Exam 3: G.I. and Metabolism Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the G.I. System from mouth to anus?

A

Alimentary canal

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2
Q

What are the functions of the G.I. system?

A

Food ingestion, propulsion, digestion, absorption, and defecation

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3
Q

What is the elimination of wastes called?

A

Defecation

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4
Q

What lines the lumen from mouth to anus and is the deepest layer?

A

Mucosa

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5
Q

What does mucosa secrete?

A

Mucus, enzymes, hormones

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6
Q

What does the mucosa do?

A

Secretes substances, absorbs nutrients, protects from pathogens

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7
Q

What tissues line the stomach to rectum?

A

Simple columnar epithelium

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8
Q

What tissues line the oral cavity and esophagus?

A

Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

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9
Q

What type of tissue lines the lamina propria?

A

Areolar connective tissue

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10
Q

What is the smooth muscle that helps increase surface area and causes minute movement for intestinal functions?

A

Muscularis mucosa

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11
Q

What is the submucosa made of?

A

Areolar connective tissue with vessels and nerves

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12
Q

What is the muscularis externa comprised of?

A

2 layers of smooth muscles (circular and longitudinal)

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13
Q

What does the muscularis externa do?

A

Push food along the tract

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14
Q

What is the outermost/most superficial layer of the G.I?

A

Serosa

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15
Q

What type of tissue is the serosa made of?

A

Simple squamous epithelium

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16
Q

What type of membrane is the serosa?

A

Mesothelium

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17
Q

What is the particular kind of serosa that lines the viscera called?

A

Visceral peritoneum

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18
Q

What is the mesothelium that lines the abdominal wall called?

A

Parietal peritoneum

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19
Q

What layer of serosa produces fluid?

A

Parietal peritoneum

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20
Q

What stimulates the G.I. tract?

A

Vagus nerve (parasympathetic nervous system)

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21
Q

Does the stomach stretch or contract in the presence of food?

A

Stretch

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22
Q

What is the series of intrinsic neurons located in the G.I tract?

A

Enteric nervous system

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23
Q

What controls glands and the muscularis mucosa?

A

Submucosal nerve plexus

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24
Q

Where is the submucosal nerve plexus?

A

The submucosa

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25
Q

What controls movement of the intestines?

A

Myenteric nerve plexus

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26
Q

Where is the myenteric nerve plexus?

A

Between the circular and longitudinal muscles of the muscularis externa

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27
Q

What are the two components of the enteric nervous system?

A

Submucosal nerve plexus
Myenteric nerve plexus

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28
Q

What is motility?

A

Movement

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29
Q

What is motility of the intestines called?

A

Peristalsis

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30
Q

What is taking food in?

A

Ingestion

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31
Q

What is the process of chewing?

A

Mastication

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32
Q

What muscles are involved in mastication?

A

Temporalis, masseter, pterygoids

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33
Q

Where does digestion begin?

A

The mouth

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34
Q

What in saliva begins digestion?

A

Amylase/ptyalin

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35
Q

What does amylase/ptyalin break down?

A

Starch

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36
Q

What is starch broken down into?

A

Smaller carbohydrates, and eventually, glucose molecules

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37
Q

What is amylose?

A

A plant starch

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38
Q

How many muscles are in the tongue?

A

9

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39
Q

What anchors the tongue to the floor of the mouth (to prevent “swallowing of the tongue” or its posterior movement?

A

Lingual frenulum

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40
Q

What are projections containing most of the taste buds?

A

Papillae

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41
Q

What are the smallest papillae on the dorsum of the tongue to give it friction?

A

Filiform

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42
Q

Which projection on the tongue does not have taste buds?

A

Filiform

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43
Q

What are the larger “mushroom shaped” projections scatted over the dorsal surface of the tonuge?

A

Fungiform

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44
Q

Which are the largest papillae?

A

Circumvallate

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45
Q

How many circumvallate do we have, and where are they?

A

10-12 near the back of the tongue

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46
Q

What projections are along the sides of the tongue?

A

Foliate

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47
Q

Do the tastebuds increase or decrease in function as you age?

A

Decrease

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48
Q

What do lipases do in saliva?

A

Begin digesting various lipids

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49
Q

What does mucus do in saliva?

A

Lubricate food

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50
Q

What does lysozyme do in saliva?

A

Kills microbes

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51
Q

What are the IgA in saliva?

A

Antibodies (that are also found in breast milk)

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52
Q

What is the purpose of defensins in saliva?

A

Antimicrobial

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53
Q

What salivary gland is just in front of the earlobe?

A

Parotid gland

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54
Q

What salivary gland is on the body of the manible?

A

Submandibular gland

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55
Q

What salivary gland is on the floor of the mouth?

A

Sublingual gland

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56
Q

What nervous system stimulates the G.I. system and with what neurostransmitter?

A

Parasympathetic with Acetylcholine

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57
Q

What does atropine do and when would it be used?

A

Inhibits the G.I. system, would be used as a preoperative

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58
Q

What is it called when swallowing is voluntary first, the involuntary takes over?

A

Deglutition

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59
Q

What is it called when waves of smooth muscle contractions propel food along the G.I. tract?

A

Peristalsis

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60
Q

What is it called when you purge toxins like too much ethanol?

A

Vomiting

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61
Q

What region of the stomach is the first part connected to the esophagus?

A

Cardiac

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62
Q

What region of the stomach is on the top, rounded area to the left of the cardia?

A

Fundus

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63
Q

What region of the stomach is the largest and the main part?

A

The body

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64
Q

What part of the stomach connects to the small intestine?

A

Pyloric

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65
Q

What does the stomach activate?

A

Pepsin and lipases

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66
Q

What does the stomach break down?

A

Connective tissue and cellulose

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67
Q

What is cellulose?

A

Plant cell wall, or fiber

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68
Q

What does the stomach convert?

A

Fe+++ into the absorbable form Fe++

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69
Q

What does the stomach do to microbes?

A

It kills some ingested microbes

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70
Q

What are the folds in the stomach to increase surface area?

A

Rugae

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71
Q

What is the contents of the stomach called?

A

Chyme

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72
Q

What is the pH of the stomach? Is it basic or acidic?

A

pH: 2-3
Very acidic

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73
Q

What cells are the mucus cells in the stomach?

A

Goblet

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74
Q

What cells in the stomach produce hydrochloric acid (HCl)?

A

Parietal or oxyntic cells

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75
Q

What is hydrochloric acid (HCl) also known as?

A

Stomach acid

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76
Q

What receptors do histamine bind to in the stomach?

A

Type 2 histamine receptor

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77
Q

What happens when histamine binds to type 2 histamine receptors?

A

Proton pumps move cytoplasm to the cell membrane

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78
Q

What do proton pumps do in the stomach?

A

Actively pump H+ ions into the lumen

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79
Q

What does the proton pump exchange H+ ions for?

A

K+

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80
Q

What type of transport is seen in proton pumps?

A

Counter transport (secondary active)

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81
Q

What does H+ and Cl- make?

A

HCl (stomach acid)

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82
Q

Where is HCl made?

A

In the gastric lumen

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83
Q

What type of transport is the chloride shift?

