Exam 2: Blood, Respiratory, Lymph

Question 1

What is the connective tissue that is involved in transportation within the body?

Answer 1

Vascular connective tissues

Question 2

What is the function of blood?

Answer 2

Transportation of O2, CO2, nutrients, wastes, hormones

Question 3

Can blood thermoregulate?

Answer 3

Yes, as blood takes heat to the skin

Question 4

Can blood regulate pH?

Answer 4

Yes

Question 5

What enables blood to regulate fluid volume?

Answer 5

Its osmotic properties

Question 6

How can blood “protect”?

Answer 6

Through its immune system (leukocytes)

Question 7

Can leukocytes cause inflammation?

Answer 7

Yes

Question 8

Can leukocytes kill microbes and cancer?

Answer 8

Yes

Question 9

Can leukocytes make antibodies?

Answer 9

Yes

Question 10

What are antibodies also known as?

Answer 10

Immunoglobulins (Ig’s) or gamma globulins

Question 11

How do Ig’s and gamma globulins get rid of pathogens?

Answer 11

They mark pathogens for destruction by the immune system

Question 12

Does blood contain clotting factors?

Answer 12

Yes

Question 13

Does blood contain proteins that destroy pathogens?

Answer 13

Yes

Question 14

What is the extracellular fluid component of blood before clotting?

Answer 14

Plasma

Question 15

What is the extracellular fluid component of blood after clotting?

Answer 15

Serum

Question 16

What are cells and platelets a part of?

Answer 16

The formed elements

Question 17

What blood cell transports oxygen?

Answer 17

Erythrocytes

Question 18

What blood cell is a major component of the immune system?

Answer 18

Leukocytes

Question 19

What cell fragments initiate blood clotting?

Answer 19

Platelets

Question 20

What is the pH of blood?

Answer 20

7.35-7.45

Question 21

How sensitive is the body to changes in blood pH?

Answer 21

Very. A slight change in pH indicates a dramatic change in hydrogen ion concentration

Question 22

Could a blood pH of 6.8 or 8.0 kill?

Answer 22

Yes, this slight variance in pH may be lethal

Question 23

What percent of your body’s weight is blood?

Answer 23

8%

Question 24

What does CO2 and H20 form?

Answer 24

Carbonic acid

Question 25

What is the formula for carbonic acid?

Answer 25

H2CO3

Question 26

What enzyme breaks carbonic acid into CO2 and H20?

Answer 26

Carbonic anhydrase

Question 27

What is the formula for bicarbonate?

Answer 27

HCO3-

Question 28

Where are HCO3- and H+ produced?

Answer 28

In the body’s tissues

Question 29

In most situations, do you want the formula to read right to left, or left to right?
CO2 + H2O <-> H2CO3 <-> HCO3 + H+

Answer 29

From right to left. You want to get rid of H+ by combining it into carbonic acid, then split the carbonic acid into H20 and CO2

Question 30

Where is carbonic anhydrase found?

Answer 30

In the erythrocytes and kidney tubules

Question 31

What is the law of mass action?

Answer 31

If you increase a component (reactant) on one side of an equation, it forces the equation to proceed in the other direction

Question 32

What takes care of CO2?

Answer 32

It is dumped by the lungs

Question 33

What is too much CO2 called?

Answer 33

Hypercapnia

Question 34

What is too low CO2 called?

Answer 34

Hypocapnia

Question 35

What happens to the H+ ions when you have a respiratory/pulmonary disease such as emphysema?

Answer 35

There’s a high concentration of H+ ions in the blood leading to respiratory acidosis (the equation is reversed to read left to right)

Question 36

What is acidosis?

Answer 36

Elevated H+, loss of bicarbonate

Question 37

What respiratory disease usually causes respiratory acidosis?

Answer 37

Hypercapnia (too high CO2)

Question 38

What is the most common form of acidosis?

Answer 38

Respiratory acidosis

Question 39

What causes metabolic acidosis?

Answer 39

Too much H+, lactic acid, ketoacidosis, bicarbonate loss

Question 40

Where is ketoacidosis seen?

Answer 40

In diabetes

Question 41

Does kidney failure elevate or lower retained H+?

Answer 41

Kidney failure prevents the body from excreting H+, thus raising it in the body

Question 42

What might lower bicarbonate ions in the body?

Answer 42

Diarrhea

Question 43

Is this a symptom of acidosis?
Compensatory hyperventilation

Answer 43

Yes

Question 44

Is this a symptom of acidosis?
CNS elevation

Answer 44

No. The CNS would depress with acidosis

Question 45

Is this a symptom of acidosis?
pH < 7.0

Answer 45

Yes

Question 46

Can a pH < 7.0 induce a coma?

