and gonadotropins (for most of the cycle) positive or negative feedback?

A

Negative feedback

181
Q

When is the relationship between steroids and gonadotropins positive feedback?

A

After 30-50 hours of elevated estrogen during the follicular phase

182
Q

What does the positive feedback in the follicular phase cause?

A

LH surge causing ovulation

183
Q

What hormone causes ovulation on day 14?

A

LH

184
Q

What causes the LH (or gonadotropin) surge?

A

The elevated estrogen levels

185
Q

How many hours/month is the oocyte able to be fertilized?

A

~15 hours/month

186
Q

If fertilized, what does the corpus luteum become?

A

Pregnancy

187
Q

If not fertilized, what does the corpus luteum become?

A

Corpus albicans

188
Q

What produces Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) for the first 8 weeks?

A

Trophoblasts

189
Q

What does HCG do for the ovary in the first 8 weeks of pregnancy?

A

Keeps it producing estrogen and progesterone (via corpus luteum)

190
Q

What does the morning after pill (emergency contraceptive) contain?

A

High levels of progesterone or estrogen

191
Q

How does high levels of progesterone prevent pregnancy?

A

Prevents sperm from reaching the egg and keeps the embryo from implanting

192
Q

How does high levels of estrogen prevent pregnancy?

A

Prevents ovulation

193
Q

What is the “abortion pill” called?

A

RU486

194
Q

What does RU486 do?

A

Inhibits progesterone by blocking its receptors, thus causing menses

195
Q

What hormone causes granulosa cells to use aromatase to convert T to E?

A

FSH

196
Q

What’s another name for estrogen?

A

Estradiol

197
Q

What up-regulates progesterone receptors in the uterus, making it more sensitive?

A

Estrogen

198
Q

What does a drop in progesterone cause in the uterine arteries?

A

Vasoconstriction, and menses

199
Q

What does progesterone down-regulate?

A

Oxytocin receptors and gap junctions, making the uterus less sensitive to oxy

200
Q

What does down-regulating oxytocin mean for the uterus?

A

Less risk of pre-term contractions

201
Q

What days are the follicular phase in the ovary?

A

Day 0-13

202
Q

What days are the luteal phase in the ovary?

A

Day 15-28

203
Q

What days are menses in the uterus?

A

Day 0-5

204
Q

What days are the proliferative phase in the uterus?

A

Day 6-14

205
Q

What days are the secretory phase in the uterus?

A

Days 15-28

206
Q

What phase does LH cause thecal cells produce T, FSH causes resumption of meiosis in the ovary?

A

Follicular phase

207
Q

What phase does the corpus hemorrhagicum become the corpus luteum and then albicans in the ovary?

A

Luteal phase

208
Q

In what phase does the functional endometrium get lost in the uterus?

A

Menses

209
Q

In what phase is there an increase of progesterone receptors and a thinning of the uterine mucus in the uterus?

A

Proliferative phase

210
Q

In what phase is there an increase of endometrium glucose, making uterine milk in the uterus?

A

Secretory phase

211
Q

What is glucose made from in uterine milk?

A

Glycogen

212
Q

What phases are before ovulation in the ovary and uterus?

A

Follicular
Menses, Proliferative

213
Q

What phases are after ovulation in the ovary and uterus?

A

Luteal
Secretory

214
Q

What is the body temperature maintained at during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and during pregnancy?

A

0.5 degrees F hotter

215
Q

What term means tending to produce heat?

A

Thermogenic

216
Q

What makes the body hotter during the luteal phase and pregnancy?

A

Progesterone

217
Q

When does the placenta produce HCG from?

A

Week 8 to the 4th month

218
Q

When does the placenta produce estrogen and progesterone?

A

From 4 months on

219
Q

What is the development of the placenta called?

A

Placentation

220
Q

What is the fetal contribution to the placenta?

A

Chorion

221
Q

What is the maternal contribution to the placenta called?

A

Decidua

222
Q

What guides fetal vessels into the uterus?

A

Chorionic villi

223
Q

What part of the placenta participates in nutrient/waste exchange?

A

Decidua

224
Q

What part of the placenta protects the fetus from maternal immune attack?

A

Decidua

225
Q

What is the failure of testes to descend called?

A

Cryptorchidism

226
Q

What causes cryptorchidism?

A

Failure of the testes to mature

227
Q

Does cryptorchidism cause infertility and reduced sexual maturity?

A

Yes

228
Q

What % of term babies have cryptorchidism?

A

3%

229
Q

What % of premature babies have cryptorchidism?

A

20%

230
Q

Is testicular cancer treatment successful?