A

Counter transport (secondary active)

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84
Q

What enzyme is used in the chloride shift?

A

Carbonic anhydrase

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85
Q

In the stomach, what does carbonic anhydrase do in the chloride shift?

A

The reaction produces H+ (instead of removing it)

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86
Q

Where does bicarb go in exchange for the chloride ion in the chloride shift?

A

Bicarb: pumped from the parietal cell to plasma

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87
Q

Where does chloride go in exchange for the bicarb ion in the chloride shift?

A

Chloride: enters the gastric lumen to combine with H+

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88
Q

What is secreted by parietal cells allowing the intestines to absorb vitamin B12?

A

Intrinsic factor

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89
Q

What happens if there’s too much stomach acid?

A

Gastroesophageal reflux (heart burn, etc.)

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90
Q

What heartburn remedy blocks histamine at the H2 receptors of parietal cells?

A

Histamine receptor type 2 (H2) inhibitors

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91
Q

What do Histamine receptor type 2 (H2) inhibitors do?

A

Reduce HCl production

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92
Q

What heartburn remedy blocks the H+ pump?

A

Proton pump inhibitors

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93
Q

What do proton pump inhibitors do?

A

Reduce production of HCl

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94
Q

Which are more effective in treating heartburn: H2 inhibitors or Proton pump inhibitors?

A

Proton pump inhibitors

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95
Q

What cells in the stomach produce pepsinogen?

A

Chief or zymogen cells

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96
Q

What does pepsinogen become in low pH?

A

Pepsin

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97
Q

What does pepsin do?

A

Digests proteins into smaller, yet still NON-absorbable, peptides

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98
Q

What cells in the stomach secrete various hormones to regulate digestion?

A

Enteroendocrine cells

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99
Q

What are the main 3 substances enteroendocrine cells secrete?

A

Gastrin
Histamine
Somatostatin

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100
Q

What is produced by the small intestines and stomach and stimulates the production of HCl?

A

Gastrin

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101
Q

Where in the stomach is gastrin produced?

A

Pyloric glands

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102
Q

What is produced by the stomach to move proton pumps from cytoplasm to the cell membrane where they can go to work?

A

Histamine

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103
Q

What is produced in the stomach to inhibit gastrin release?

A

Somatostatin

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104
Q

What is the first, or proximal, section of the small intestine (attaches to the stomach)?

A

Duodenum

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105
Q

What is the middle section of the small intestine?

A

Jejunum

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106
Q

What is the last, or distal, end of the small intestine that attaches to the colon?

A

Ileum

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107
Q

What does the small intestine do?

A

Absorbs nutrients, secretes fluids

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108
Q

What disease is where your intestines start to release all their fluids?

A

Cholera

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109
Q

What hormone secreted by the small intestine causes the pancreas to release bicarb and protease into the duodenum?

A

Secretin

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110
Q

When is secretin released?

A

In response to low pH entering duodenum

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111
Q

What hormone secreted by the small intestine that causes the stomach to make HCl?

A

Gastrin

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112
Q

When is gastrin released?

A

In response to rising pH in the stomach

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113
Q

If antacids neutralize the stomach, thus raising the pH, what might the stomach do?

A

Make more acid to lower the pH

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114
Q

Why are proton pump inhibitors better?

A

It doesn’t cause a feedback loop where taking antacids encourages the need for more antacids

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115
Q

What hormone secreted by the small intestine causing the gallbladder to release bile into the duuodenum?

A

Cholecystokinin

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116
Q

What is cholecystokinin used for/when?

A

Aiding in lipid digestion when they enter the duodenum

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117
Q

Why are the folds of the intestines important?

A

They increase the surface area for increased absorption of nutrients

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118
Q

What folds in the stomach are visible to the naked eye?

A

Plicae circulares and Villi

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119
Q

How much do plicae circulares increase SA by?

A

3x

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120
Q

How much do villi increase SA by?

A

10x

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121
Q

What folds in the stomach are microscopic?

A

Microvilli

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122
Q

How much do microvilli increase SA by?

A

20x

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123
Q

What is the total increase in SA thanks to the 3 types of folds?

A

3 x 10 x 20 = 600x

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124
Q

What do carbohydrates break down into?

A

Monosaccharides

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125
Q

How fast are carbs broken into monosaccharides?

A

10-20 minutes

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126
Q

What are triglycerides broken down into?

A

2 fatty acids & 1 monoglyceride

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127
Q

What are proteins broken down into?

A

Monopeptides (single amino acids)

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128
Q

What are monoglycerides made of?

A

Glycerol + 1 fatty acid

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129
Q

What is the body’s major detox center?

A

Liver

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130
Q

What is extramedullary hemopoiesis?

A

Making blood cells outside of the bone marrow

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131
Q

When does extramedullary hemopoiesis happen?

A

In cases of bone marrow suppression/disease

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132
Q

Can the liver make blood cells?

A

Yes

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133
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

Making glucose from non-carbs, such as proteins

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134
Q

What is glycogenesis?

A

Combining glucose to make glycogen

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135
Q

Where does gluconeogenesis occur?

A

Liver

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136
Q

Where does glycogenesis occur?

A

Liver

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137
Q

What is glycogen?

A

Animal starch polymer made of glucose molecules

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138
Q

How is glycogen different than amylose?

A

Glycogen is branched

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139
Q

How does the liver regulate blood glucose?

A

The liver can release glucose from glycogen under the influence of a hormone

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140
Q

What hormone stimulates the liver to release glucose from glycogen?

A

Glucagon

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141
Q

Where does glucagon come from in the body? (what cells, and where are they)

A

Alpha cells of pancreatic islets

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142
Q

Where is glycogen stored?

A

Liver and muscle

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143
Q

Does the liver increase or decrease plasma glucose levels?

A

Increase, but releasing glucose from glycogen

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144
Q

What is glycogenolysis?

A

Breaking down glycogen into glucose, thus releasing glucose to the blood and increasing plasma glucose levels

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145
Q

What is it called when the liver breaks fatty acids into acetyl groups that can be used for metabolism?

A

Beta oxidation

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146
Q

What is the Cori cycle?

A

Lactic acid generated in muscles is converted into usable pyruvic acid

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147
Q

Where is HDL and LDL cholesterol produced?

A

The liver

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148
Q

What % cholesterol is dietary vs hereditary?

A

15% diet
85% genetics

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149
Q

Where are phospholipids made?

A

Liver

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150
Q

What is mechanical digestion?

A

Chewing

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151
Q

What is chemical digestion?

A

Enzymatic

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152
Q

What layer actually propels the food down the digestive tract?

A

Muscularis externa

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153
Q

What are the major acid producing cells?

A

Parietal or oxyntic cells

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154
Q

How many plasma proteins does the liver make?

A

Over 2000 (pretty much all of them except for antibodies)

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155
Q

What must the liver remove from amino acids before they are broken down further?

A

Amino group (NH2)

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156
Q

What is the process of removing the amino group called?

A

Deamination

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157
Q

What is the amino group (NH2) converted to by the liver?

A

Urea

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158
Q

Where is urea eliminated?