Answer 46

Yes

Question 47

Is this a symptom of acidosis?
Confusion, lethargy, headaches

Answer 47

Yes

Question 48

Is this a symptom of acidosis?
Hyperactive reflexes

Answer 48

No. Hypoactive reflexes are a symptom

Question 49

What is alkalosis?

Answer 49

When there is not enough H+ in the body

Question 50

What can anxiety, hyperventilation, liver failure, vomiting, and hypocapnia cause?

Answer 50

Alkalosis

Question 51

Is this symptom acidosis or alkalosis?
Over excited CNS

Answer 51

Alkalosis

Question 52

Is this symptom acidosis or alkalosis?
Under excited CNS

Answer 52

Acidosis

Question 53

Is this symptom acidosis or alkalosis?
Hypoventilation

Answer 53

Alkalosis

Question 54

Is this symptom acidosis or alkalosis?
Hyperventilation

Answer 54

Acidosis

Question 55

Is this symptom acidosis or alkalosis?
Confusion, lethargy

Answer 55

Acidosis

Question 56

Is this symptom acidosis or alkalosis?
Irritability, agitated state, hyperactive reflexes

Answer 56

Alkalosis

Question 57

Is this symptom acidosis or alkalosis?
Muscle contraction/tetany/twitching/convulsions

Answer 57

Alkalosis

Question 58

Low pH means high or low acidity?

Answer 58

Low pH = high acidity

Question 59

Low pH means lots of H+ ions or few H+ ions?

Answer 59

Low pH = high H+ ions

Question 60

High pH means high or low acidity?

Answer 60

High pH = low acidity

Question 61

High pH means lots of H+ ions or few H+ ions?

Answer 61

High pH = low H+ ions

Question 62

Is trauma a leading cause of death for those aged 1-44?

Answer 62

Yes

Question 63

What is the number 1 cause of death in the United States (according to him)

Answer 63

Trauma

Question 64

What percentage of death by trauma is caused by hemorrhaging?

Answer 64

40%

Question 65

What term means to “bleed out”?

Answer 65

Exsanguination

Question 66

What are the three components of the triad of death?

Answer 66

Hypothermia
Acidosis
Coagulopathy

Question 67

What does hypothermia mean?

Answer 67

Body temperature gets below 35 degrees Celsius

Question 68

What is coagulopathy?

Answer 68

Reduced ability to form a clot

Question 69

What demonstrates a potentially catastrophic disruption of homeostatic balance?

Answer 69

The triad of death

Question 70

What is normal body temperature?

Answer 70

36-37 degrees Celsius

Question 71

What can cause hypothermia?

Answer 71

Massive blood loss

Question 72

How does hypothermia affect the circulatory system?

Answer 72

It reduces heart function and O2 delivery to tissues

Question 73

How does hypothermia affect clotting?

Answer 73

Reduces ability to clot

Question 74

What is hypothermia’s effect on infection/immunity?

Answer 74

Decreases immunity, increases risk of wound infection, pneumonia, and sepsis

Question 75

How does acidosis affect the circulatory system?

Answer 75

Reduces heart function and increases risk of ventricular fibrillation

Question 76

How does acidosis affect muscles?

Answer 76

Reduces muscle strength and increases fatigue of respiratory muscles

Question 77

How does acidosis affect mental state?

Answer 77

Decreases mental status and incudes coma

Question 78

How does acidosis affect clotting?

Answer 78

Reduces ability to clot

Question 79

What is fibrinolysis?

Answer 79

Dissolving clots faster than they form (causes bleeding out)

Question 80

What causes fibrinolysis?

Answer 80

Massive traumatic injury and blood loss

Question 81

How does coagulopathy affect breathing?

Answer 81

Increased anaerobic respiration (without O2)

Question 82

How does anerobic respiration affect the levels of lactic acid and pH?

Answer 82

Increases lactic acid and reduces the pH (acidosis)

Question 83

How does coagulopathy affect body temperature?

Answer 83

Lowers body temperature

Question 84

What is the fluid component of blood prior to clotting?

Answer 84

Plasma

Question 85

What is the fluid component of blood after clotting?

Answer 85

Serum

Question 86

Is it better to use plasma or serum for lab testing?

Answer 86

Serum, as there are no clotting proteins present that may interfere with tests

Question 87

Where are most of the proteins in the blood made?

Answer 87

The liver

Question 88

What proteins are the exception/not made by the liver?

Answer 88

Antibodies

Question 89

How many proteins are made by the liver?

Answer 89

Over 2,000

Question 90

What % of plasma proteins are albumins?