A

Relatively successful, if diagnosed early enough

231
Q

What plasma protein when elevated indicates prostate cancer?

A

Prostate specific antigen (PSA)

232
Q

What is prostate enlargement called?

A

Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)

233
Q

What are symptoms of BPH?

A

Increased urgency, frequency, and delay
Decreased force and urinary retention

234
Q

What are treatments for BPH?

A

Surgery, indwelling catheter, alpha-adrenergic blockers, hormones

235
Q

What % of cancer deaths does prostatic cancer cause?

A

13%

236
Q

What % of cancers in men is prostatic cancer?

A

28%

237
Q

What is the only cancer that causes more deaths than prostate (according to him)?

A

Lung

238
Q

What is persistent, painful erection without sexual stimulation?

A

Priapism

239
Q

What causes priaprism?

A

Neurological factors
Spinal or pelvic trauma
Reduced venous outflow
Sickle cell anemia
Tumors

240
Q

What is an absence of menstruation called?

A

Amenorrhea

241
Q

What causes amenorrhea?

A

Hormones, genetics, excessive exercise, weight loss, malnutrition, diseases

242
Q

What is painful menstruation with successful ovulation?

A

Dysmenorrhea

243
Q

What % of women between 15-25 experience some form of dysmenorrhea?

A

50%

244
Q

What causes dysmenhorrhea?

A

Prostaglandins

245
Q

What do prostaglandins cause?

A

Uterine contractions and meningeal vasodilation (headaches)

246
Q

What is excessive amounts of androgens with conversion to estradiol called?

A

Polycystic ovarian syndrome (POS)

247
Q

In what phase does premenstrual syndrome (PMS) occur?

A

Luteal

248
Q

What % of women have severe PMS symptoms?

A

5-10%

249
Q

What % of women have moderately distressing symptoms of PMS?

A

50%

250
Q

What is a severe and disabling form of PMS?

A

Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)

251
Q

What % of women suffer from PMDD?

A

3-8%

252
Q

What are symptoms of PMDD?

A

Severe depression, anxiety, fatigue, edema

253
Q

What exacerbates PMDD symptoms?

A

Alcohol, thyroid disorders, familial history, overweight, lack of exercise

254
Q

What is acute inflammation of upper genital tract?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease

255
Q

What causes pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia, infertility, ectopic pregnancy, chronic pelvic pain, pelvic adhesions, abcesses

256
Q

What can pelvic inflammatory disease cause?

A

Septic shock

257
Q

What can uterine prolapse be treated with?

A

Pessary, or surgery

258
Q

What’s another name for fibroids?

A

Leiomyomas

259
Q

What are the most common benign tumors of the uterus’s smooth muscle?

A

Leiomyomas

260
Q

What does fibroids cause?

A

Abnormal bleeding due to increase of uterine cavity surface area

261
Q

What % of women over 50 get fibroids?

A

70-80%

262
Q

What is it called when there is a functioning endometrium outside of the uterus?

A

Endometriosis

263
Q

Where do the living endometrial cells regurgitate through in endometriosis?

A

The fallopian tube back into the abdominopelvic cavity

264
Q

What happens during menses to the endometrial cells in the abdomen due endometriosis?

A

They are shed, but remain in the cavity and cause acute inflammation

265
Q

What are symptoms of endometriosis?

A

Pelvic pain, infertility, pelvic masses, pain with intercourse and defecation

266
Q

What % of women with pelvic pain, infertility, and masses have endometriosis?

A

50%

267
Q

What % of women have infertility with endometriosis?

A

40%

268
Q

What is treatment for endometriosis?

A

Hormonal suppression of ovulation, surgical removal, presacral neurectomy

269
Q

What is presacral neurectomy?

A

Permanent removal of certain nerves

270
Q

What is the 3rd most common cancer in women?

A

Cervical carcinoma

271
Q

What % of female cancers is cervical carcinoma?

A

20%

272
Q

What percent of cervical carcinoma is caused by HPV, thus causing it to be considered an STD?

A

99%

273
Q

What is the “precancer” stage of cervical carcinoma?

A

Dysplasia

274
Q

What cells are in cervical dysplasia?

A

Replacement of some epithelial cells with atypical neoplastic cells

275
Q

What chance of malignancy is dysplasia?

A

Mild, 15%

276
Q

Dysplasia treatment?

A

Cyrosurgery, laser, conization

277
Q

What is the cure rate for dysplasia?

A

100%

278
Q

What is it called when all/most of the cervical epithelium has features of cervical carcinoma?

A

Cervical carcinoma in situ

279
Q

Are the underlying tissues affected in cervical carcinoma in situ?