A

The kidneys

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159
Q

Where is iron stored to be used?

A

The liver

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160
Q

How does the liver destroy toxins?

A

By using enzymes

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161
Q

Will repeated exposure to toxins reduce the liver’s functioning?

A

Yes

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162
Q

What are detoxified by the liver on the “first pass”?

A

Water soluble compounds taken per os (by mouth)

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163
Q

What is bile made from?

A

Cholesterol

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164
Q

What does bile do?

A

Allows for digestion of fats by emulsifying (breaking them down) into tiny droplets

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165
Q

What are the tiny broken down bits of fats called?

A

Micelles

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166
Q

Where is bile made? Where is it stored?

A

Made: liver
Stored: gallbladder

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167
Q

What does bile contain from hemoglobin breakdown?

A

Bilirubin

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168
Q

What is produced by the small intestines due to the presence of fat, and causes the gallbladder to contract forcing bile into the duodenum?

A

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

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169
Q

What two systems does the pancreas participate in?

A

Exocrine and endocrine

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170
Q

What does the pancreas do in the exocrine system?

A

Produces digestive enzymes and bicarbonate ions

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171
Q

What does the pancreas do in the endocrine system?

A

Produces hormones

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172
Q

Where do the enzymes and ions that the pancreas makes get secreted?

A

Into the duodenum

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173
Q

What are the cells that make the enzymes and bicarbonate ions in the pancreas?

A

Acinar cells (acini or acinus)

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174
Q

Where are acinar cells located?

A

Outside the islets of Langerhans

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175
Q

What pancreatic enzyme digests starch?

A

Amylase

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176
Q

What 2 pancreatic enzymes digests oligosaccharides into individual glucose molecules?

A

Dextrinase
Glucoamylase

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177
Q

How many monosaccharides is an oligosaccharide?

A

3-8 monosaccharides long

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178
Q

What pancreatic enzymes digest maltose, sucrose, and lactose?

A

Maltase, sucrase, lactase

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179
Q

What do alpha cells in the pancreas produce?

A

Glucagon

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180
Q

What do beta cells in the pancreas produce?

A

Insulin

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181
Q

What do delta cells in the pancreas produce?

A

Somatostatin

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182
Q

What does trypsinogen become?

A

Trypsin

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183
Q

What does trypsin (made in the pancreas) do?

A

Digests proteins into smaller, yet still NON-absorbable peptides

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184
Q

What does chymotrypsin (made in the pancreas) do?

A

Digests proteins into smaller, yet still NON-absorbable peptides

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185
Q

What do peptidases (made in the pancreas) do?

A

Digests smaller peptides into ABSORBABLE molecules

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186
Q

What are examples of molecules small enough to be absorbed?

A

Single amino acids or monopeptides

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187
Q

What does carboxypeptidase do?

A

Breaks off amino acids from the carboxyl end of a polypeptide

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188
Q

What does aminopeptidase do?

A

Breaks off amino acids from the amino end of a polypeptide

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189
Q

What does dipeptidase do?

A

Breaks dipeptides into their amino acid components

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190
Q

What do lipases do?

A

Break triglycerides into 2 free fatty acids and 1 monoglyceride (glycerol attached to 1 fatty acid)

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191
Q

What does ribonuclease do?

A

Digests RNA

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192
Q

What does deoxyribonuclease do?

A

Digests DNA

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193
Q

What does the bicarbonate ion do?

A

Buffers H+ ions

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194
Q

What hormone released by the small intestines encourages bicarbonate ions to be released from the pancreas?

A

Secretin

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195
Q

Where do the hormones that are released from the pancreas go?

A

Directly into the blood (not using ducts)

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196
Q

Does glucagon production cause the liver to release glucose, if so, where does it go?

A

Releases glucose to increase plasma glucose

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197
Q

Does insulin production increase plasma glucose?

A

NO, it decreases plasma glucose

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198
Q

What does the hormone somatostatin do?

A

Inhibits growth hormones

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199
Q

What does “emulsify” mean?

A

Separates/breaks down

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200
Q

What are examples of micelles?

A

Triglycerides and fat soluble vitamins

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201
Q

What do micelles allow?

A

Lipids to be absorbed by the epithelium of intestines

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202
Q

Where do micelles go?

A

Stay in the intestines and then are excreted with feces

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203
Q

Where are triglycerides reassembled?

A

Smooth ER of the intestinal epithelial cells

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204
Q

Where do compounds go from the smooth ER?

A

Golgi apparatus, where it is surrounded by phospholipids and proteins

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205
Q

What are chylomicrons?

A

Small spheres found around the golgi apparatus that allow lipids to enter the intestinal lacteals

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206
Q

What are lacteals?

A

Tiny lymphatic vessels

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207
Q

What process do lipids use to enter lacteals?

A

Exocytosis

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208
Q

Where do lipids go from the lacteals?

A

The thoracic duct

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209
Q

Where does the thoracic duct dump?

A

Left subclavian vein

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210
Q

Do fats and other lipids pass through the liver for detox before entering the blood?

A

NO! They go straight to the lymphatics then the blood

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211
Q

What happens if a toddler ingests fat soluble toxins?

A

The toxins won’t be detoxed in the liver, and will go straight to vital organs

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212
Q

What % of per os water soluble drugs are destroyed after going through the veins and liver?

A

85-90%

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213
Q

What is the first step of the pathway for per os water soluble compounds?

A

Intestinal veins

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214
Q

Where do compounds go from the intestinal veins?

A

Superior mesenteric vein

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215
Q

Where do compounds go from the superior mesenteric vein

A

Hepatoportal vein

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216
Q

Where do compounds go from the hepatoportal vein?

A

Liver’s lobules

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217
Q

Where do compounds go from the liver’s lobules?

A

Liver’s sinusoids

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218
Q

Where do compounds go from the liver’s sinusoids?

A

Central vein

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219
Q

Where do compounds go from the central vein?

A

Hepatic veins

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220
Q

Where do compounds go from the hepatic veins?

A

Inferior vena cava

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221
Q

Where in the liver are water soluble toxins detoxified?

A

Sinusoids

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222
Q

What is the large intestine called?

A

Colon

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223
Q

What are the main functions of the colon?

A

Absorb water, produce bicarbonate, houses gut bacteria

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224
Q

What can cause bicarb loss resulting in acidosis?

A

Diarrhea

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225
Q

What do gut bacteria help breakdown?

A

Certain fiber components

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226
Q

What vitamins do gut bacteria help synthesize?

A

Vitamins B and K

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227
Q

What does gut bacteria help metabolize?

A

Bile components

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228
Q

What produces flatus or gass?

A

Gut bacteria

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229
Q

What do gut bacteria profoundly influence?

A

Physiology, metabolism, nutrition, immune system

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230
Q

What is dysbiosis?

A

Disruption of gut microbiota

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231
Q

What often causes dysbiosis?

A

Antibiotics

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232
Q

What is dysbiosis often implicated in?

A

Inflammatory diseases (like IBS), infections, obesity, autoimmune diseases, and response to cancer treatment

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233
Q

What % of feces are: dead bacteria

A

30%

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234
Q

What % of feces are: fiber?