Answer 90

60%

Question 91

What do albumins regulate?

Answer 91

Osmotic pressure

Question 92

What percentage of plasma proteins are globulins?

Answer 92

36%

Question 93

Which globulins transport lipids, metal ions, and fat-soluble vitamins?

Answer 93

Alpha and Beta globulins

Question 94

What globulins are the antibodies/immunoglobulins?

Answer 94

Gamma globulins

Question 95

What do gamma globulins do?

Answer 95

Mark pathogens for destruction in the immune system

Question 96

What makes gamma globulins?

Answer 96

Leukocytes called plasma cells

Question 97

What percentage of the plasma proteins are fibrinogens?

Answer 97

4%

Question 98

What are fibrinogens important for?

Answer 98

Blood clotting

Question 99

Are enzymes proteins in blood?

Answer 99

Yes

Question 100

How are enzymes relevant in diagnostics?

Answer 100

These spill out of dead cells and are measured to diagnose disease

Question 101

Where do nitrogenous wastes come from in blood?

Answer 101

From breakdown of proteins (DNA & RNA)

Question 102

What is the MAIN nitrogenous waste?

Answer 102

Urea

Question 103

What are other nitrogenous wastes?

Answer 103

Uric acid, creatinine, ammonia salts

Question 104

Where do nitrogenous wastes get eliminated?

Answer 104

The kidneys

Question 105

What are considered nutrients in the blood?

Answer 105

Glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, triglycerides, cholesterol, vitamins

Question 106

What are examples of electrolytes in blood?

Answer 106

Na+, K+, Mg++, Cl-, PO4-, SO3-2, HCO3- (Bicarbonate)

Question 107

Are there respiratory gasses in blood?

Answer 107

Yes, O2 and CO2

Question 108

What hormones are in blood?

Answer 108

Yes, steroid hormones and protein hormones

Question 109

What is osmolarity?

Answer 109

How much solute is dissolved

Question 110

What do “hypertonic”, “hypotonic”, and “isotonic” refer to?

Answer 110

Osmolarity. Comparing solutions based on how much solute is in them

Question 111

What can effect osmolarity?

Answer 111

Electrolytes, proteins, lipids, carbohydrates

Question 112

What is osmolarity measured in?

Answer 112

mOsm (milliosmoles)

Question 113

Where does water always move towards? (High or low concentration)

Answer 113

Water moves to the high solute (What is hypertonic)

Question 114

What is the diffusion of water?

Answer 114

Osmosis

Question 115

Osmosis moves water from…

Answer 115

Low solute to high solute
(High water to low water)

Question 116

What is osmotic pressure?

Answer 116

The amount of pressure required to stop osmosis of water

Question 117

What does osmotic pressure rely on?

Answer 117

Osmolarity

Question 118

What solution has a higher solute content in comparison?

Answer 118

Hypertonic

Question 119

What solution has a lower solute content in comparison?

Answer 119

Hypotonic

Question 120

What is it called when solutions have equal amounts of solute?

Answer 120

Isotonic

Question 121

What is the isotonicity for all solutes? (Range and the “rough” #)

Answer 121

280-296, or 300 mOsm

Question 122

What % of NaCl is isotonic in plasma?

Answer 122

0.9%

Question 123

What % of glucose is isotonic in plasma?

Answer 123

5.0%

Question 124

If your liver fails, how will this effect your blood?

Answer 124

There will be a drop in protein production, making the blood hypotonic

Question 125

What is ascites?

Answer 125

Severe abdominal edema

Question 126

What is the disease known for giving starving people “pot bellies”?

Answer 126

Kwashiorkor

Question 127

Total volume of blood in a female vs a male?

Answer 127

Female: 5L
Male: 6L

Question 128

What is the measure of the contribution over 2,000 plasma proteins make to the total osmolarity of the blood?

Answer 128

Osmotic pressure, or Colloid osmotic pressure (COP)

Question 129

What are the plasma cell leukocytes that make antibodies?

Answer 129

B Lymphocytes

Question 130

What are the two main types of lipids in the blood?

Answer 130

Triglycerides and phospholipids

Question 131

What do triglycerides want the plasma levels to be?

Answer 131

<150 mg/dL

Question 132

What do phospholipids want the plasma levels to be?

Answer 132

160-300 mg/dL

Question 133

Where are phospholipids found?

Answer 133

Cell membrane

Question 134

What do phospholipids tend to form?

Answer 134

Bilayers, due to having both hydrophobic and hydrophilic properties

Question 135

What term means phospholipids have both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties?