A

NO

280
Q

Where is cervical carcinoma in situ especially at?

A

The squamo-columnar junction (transformation zone)

281
Q

What stage of cervical carcinoma has columnar epithelium constantly replaced by stratified squamous epithelium?

A

Metaplasia

282
Q

What phase of cervical carcinoma has invasion of adjacent tissues (metastasis)?

A

Invasive carcinoma

283
Q

What are symptoms of invasive carcinoma?

A

Vaginal bleeding and discharge

284
Q

What is the prognosis for invasive carcinoma with early detection vs regular detection?

A

Early: 88+% 5 year survival rate
Regular: 66% 5 year survival rate

285
Q

What % of female neoplasms is ovarian cancer?

A

3%

286
Q

What cancer has the most deaths of females?

A

Ovarian cancer

287
Q

What reduces the risk of ovarian cancer?

A

Oral contraceptives

288
Q

What breast disease is benign, but has pain or tenderness (especially near menses)?

A

Fibrocystic breast disease

289
Q

What is the treatment for fibrocystic breast disease?

A

Cyst drainage, reduce caffeine, fats, and carbs

290
Q

What is the most common cancer in women?

A

Breast cancer

291
Q

What is the most common cancer for all sexes?

A

Lung

292
Q

What proportion of women get breast cancer?

A

1/8

293
Q

What age of having their first baby increases risk of breast cancer?

A

Over the age of 30

294
Q

Who has greater risk of breast cancer?

A

Women with 0 children

295
Q

Does early menarche and early menopause increase or decrease breast cancer risk?

A

Increase

296
Q

What causes syphillis?

A

Treponema pallidum

297
Q

How long has syphilis been an epidemic?

A

Since 1986

298
Q

How far in ancient history does syphilis date back to?

A

10,000 BCE

299
Q

What is the first stage of syphilis?

A

Chancre

300
Q

In what stage of syphilis is there local inflammation that soon disappears? (After 4-6 weeks all external signs are gone)

A

Chancre

301
Q

What phase of syphilis is chronic symptoms over 5 years with pustular skin rashes, painful mucus patches on tongue/cheeks/gums?

A

Secondary stage

302
Q

What stage of syphilis is where symptoms may or may not reappear?

A

Latent stage

303
Q

What stage of syphilis has permanent systemic damage to heart, kidneys, brain (dementia)?

A

Tertiary stage

304
Q

What does syphilis do to the heart?

A

Metastatic calcium deposition on heart valves, and coronary artery damage

305
Q

What % of patients in mental hospitals priors to antibiotics were due to syphilitic dementia?

A

20%

306
Q

What is it called when syphilis crosses the placenta and infects the fetus?

A

Congenital syphilis

307
Q

What does congenital syphilis cause?

A

Damaged teeth and palate (notched incisors)
Saber shins
Saddle-nose with discharge

308
Q

What STD is “flow of seed”, or pus resembling semen discovered in 130 AD Greece?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

309
Q

How long can you be a carrier for Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

Up to 15 years

310
Q

How long can Neisseria gonorrhoeae be viable on fomites (laundry, surfaces)?

A

Several hours

311
Q

How long can Neisseria gonorrhoeae be viable in dried pus?

A

Several weeks

312
Q

What is the only natural host for Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

Humans

313
Q

What type of STD is a corneal infection?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis (trachoma)

314
Q

How many cases of Chlamydia trachomatis are there yearly?

A

3-5 million

315
Q

What % of Chlamydia trachomatis cases are from pregnant women?

A

11%

316
Q

What % of Chlamydia trachomatis cases are from pediatric pneumonia?

A

30%

317
Q

What % male and what % female have asymptomatic Chlamydia trachomatis?

A

10% male
80% female

318
Q

What 2 widespread STDs can be a primary cause of infertility in women?

A

Gonorrhea and chlamydia

319
Q

What is human papilloma virus (HPV) also called?

A

Condylomata Acuminata

320
Q

What does HPV cause?

A

Venereal warts

321
Q

What does HPV cause in males vs females?

A

Males: bump on penis skin
Females: cervical carcinoma

322
Q

What STD is caused by a flagellated protozoan that causes acute vaginitis?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

323
Q

What STD may cause liver failure or cancer?

A

Hepatitis B

324
Q

What STD is known as a yeast infection?

A

Candida albicans

325
Q

What is Candida albicans called if oral?

A

Thrush

326
Q

What is the developing embryo or fetus called?

A

Conceptus

327
Q

What is the time of development within the uterus called?

A

Gestation

328
Q

What is the pre-human called from day 1 to week 8?