A

30%

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235
Q

What % of feces are: fat from digested epithelial cells and dead bacteria?

A

10-20%

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236
Q

What % of feces are: inorganic material?

A

10-20%

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237
Q

What pathology is < appetite?

A

Anorexia

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238
Q

What pathology is binge eating then self-induced vomiting?

A

Bulimia

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239
Q

What NS stimulates vomiting, and with what hormone?

A

Parasympathetic NS, via serotonin

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240
Q

What is projectile vomiting?

A

Vomiting without retching due to CNS stimulation

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241
Q

What pathology is difficult or infrequent defecation?

A

Constipation

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242
Q

What can neurogenic damage to the colon cause?

A

Constipation

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243
Q

Can drugs, such as antidepressants cause constipation?

A

Yes

244
Q

Can a sedentary lifestyle, poor diet, and depression cause constipation?

A

Yes

245
Q

Excess of what minerals can cause constipation?

A

Calcium or iron

246
Q

What pathology is increased frequency and fluid content of feces?

A

Diarrhea

247
Q

What type of diarrhea has: hypertonic intestines as with fleet phospha soda?

A

Osmotic

248
Q

What is the most common cause of osmotic diarrhea?

A

Lactase deficiency (cannot absorb lactose, so the intestines become hypertonic and water follows)

249
Q

What type of diarrhea can be caused by ingestion of non-absorbable synthetic sugars?

A

Osmotic

250
Q

What type of diarrhea has: excessive secretion, often due to bacterial enterotoxins?

A

Secretory

251
Q

What type of bacteria are often seen in secretory diarrhea?

A

E. Coli, Cholera

252
Q

What type of diarrhea has: less time for fluids to be absorbed and loss of neurological motility control, as seen in neuropathy and diabetes?

A

Increased motility

253
Q

What type of diarrhea is seen in IBS and ulcerative Colitis or Crohn’s?

A

Intestinal inflammation

254
Q

What type of diarrhea has: increased secretions and fluid flow around obstruction that may appear as diarrhea?

A

Fecal impaction/severe constipation

255
Q

What is distention?

A

Swelling of any hollow organ (including intestines) that causes intense pain

256
Q

What can cause distention?

A

Gas, inflammatory processes

257
Q

What is hematemesis?

A

Blood in vomit

258
Q

What is hematochezia?

A

Blood presenting from rectum

259
Q

What is dark tarry stool that may indicate hemorrhage higher in alimentary canal?

A

Melena

260
Q

What is small amounts of blood, not visible without stains, that indicate slow hemorrhage?

A

Occult blood

261
Q

What is persistent splashing of gastric contents into the esophagus, where chronic cases can be associated with esophageal cancer?

A

Gastroesophageal reflux

262
Q

What is herniation of the gastric fundus or cardiac zone through the diaphragm into the thorax?

A

Hiatal hernia

263
Q

Are hiatal hernias often symptomatic?

A

No, often asymptomatic

264
Q

What is dysphagia?

A

Difficulty swallowing, increased reflux, epigastric pain

265
Q

What is a symptom of hiatal hernias?

A

Dysphagia

266
Q

What is decreased muscle tone of the lower esophagus allowing for accumulation of food and esophageal distention?

A

Achalasia

267
Q

What is intussuception?

A

Telescoping of one part of the intestine into another, causes strangulation of blood supply

268
Q

What is the twisting of intestines called that can cause strangulation of blood supply?

A

Torsion

269
Q

What is diverticulosis?

A

Inflamed herniations of the colon

270
Q

What group is especially affected by diverticulosis?

A

Obese peoples over the age of 70

271
Q

What is loss of motility, especially due to surgery?

A

Ileus or adynamic

272
Q

Where are peptic ulcers located?

A

Lower esophagus, stomach, and duodenum

273
Q

What habits are peptic ulcers associated with?

A

Smoking, NSAIDS, alcohol

274
Q

What diseases are associated with peptic ulcers?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis, emphysema, cirrhosis of liver

275
Q

Where are most peptic ulcers?

A

Duodenum

276
Q

What causes peptic ulcers?

A

The bacteria helicobacter pylori

277
Q

What symptom is associated with peptic ulcers?

A

Pain 2-3 hours after eating

278
Q

What is the inflammation of the colon?

A

Colitis

279
Q

What is chronic inflammation with ulcerations and scarring of the alimentary canal, especially the ileum?

A

Chron’s disease

280
Q

What is chronic inflammation with ulceration and scarring of the colon and retum?

A

Ulcerative colitis

281
Q

What is inflammation of the vermiform appendix with swelling, pain, and potential gangrene, perforation, and peritonitis?

A

Appendicitis

282
Q

What is accumulation of fluid in peritoneal cavity causing distention as seen in cirrhosis of the liver?

A

Ascites

283
Q

What is accumulation of bilirubin due to the liver’s inability to break it down?

A

Jaundice

284
Q

What disease has fecal-oral transmission from person to person, fever and usually mild disease?

A

Hepatitis A

285
Q

Does hepatitis A usually progress to chronic disease?

A

No

286
Q

How is hepatitis B transmitted?

A

Via body fluids, congenital, and used needles

287
Q

What is the most common hepatitis worldwide?

A

Hep B

288
Q

What can Hepatitis B lead to?

A

Liver cancer

289
Q

Is hep B a severe chronic disease?

A

Yes

290
Q

What is the most common hepatitis in the United States?

A

Hep C

291
Q

What can Hep C lead to?

A

Liver cancer

292
Q

Are Hep A, B, and C all viral?

A

Yes

293
Q

What is the most common liver disorder in developed countries, associated with adipose tissue in liver, inflammation, tissue damage, and scaring?

A

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

294
Q

What is now the number 1 cause for liver transplants?

A

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

295
Q

What is a cluster of symptoms and signs putting patients at high risk of morbidity and mortality (increased stroke, diabetes, cardiovascular disease)?

A

Metabolic syndrome

296
Q

What are signs of metabolic syndrome?

A

Increased bp, plasma sugar, body fat (obesity), plasma cholesterol and triglycerides

297
Q

What % of populations globally are affected by metabolic syndrome?

A

15-40%

298
Q

What is all of the chemical processes of an organism?

A

Metabolism

299
Q

What is combining/building up the simple compounds into complex such as growth, weight gain, etc?

A

Anabolism

300
Q

Does endergonic input energy or output?

A

Input (absorbs energy)

301
Q

Does exergonic input energy or output?

A

Output (gives off energy)

302
Q

What is breaking complex compounds into simpler ones, such as in digestion?

A

Catabolism

303
Q

What is the metabolic norm where an organism is biochemically balanced?

A

Homeostasis

304
Q

What is the disruption of homeostasis?

A

Disease

305
Q

If not too much carbs, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids, all can be…

A

Broken down into 2 carbon molecules called the acetyl group

306
Q

What are acetyl groups used for?

A

To make ATP or be used in anabolic functions

307
Q

If too much carbs, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids, all can be…

A

Converted into triglycerides to increase the amount of adipose tissue (fat)

308
Q

What must proteins be converted to before being used to make ATP?

A

Acetyl groups

309
Q

What is the process of enzymes breaking peptide bonds to separate the amino acids of a polypeptide?

A

Hydrolysis

310
Q

What process is the equivalence of a water molecule to split a bigger molecule up?

A

Hydrolysis

311
Q

What is the removal of the amino (amine) group or NH2?

A

Deamination

312
Q

What is the NH2 from amino acids excreted as?

A

Urea

313
Q

How many kcal in a tablespoon glucose?

A

40 kcl

314
Q

How many minutes exercise is 40 kcl (a tablespoon of glucose)?

A

15 minutes

315
Q

What % of energy in glucose is used for biosynthesis?

A

40%

316
Q

What % of energy in glucose becomes heat?

A

60%

317
Q

What is ATP an acronym for?

A

Adenosine Triphosphate

318
Q

What happens if you enzymatically cut off one of the phosphate groups (Pi) of ATP?

A

You release energy and form ADP

319
Q

What family of enzymes can cut phosphates from ATP or ADP?

A

ATP-ase

320
Q

What is the difference between a monomer and a polymer?

A

Monomer: single molecule
Polymer: long chain of molecules

321
Q

What are isomers?

A

Molecules with the same molecular formula, but different structural formulas

322
Q

What is the element all life on earth is based on?

A

Carbon

323
Q

Why is carbon unique?

A

It can make molecules with long chains bonded together in rings or straight

324
Q

Can carbon bond to other carbons?

A

Yes

325
Q

How many covalent bonds does carbon need?

A

4

326
Q

How many valence electrons does carbon need?

A

8

327
Q

How many single bonds can carbon make?

A

4

328
Q

How many double bonds can carbon make?

A

2

329
Q

Can carbon make 1 double bond and two single bonds?

A

Yes

330
Q

Can carbon make 1 triple bond and 1 single bond?

A

Yes

331
Q

What is the most common source of energy to fuel the body?

A

Carbohydrates

332
Q

What is the most common carb used for energy?

A

Glucose

333
Q

How much kcal/g do carbs provide?

A

4 kcal/g

334
Q

What are examples of complex carbs?

A

Disaccharides and polysaccharides

335
Q

What is an example of a simple carb?

A

Monosaccharides

336
Q

What is the most common lipid used for energy?

A

Triglyycerides

337
Q

How much kcal/g do triglycerides provide?

A

9 kcal/g

338
Q

What atoms do proteins contain?

A

Nitrogen

339
Q

When proteins are broken down, what do they contribute to the production of?

A

Urea

340
Q

What atom do nucleic acids contain?

A

Nitrogen

341
Q

When broken down, what do nucleic acids contribute to the production of?

A

Urea

342
Q

Do all carbs, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids need to be broken down to their simplest monomers to be absorbed by intestines?

A

Yes

343
Q

Can carbs, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids be interconverted?

A

Yes

344
Q

Can carbs, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids be catabolized to make ATP and anabolized to make adipose tissue?

A

Yes

345
Q

What is the chemical formula for glucosedextrose?

A

C6H12O6

346
Q

What is the most common monosaccharide in biological systems, universally used by all organisms to acquire energy?

A

Glucose/dextrose

347
Q

What are normal levels for glucose/dextrose?

A

80-100 mg/dL

348
Q

What is the fruit sugar?

A

Fructose

349
Q

What is the sweetest sugar in nature?

A

Fructose

350
Q

What is another sugar type he mentioned that isn’t glucose/dextrose or fructose?

A

Galactose

351
Q

What are monosaccharides made of 5 carbons?

A

Pentoses

352
Q

Where are pentoses seen?

A

Ribose of RNA and ATP
Deoxyribose of DNA

353
Q

What are monosaccharides made of 6 carbons?

A

Hexoses

354
Q

Where are hexoses seen?

A

Glucose, fructose, galactose

355
Q

What are glucose, fructose, and galactose all?

A

Isomers

356
Q

What sugar is “table sugar”?

A

Sucrose

357
Q

What sugar is “milk sugar”?

A

Lactose

358
Q

What sugar is “malt sugar”?

A

Maltose

359
Q

What sugar is glucose + fructose?

A

Sucrose

360
Q

What sugar is glucose + galactose?

A

Lactose

361
Q

What sugar is glucose + glucose?

A

Maltose

362
Q

Are sucrose, lactose, and maltose mono, di, or polysaccharides?

A

Disaccharides

363
Q

What are the specific plant starches that are digestible?

A

Amylose and amylopectin

364
Q

What bonds do the digestible starches have?

A

Alpha bonds

365
Q

What plant starches are non-digestable?

A

Cellulose

366
Q

What bonds do the non-digestible starches have?

A

Beta bonds

367
Q

What animal starch is digestible?

A

Glycogen

368
Q

What animal starch is non-digestible?

A

Chitin

369
Q

Which have a higher energy yield: lipids or carbs? What are the kcal/g?

A

Lipids (9 kcal/g) have more than carbs (4 kcal/g)

370
Q

Do hydrophobic substances like lipids?

A

Yes, hydrophobic substances are lipophilic

371
Q

Do lipophilic substances cross membranes?

A

Yes

372
Q

Are lipophilic substances fat soluble?

A

Yes

373
Q

Are many non-lipid molecules hydrophilic (or lipophobic)?

A

Yes

374
Q

Are polar compounds, such as carbs and proteins, hydrophilic/lipophobic or hydrophobic/lipophilic?

A

Hydrophilic/lipophobic

375
Q

Are hydrophilic substances water soluable?

A

Yes

376
Q

Do hydrophilic substances cross membranes as easily as hydrophobic?

A

No

377
Q

What is the surgical procedure for removing adipose tissue?

A

Liposuction

378
Q

Are oils liquid or solid at room temperature?

A

Liquid

379
Q

Are waxes liquid or solid at room temperature?

A

Solid

380
Q

What is cerumen?

A

Earwax

381
Q

Are triglycerides fat molecules or fat tissue?

A

Fat molecules. Fat tissue is adipose

382
Q

What is the most common lipid used as energy?

A

Triglycerides

383
Q

Why are triglycerides good energy sources?

A

Thermal insulation, shock absorption

384
Q

What are normal plasma levels of triglyceride?

A

Below 150 mg/dL

385
Q

What are saturated fatty acids saturated with?

A

H+

386
Q

What do saturated fatty acids lack?

A

Carbon double bonds (C=C)

387
Q

Are saturated fatty acids good for you?

A

NO. Associated with atherosclerosis

388
Q

Are saturated fatty acids liquid or solid at room temp?

A

Solid

389
Q

Are polyunsaturated fatty acids good for you?

A

Yes

390
Q

Why do polyunsaturated fatty acids have less H+ than saturated fatty acids?

A

They have several Carbon double bonds (C=C), so less room for H+ to bind

391
Q

Are polyunsaturated fatty acids liquid or solid at room temp?

A

Liquid

392
Q

Which are found in animal fats: saturated or polyunsaturated fatty acids?

A

Saturated (the bad kind)

393
Q

Which are found in plants: Saturated or polyunsaturated fatty acids?