A

Embryo

329
Q

What is the pre-human called from the 8th week till birth (40 weeks)?

A

Fetus

330
Q

What is a fertilized oocyte?

A

Zygote

331
Q

When does a two-celled embryo exist?

A

30 hours after fertilization

332
Q

What is each cell in the embryo called?When does a two-celled embryo exist?

A

Blastomere

333
Q

When does a four-celled embryo exist?

A

48 hours gestation

334
Q

When does an eight-celled embryo exist?

A

60 hours

335
Q

When does a morula (solid ball of cells) exist?

A

Day 3

336
Q

What are blastomeres called, meaning they have the potential to develop into a complete individual (twins, or clones)?

A

Totipotent

337
Q

In what meiosis phase does fertilization occur?

A

In metaphase II

338
Q

What is a hollow ball of cells called?

A

Blastula/blastocyst

339
Q

When does a blastula exist?

A

Day 4

340
Q

In what early developmental form does the uterus reach the uterus as?

A

Blastula

341
Q

What must the embryo “hatch” out of in order to nidate?

A

Zona pellucida

342
Q

What is the zona pellucida made of?

A

Glycoprotein shell

343
Q

What does nidation mean?

A

Implant

344
Q

What will the inner cell mass become?

A

Embryo proper

345
Q

What cells are on the outer wall of the embryo and will contribute to the placenta?

A

Trophoblasts

346
Q

What do trophoblasts produce to make the uterus ready for pregnancy (and is used to detect pregnancy)?

A

HCG

347
Q

What is a fluid filled space called?

A

Blastocoel

348
Q

When does nidation occur?

A

Day 6-9 after fertilization as a blastula

349
Q

What do trophoblasts give rise to?

A

Cytotrphoblasts

350
Q

What do cytotrophoblasts give rise to?

A

Syncytiotrophoblasts

351
Q

What do syncytiotrophoblasts give rise to?

A

The chorion portion of the placenta

352
Q

At what day does the blastula become bilaminar?

A

Day 7

353
Q

Does the epiblast give rise to the embryo proper or the extraembryonic endoderm?

A

Embryo proper

354
Q

Does the hypoblast give rise to the embryo proper or the extraembryonic endoderm?

A

Extraembryonic endoderm

355
Q

What does the embryo proper consist of?

A

3 primary/primordial germ layers (endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm) or trilaminar embryo

356
Q

What does do the extraembryonic structures consist of?

A

Yolk sac

357
Q

What does the extraembryonic endoderm make?

A

Extraembryonic structures

358
Q

What does “syncytio” mean?

A

Multinucleated

359
Q

What cells are aggressively invasive and digest into the uterus?

A

Syncytiotrophoblasts

360
Q

What are spaces that form within the syncytiotrophoblasts and are eventually filled with maternal blood that bathes the chorionic villi?

A

Lacunae

361
Q

What surrounds the embryo/fetus to protect it?

A

Amnion

362
Q

What surrounds the amnion?

A

Chorion

363
Q

How much amniotic fluid fills the amnion and is replaced daily?

A

1000 ml

364
Q

What does the chorion line?

A

The inside surface of cytotrophoblasts

365
Q

By what day does the lacunae fuse and maternal blood seeps in?

A

Day 12

366
Q

What fills the lacunae in addition to maternal blood?

A

Embryonic blood vessels (within the chorionic villi)

367
Q

What arteries does the embryonic blood vessels receive nutrients from?

A

Spiral arteries

368
Q

What are CO2 and other wastes picked up by in the uterus?

A

Uterine veins

369
Q

Where does the secondary yolk sac push down from?

A

The hypoblast

370
Q

What does the connecting stalk become?

A

The umbilical cord

371
Q

What is the appearance of the 3 primordial germ layers called?

A

Gastrulation

372
Q

What becomes the cephalic (head) region of the embryo?

A

Prochordal plate

373
Q

What is the trilaminar embryonic disc or trilaminar embryo referred to in “lower animals”?

A

Gastrula

374
Q

What is the development of the embryo from zygote to trilaminar embryo called?

A

Embryogenesis

375
Q

What primary germ layer gives rise to the nervous system, epidermis, pituitary gland, and adrenal medulla?

A

Ectoderm

376
Q

What primary germ layer gives rise to connective tissue and mesenchyme?

A

Mesoderm

377
Q

What is mesenchyme?

A

Embryonic form of connective tissue

378
Q

What primary germ layer gives rise to the viscera?

A

Endoderm

379
Q

At how many weeks does the heart begin to pump blood?