A

Polyunsaturated (good for you)

394
Q

What is beta oxidation?

A

The process where fatty acids are broken down by the liver into acetyl groups (2-carbon units)

395
Q

Why does beta oxidation happen?

A

So ATP can be produced from the broken down fatty acids

396
Q

Where are phospholipids found?

A

In cell and organelle membranes

397
Q

What do phospholipids tend to form?

A

Bilayers

398
Q

What term means having both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties?

A

Amphiphilic or amphipathic

399
Q

Are phospholipids hydrophobic or hydrophilic?

A

Both! They’re amphiphilic/amphipathic

400
Q

What part of a phospholipid is hydrophilic/lipophobic?

A

Glycerol-phosphate head

401
Q

What part of phospholipid is hydrophobic/lipophilic?

A

Fatty acid tails

402
Q

What part of the phospholipid is polar?

A

Glycerol-phosphate head

403
Q

What part of the phospholipid is nonpolar?

A

Fatty acid tail

404
Q

What substance do phospholipids form? (Answer isn’t bilayer)

A

Prostaglandins

405
Q

Describe the shape/structure of steroids

A

Complex ringed or “cyclic” molecules

406
Q

What is the precursor to ALL steroid hormones?

A

Cholesterol

407
Q

Is cholesterol a steroid?

A

Yes

408
Q

What is the precursor to vitamin D3?

A

Cholesterol

409
Q

Where is cholesterol?

A

In the cell membrane

410
Q

What does the liver do to cholesterol?

A

Degrades it to make bile

411
Q

What are anabolic steroids?

A

The male sex steroids

412
Q

What is a normal cholesterol level?

A

<200 mg/dL

413
Q

Where are lipoproteins produced?

A

The liver

414
Q

What do lipoproteins do?

A

Transport lipids (cholesterol and triglyceride) in the blood

415
Q

Are steroids considered lipids?

A

Yes

416
Q

What are physiologically active, ringed fatty acids?

A

Eicosanoids

417
Q

Where do eicosanoids originate from?

A

Fatty acid tails of cell membrane phospholipids

418
Q

What acid do eicosanoids come from?

A

Arachidonic acid

419
Q

What type of eicosanoid acts as a hormone?

A

Prostaglandins

420
Q

What is the enzyme responsible for the production of prostaglandins?

A

Cyclooxygenase

421
Q

What causes inflammation, pain, uterine contractions, and is a step in blood clotting?

A

Prostaglandin

422
Q

What type of eicosanoid regulates leukocyte activity?

A

Leukotrienes

423
Q

What produces leukotrienes?

A

Leukocytes and mast cells

424
Q

What type of eicosanoid is produced by platelets causing them to aggregate, thus initiating the clotting process?

A

Thromboxanes

425
Q

What drug inhibits prostaglandin synthesis by inhibiting cycloloxygenase?

A

NSAIDS

426
Q

Proteins are coded for by at least how many genes?

A

1

427
Q

What is a sequence of DNA bases that carry the code for a polypeptide chain?

A

Genes

428
Q

What makes antibodies or immunoglobulins?

A

Leukocytes

429
Q

The 2,000+ plasma proteins keep the plasma/blood ______ balanced

A

Osmotically

430
Q

If your liver fails, there’s a reduction in plasma proteins. What does this do to blood? (Hyper, hypo, isotonic)

A

Makes the blood hypotonic

431
Q

What condition is associated with liver disease and hypotonicity (swelling)?

A

Ascites

432
Q

What are some of the elements (from the periodic table of elements) proteins contain?

A

C, H, O, N (some S)

433
Q

What are the basic building blocks of polypeptide chains/proteins?

A

Amino acids

434
Q

How many different amino acids are there?

A

20

435
Q

What are the bonds that hold amino acids together?

A

Peptide bonds

436
Q

What type of bonds are peptide bonds?

A

Covalent

437
Q

What is a polypeptide chain?

A

A long chain or polymer of amino acids

438
Q

What is denaturation?

A

When a protein changes its shape and loses its functioning

439
Q

What causes proteins to be denatured?

A

Increase in temperature, reduction of pH

440
Q

What conditions might denature proteins?

A

Fevers and acidosis

441
Q

What do globular proteins look like?

A

Tangled mass or ball of yarn

442
Q

What do fibrous proteins look like?

A

Thin strands

443
Q

What proteins mark the cells as “self” so the immune system can tell the difference and attack only the bad guys?

A

Major Histocompatibility Complexes (MHC)

444
Q

What do Major Histocompatibility Complexes present to the rest of the immune system?

A

Antigens

445
Q

What are proteins that mark antigens for destruction?

A

Antibodies

446
Q

What are antigens?

A

Foreign proteins or organisms that cause an immune response

447
Q

What are proteins that form various types of clots (not blood clots) that “wall off” or sequester infections, etc.?

A

Clotting proteins

448
Q

What are over 20 proteins that automatically destroy any antigen that is attached to an antibody?

A

Complement proteins

449
Q

What regulatory proteins are produced by endocrine glands?

A

Hormones

450
Q

Do endocrine glands have ducts?

A

No

451
Q

Do hormones take effect in the same area they are produced?

A

No

452
Q

What regulatory proteins are found in the cell membrane and within the cell and are necessary for the hormone or NT to work?

A

Receptors

453
Q

What regulatory proteins are defective in type 2 diabetes?

A

Receptors (they lack insulin receptor proteins)

454
Q

What regulatory proteins are released by neurons?

A

Neurotransmitters

455
Q

When do voltage gated channels open/close?

A

In response to changes in voltage/charge across the membrane (inside vs outside cell)

456
Q

When do ligand gated channels open/close?

A

When a molecule (ligand) binds to the channel

457
Q

What sort of channels do many drugs and hormones use?

A

Ligand gated

458
Q

Which gated channel is like the passage of a nerve impulse?

A

Voltage gated

459
Q

What regulatory proteins lower the activation energy, which makes reactions go faster at lower temperatures?

A

Enzymes

460
Q

What do most enzyme names end in?

A

-ase

461
Q

Are enzymes affected by the reaction they cause?

A

No, not permanently altered

462
Q

What is another term for an enzyme?

A

Protein catalyst

463
Q

What is the compound an enzyme acts on?

A

Substrate

464
Q

What is the location an enzyme binds to its substrate?

A

Activation site

465
Q

What is the amount of energy that must be overcome for a reaction to occur?

A

Activation energy

466
Q

Can changes in pH and increased temperature make enzymes non-functional?

A

Yes! It can cause death

467
Q

What is the catalytic protein component of an enzyme?

A

Apoenzyme

468
Q

What is an apoenzyme + cofactor?

A

Holoenzyme

469
Q

What is a cofactor?

A

Non-protein compound that is essential for an enzyme to work

470
Q

What do coenzymes do?

A

Transfer electrons from one enzyme to another

471
Q

Are enzymes specific?

A

Yes, they will only work on a specific substrate

472
Q

Are coenzymes all enzymes?

A

No, some are organic cofactors like niacin and vitamins

473
Q

What regulatory proteins are produced in response to damaging stimuli (such as heat, low O2), and often prevent other proteins from changing shape (thus preserving their functions)?

A

Chaperone proteins

474
Q

What regulatory proteins are endogenous opioids released in response to pain? (causes runner’s high)

A

Endorphins

475
Q

What regulatory proteins stimulates the immune system and causes fevers? They are made by lymphocytes

A

Interleukins

476
Q

What regulatory proteins stimulate certain leukocytes to attack viruses and/or cancer cells? They are made by leukocytes and fibroblasts

A

Interferons

477
Q

What regulatory proteins are hormone-like- they regulate growth, development, and immunity?

A

Cytokines

478
Q

What proteins cause movement such as actin and myosin in muscle?

A

Contractile proteins

479
Q

What proteins transport other compounds?

A

Transport proteins

480
Q

What type of proteins are hemoglobin, myoglobin, and albumen? (their role)

A

Transport proteins

481
Q

What do these proteins transport:
Hemoglobin
Myoglobin
Albumen

A

Hemoglobin- O2 in blood
Myoglobin- muscles
Albumen- steroids

482
Q

What is the most abundant plasma protein that carries several molecules?

A

Albumen

483
Q

Are transport proteins specific or non-specific?

A

Can be both. An example of specific are estrogen binding proteins that only bind to estrogen

484
Q

What kind of proteins give shape and form?

A

Structural

485
Q

What is a network of proteins that give shape and form to cells? Very important in cell division and intracellular trafficking

A

Cytoskeleton

486
Q

What association can be compromised in structural proteins that may allow cancer to spread?

A

Intracellular proteins associate with extracellular anchoring proteins to keep cells “in place”

487
Q

Are proteins involved in the restructuring of nerve synapses which result in the storage of memory?

A

Yes

488
Q

What do carbs + proteins make?

A

Glycoproteins

489
Q

What are polysaccharides + amines attached?

A

Mucopolysaccharides

490
Q

What mucopolysaccharide lubricates joints and is found in the vitreous humor of the eye?

A

Hyaluronic acid

491
Q

What mucopolysaccharide is a component of cartilage?

A

Chondroitin sulfate

492
Q

What mucopolysaccharide is from certain WBCs and is an anticoagulant?

A

Heparin

493
Q

What are mucopolysaccharides + proteins?

A

Mucoproteins

494
Q

What are mucoproteins a major component of?

A

Mucus

495
Q

Where are mucoproteins found?

A

Lining the G.I. tract, respiratory, and reproductive tracts

496
Q

What is required for lipoproteins to work?

A

Protein receptors in cell membranes

497
Q

What is the process of deriving energy in the form of ATP from nutrients?

A

Cellular respiration

498
Q

How many ATPs does 1 glucose molecule make in cellular respiration? (The WHOLE process)

A

36-38

499
Q

What is the process of chopping up glucose into 2 3-carbon molecules?

A

Glycolysis

500
Q

What happens to the 3-carbon molecules produced in glycolysis?

A

They are chopped up into 2-carbon molecules known as the acetyl group in an intermediate reaction

501
Q

What do you get from the intermediate reactions?

A

An acetyl group, some CO2s, and more stuff used in the electron transport system/chain

502
Q

What do you get from glycolysis? (Need the # of molecules)

A

3-carbon molecules and stuff used in electron transport system/chain

503
Q

What do you get from the Kreb’s cycle?

A

Some ATPs, most of the CO2 we exhale, and more stuff used in the electron transport system/chain

504
Q

What is where we make most of the ATP and use the O2 that we breathe using products from the previous metabolic pathways?

A

The electron transport system/chain or Oxidative phosphorylation

505
Q

What sort of respiration makes fuel for the Kreb’s cycle? (Aerobic or anaerobic)

A

Anaerobic (does not require O2)

506
Q

Where does anerobic respiration occur?

A

The cell’s cytoplasm

507
Q

What 2 3-carbon molecules are produced in glycolysis that go to the intermediate reaction?

A

Pyruvic acids

508
Q

What 2 molecules are produced in glycolysis and transfer 2 electrons and a H+ to other molecules?

A

Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide (NADH)

509
Q

What is the oxidized form of NADH?

A

NAD+

510
Q

What is the reduced form of NAD+?

A

NADH

511
Q

How much H20/metabolic water is produced from glycolysis?

A

2

512
Q

How much ATP is produced in glycolysis?

A

2 (Technically 4, but 2 are used)

513
Q

What is produced by glycolysis that decreases pH and must be buffered?

A

H+

514
Q

What redox reaction has the loss of electrons and energy?

A

Oxidation

515
Q

What redox reaction has the gaining of electrons and energy?

A

Reduction

516
Q

What happens to the 2 NADHs made during glycolysis?

A

The NAD+ will pick up the H+ and 2 electrons and pass them to another molecule. These NADHs will go to the electron transport system

517
Q

Where cannot NADH made in cytoplasm go?

A

Into the inner part of the mitochondria

518
Q

How does NADH get their 2 electrons and 1 H+ into the mitochondria?

A

They pass these molecules to another NAD+ or FAD+ already within the mitochondria

519
Q

What will be formed if the NADH passes the electrons and H+ to another NAD+?

A

3 ATPs

520
Q

What will be formed if the NADH passes the electrons and H+ to a FAD+?

A

2 ATPs

521
Q

What is pyruvic acid reduced to when O2 levels are low?

A

Lactic acid

522
Q

What does lactic acid cause when exercising or when arteries are clogged?

A

Pain (in the chest: angina pectoris)

523
Q

What is the cori cycle?

A

When lactic acid is changed back to pyruvic acid

524
Q

Where does the cori cycle take place?

A

The liver

525
Q

What is it called when yeast utilizes 1 glucose to produce 2ATP + 2CO2 + ethanol?

A

Alcoholic fermentation

526
Q

What is the metabolic reaction yeast primarily uses?

A

Glycolysis

527
Q

When O2 levels are higher, what do pyruvic acids do?

A

Go on to the intermediate reaction

528
Q

Is glycolysis an efficient use of glucose?

A

No, only 2 ATPs are made

529
Q

How many times does the Kreb’s cycle occur for the full net gain of 36-38 ATPs?

A

2 times (one for each acetate)

530
Q

How do the pyruvic acids get ready for Kreb’s cycle?

A

Chopping the 3rd carbon off (making CO2), thus turning the pyruvic acid into an acetate ion (only 2 Cs)

531
Q

Where does the intermediate reaction take place?

A

Matrix of the mitochondria

532
Q

What are the products of the intermediate reaction?

A

CO2, NADH, H+, Acetate ion or acetyl group

533
Q

How many ATPS does the intermediate reaction result in?

A

15 ATPs (3 from the NADH and 12 from the acetate that enters the Kreb’s cycle)

534
Q

What are other names for the Kreb’s cycle?

A

Tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle

535
Q

Where does the Kreb’s cycle take place?

A

Matrix of mitrochondria

536
Q

What does each acetate ion attach to in Kreb’s cycle?

A

Each acetate ion attaches to a Co-enzyme A to make Acetyl Co-enzyme A

537
Q

Where do the remaining carbons go in the Kreb’s cycle?