A

4 weeks

380
Q

What is the development of organs and their systems called?

A

Organogenesis

381
Q

At 28 days, how big is the pre-human?

A

5 mm long

382
Q

What are mesodermal masses that lie on either side of the notocord, giving the embryo a “segmented” appearance?

A

Somites

383
Q

What can somites be used for?

A

Dating the embryo’s progress

384
Q

What do somites develop into?

A

Parts of the skeleton, skin, muscles

385
Q

What is the median cylindrical structure eventually replaced by the vertebral column

A

Notochord

386
Q

How many pairs of somites?

A

40

387
Q

How many functional parts do somites have?

A

3

388
Q

What cells in somites produce the vertebra and rib at each level?

A

Sclerotome

389
Q

What cells in somites form the dermis of the skin on the dorsal part of the body?

A

Dermatome

390
Q

What cells in somites produce skeletal muscles of the neck, trunk, and limbs?

A

Myotome

391
Q

What do myotome cells form muscles with?

A

Limb buds

392
Q

What gives rise to auditory ossicles, parts of the mandible, nerves, hyoid bone, thymus, and other neck structures?

A

Pharyngeal arches

393
Q

When does the chorion start to thin?

A

28 days

394
Q

What originates in the yolk sac and then moves to the embryo proper to form the gonads?

A

Primordial germ cells

395
Q

What role does the placenta have in immunity?

A

It allows passage of the maternal IgG’s to the fetus

396
Q

As the fetus is a combination of maternal and paternal genes, it is similar to what?

A

An allograft

397
Q

What keeps the corpus luteum functioning so it can continue to release progesterone?

A

HCG

398
Q

What is the embryonic process where rudiments of the future CNS and skeleton are established?

A

Neurulation

399
Q

What is it called when a flat sheet of cells is turned into a hollow, tube-like structure?

A

Embryonic folding

400
Q

What is sampling the amniotic fluid to examine fetal chromosomes found in sloughed skin cells for genetic disease?

A

Amniocentesis

401
Q

When is amniocentesis usually done?

A

10-12 weeks

402
Q

What is biopsy of villus cells to examine fetal chromosomes for potential diseases?

A

Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

403
Q

When is CVS usually done?

A

15-18 weeks old

404
Q

What structure will become part of the umbilical cord and urinary bladder, important for development of extraembryonic membranes?

A

Allantois

405
Q

What will the allantois become?

A

Urachis

406
Q

When does the neural groove form in the dorsum of the embryo?

A

Day 18

407
Q

When does the anterior portion of the neural tube close?

A

Day 25

408
Q

When does the posterior portion of the neural tube close?

A

Day 27

409
Q

What does the anterior portion of the neural tube become?

A

Forebrain or cerebral cortex

410
Q

What does the posterior portion of the neural tube become?

A

Spinal cord

411
Q

What deficiency is seen with neural tube defects (NTD)?

A

Folic acid

412
Q

Is anencephaly anterior or posterior NTD?

A

Anterior

413
Q

Is Spina Bifida anterior or posterior NTD?

A

Posterior

414
Q

What are NTD indicated by?

A

Increased alpha fetal protein

415
Q

What is the process of birth called?

A

Partuition

416
Q

The fetus releases what in response to stress?

A

Cortisol

417
Q

What does the fetal release of cortisol cause the mother to release?

A

Oxytocin

418
Q

Where is oxytocin released from the mother?

A

Posterior pituitary gland

419
Q

What does oxytocin cause?

A

Uterine contractions, pushing the fetus, stretching the cervix, thus signaling for more oxytocin release

420
Q

Is the oxytocin feedback positive or negative?

A

Positive

421
Q

Where is oxytocin MADE?

A

Hypothalamus

422
Q

What is the first stage of labor?

A

Dilation

423
Q

What will the cervix dilate to?

A

10 cm

424
Q

What is it called when the fetal head pushes down into the cervix, and the cervix thins and softens?

A

Effacement

425
Q

What is the middle stage of labor from dilation to delivery?

A

Expulsion stage

426
Q

What is it called when the fetal head begins to push through the vaginal orifice?

A

Crowning

427
Q

What is the stage of delivery where the placenta separates from the uterine wall and is delivered with the fetal membranes?

A

Placental stage

428
Q

When does the placental stage happen?

A

Usually within 30 minutes of delivery

429
Q

What does the ductus venosus bypass?

A

Liver

430
Q

What is the opening in the interatrial septum where the ductus arteriosus is?

A

Foramen ovale

431
Q

What does the ductus arteriosus bypass?

A

Pulmonary circulation

BIO 142 (16 decks)

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