A

Both are lost as CO2

538
Q

How much NADH is made in the Kreb’s cycle that goes to the electron transport system?

A

3 NADHs

539
Q

What does the Kreb’s cycle produce that is converted into ATP?

A

1 GTP

540
Q

What molecule is also a product of the Kreb cycle that goes to the electron transport system? (It is oxidized and reduced just like NAD+ and NADH)

A

1 FADH2 (Flavine adenine dinucleotide)

541
Q

How many times does Kreb’s cycle occur for 1 glucose?

A

2x

542
Q

How many ATPs do all of the products in the Kreb’s cycle indirectly result in?

A

12

543
Q

Where do all 6 carbons from glucose go?

A

Lost as CO2

544
Q

Where does oxidative phosphorylation/electron transport chain/electron transport system take place?

A

On the membranes of the mitochondria’s cristae

545
Q

What is used in oxidative phosphorylation?

A

The NADHs and FADH2s from earlier reactions

546
Q

NADHs made in cytoplasm (glycolysis) will result in…

A

2 or 3 ATPs each

547
Q

NADHs made in the mitochondria (intermediate rx and Krebs) will result in…

A

3 ATPs each

548
Q

FADH2s made in the mitochondria (intermediate rx and Krebs) will result in…

A

2 ATPs each

549
Q

What is the process where all the H+ produced are pumped out of the mitochondrial matrix into the outer chamber (between inner and outer membranes)?

A

Chemiosmosis

550
Q

What happens to the H+ pumped out in chemiosmosis?

A

They diffuse back in through special proteins in the cristae

551
Q

What happens when the H+ diffuse back in through special proteins in the cristae?

A

ATP synthase activates and makes ATP

552
Q

What is the final electron and proton acceptor allowing respiration to continue?

A

The oxygen we breath! This is why we need oxygen

553
Q

What is oxidative phosphorylation summed up as in an equation?

A

ADP + Pi –> ATP

In the presence of O2, you add a phosphate to ADP to make ATP

554
Q

What metabolic pathway produces Ribose-5-Phosphate and NADPH?

A

Pentose phosphate pathway

555
Q

Where does pentose phosphate pathway occur?

A

In the cytoplasm

556
Q

Is the pentose phosphate pathway anabolic or catabolic?

A

Anabolic (building complex compounds from simpler ones)

557
Q

What are products made from the pentose phosphate pathway used for?

A

Biosynthesis of molecules

558
Q

What is Ribose-5-phosphate used for?

A

To make DNA and RNA

559
Q

What is NADPH used for?

A

Neutralizing ROSs/free radicals, and in the biosynthesis of more complex molecules

560
Q

What is the oxidized form of NADPH?

A

NADP+

561
Q

What is the reduced form of NADP+?

A

NADPH

562
Q

What can NADP+ be used for?

A

Donating electrons and hydrogens

563
Q

What is donating electrons also known as?

A

Reducing power (as seen in neutralizing ROSs)

564
Q

What is the energy per unit time needed for bodily function (the # of calories needed to maintain basic life functions at rest)?

A

Basal metabolic rate (BMR)

565
Q

How do you measure basal metabolic rate (BMR)?

A

In a clinical setting. Continuous monitoring and testing after 12 hours fasting and 8 hours sleep

566
Q

What does basal metabolic rate (BMR) consider?

A

CO2 production and O2 consumption through calorimetry

567
Q

Does BMR differ with age and gender?

A

Yes

568
Q

Does BMR increase or decrease with age?

A

Decrease

569
Q

How do you calculate body mass index (BMI)?

A

Body mass/height^2

570
Q

What is a method of estimating a person’s weight status by only using height and weight?

A

BMI

571
Q

What units are BMI measured in?

A

Kg/m^2

572
Q

What are limitations to BMI?

A

Abdominal obesity (clinically more associated with disease), short stature, high muscle mass

573
Q

What are organic compounds needed for homeostatic balance of metabolism?

A

Vitamins

574
Q

Are these vitamins fat soluble or water soluble? A, D, E, K

A

Fat soluble

575
Q

What is vitamin A needed for?

A

Eye, bone, immune function

576
Q

What is vitamin D needed for?

A

Ca++ absorption, bone growth

577
Q

What is vitamin E needed for?

A

Antioxidant

578
Q

What is vitamin K needed for?

A

Clotting blood

579
Q

What can deficiencies in vitamin A cause?

A

Night blindness, general epithelial damage, immune dysfunction

580
Q

What can deficiencies in vitamin D cause?

A

Rickets, cardiovascular disease, cancer, asthma, decreased cognition

581
Q

What is Rickets?

A

Demineralization of bones

582
Q

What can deficiencies in vitamin E cause?

A

Anemia

583
Q

What can deficiencies in vitamin K cause?

A

Hemorrhaging/inability to clot

584
Q

Why does coumadin/warfarin work as a poison?

A

Blocks vitamin K, thus causing internal bleeding

585
Q

Are these vitamins fat soluble or water soluble? B1, B2, B3, B7, B9, B12, C

A

Water soluble vitamins

586
Q

What is another name for vitamin B1?

A

Thiamine

587
Q

What is another name for vitamin B2?

A

Riboflavin

588
Q

What is another name for vitamin B3?

A

Niacin

589
Q

What is vitamin B1 needed for?

A

Carbohydrate metabolism

590
Q

What is vitamin B2 needed for?

A

Production of FADH2 (needed for metabolism) and RBCs

591
Q

What is vitamin B3 needed for?

A

Production of NADH (needed for metabolism) and cholesterol

592
Q

What is a cardiovascular/nervous system disease caused by lack of vitamin B1/thiamine?

A

Beriberi

593
Q

What is another name for vitamin B7?

A

Biotin

594
Q

What is another name for vitamin B9?

A

Folic acid

595
Q

What is vitamin B7 needed for?

A

Cell growth, metabolism of fatty acids, production of RBCs

596
Q

What is vitamin B9 needed for?

A

Production of DNA and proteins

597
Q

What can deficiencies in vitamin B9/folic acid cause?

A

Poor growth, gingivitis, appetite loss, shortness of breath, GI problems, metal deficits

Neural tube defects in fetuses

598
Q

What is another name for vitamin B12?

A

[Cyano]cobalamin

599
Q

What is another name for vitamin C?

A

Ascorbic acid

600
Q

What is vitamin B12 needed for?

A

Fatty acid oxidation, nerve function, production of DNA/RNA, RBC production

601
Q

What is vitamin C needed for?

A

Collagen formation in CT and teeth, wound healing

602
Q

What can deficiencies in vitamin B12 cause?

A

Pernicious anemia and nerve cell damage

603
Q

What can deficiencies in vitamin C cause?

A

Gingivitis, bleeding gums, scurvy

604
Q

What are other important minerals/electrolytes for metabolism?

A

N+, K+, Ca++, PO4-, Mg++, Cl-, Fe++, Zn++, Cu, I, S, F, Mn, Co, Se, Ch, Mo

605
Q

Do muscles release glycogen into the blood?

A

No, they hold on to it. The liver will let it go