Answer 135

Amphiphilic/amphipathic

Question 136

What part of the phospholipid is water soluble?

Answer 136

Fatty acid heads

Question 137

What part of the phospholipid is fat soluble?

Answer 137

Fatty acid tails

Question 138

What part of the phospholipid is polar?

Answer 138

Fatty acid heads

Question 139

What part of the phospholipid is nonpolar?

Answer 139

Fatty acid tails

Question 140

What part of the phospholipid is hydrophobic?

Answer 140

Fatty acid tails

Question 141

What part of the phospholipid is hydrophilic?

Answer 141

Fatty acid heads

Question 142

What part of the phospholipid is lipophobic?

Answer 142

Fatty acid heads

Question 143

What part of the phospholipid is lipophilic?

Answer 143

Fatty acid tails

Question 144

Which part of the phospholipid crosses membranes readily?

Answer 144

Fatty acid tails

Question 145

Which part of the phospholipid does NOT cross membranes readily?

Answer 145

Fatty acid heads

Question 146

Which part of the phospholipid breaks off to form prostaglandins?

Answer 146

Fatty acid tails

Question 147

What does cholesterol want the plasma level to be?

Answer 147

<180 mg/dL or <200 mg/dL

Question 148

What % cholesterol is made by the liver? What % is diet?

Answer 148

85% genetic
15% diet

Question 149

Where are lipoproteins produced?

Answer 149

Liver

Question 150

What do lipoproteins do?

Answer 150

Transport lipids in the blood

Question 151

Which one is “bad” cholesterol?

Answer 151

Low density-lipoproteins (LDLs)

Question 152

How much LDLs should a normal patient have?

Answer 152

<100 mg/dL

Question 153

How much LDLs should high risk patients have?

Answer 153

<70 mg/dL

Question 154

What diseases are correlated with high LDLs?

Answer 154

Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis

Question 155

What process do LDLs use to transport lipids into the cells?

Answer 155

Receptor mediated endocytosis

Question 156

What is the process o receptor mediated endocytosis?

Answer 156

When an LDL binds to an LDL receptor on a cell wall, it opens allowing cholesterol to enter the cell

Question 157

What happens when there’s too much LDL?

Answer 157

It gets under the endothelium, causes inflammation, and plaque builds up

Question 158

What protein is part of the LDL that attaches to receptors found on most cells?

Answer 158

Apoprotein B100

Question 159

What does apoprotein B100 do once inside the cell?

Answer 159

Metabolizes cholesterol

Question 160

What can destroy LDLs?

Answer 160

Scavenger macrophages

Question 161

What is arteriosclerosis?

Answer 161

Loss of elasticity of arterial wall (“hardening of the arteries”)

Question 162

What is atherosclerosis?

Answer 162

A type of arteriosclerosis, where there’s clogging of the arteries (with plaque)

Question 163

What is the plaque in atherosclerosis made of?

Answer 163

Lipids (such as cholesterol), WBC (such as macrophages), aberrant smooth muscle cells, and calcium

Question 164

What can excess plaque in arteries cause?

Answer 164

The artery may rupture, causing hemorrhage

Question 165

What part of atherosclerosis may cause a stroke?

Answer 165

Clots that form after an arterial rupture block O2 from going to the brain

Question 166

What is familial hypercholesterolemia?

Answer 166

A genetic mutation in LDL receptors that prevent cholesterol from entering cells (so it stays in the plasma)

Question 167

Are there high levels of cholesterol in familial hypercholesterolemia?

Answer 167

There are high levels of cholesterol in the blood, causing catastrophic arterial clogging

Question 168

Does familial hypercholesterolemia only effect old people who eat like shit?

Answer 168

No, it’s genetic and young people suffer from it

Question 169

What is “good” cholesterol?

Answer 169

High density lipoproteins (HDLs)

Question 170

What do you want your HDLs to be at?

Answer 170

> 30 mm/dL

Question 171

What is a normal range of HDLs?

Answer 171

30-80 mm/dL

Question 172

What can an HDL of >60 mm/dL do?

Answer 172

Protect against heart disease

Question 173

What do HDLs do?

Answer 173

Take cholesterol from the cells to the liver, where it will be a component of bile and excreted in feces

Question 174

What is the movement of HDLs?

Answer 174

Receptor mediated endocytosis

Question 175

What are normal blood glucose values?

Answer 175

70-110 mg/dL

Question 176

Where is glucose stored in the body?

Answer 176

In the muscles and liver as glycogen

Question 177

What makes glycogen go into the blood?

Answer 177

Glucagon

Question 178

How many erythrocytes in a female vs male?

Answer 178

Female: 4.5 million/μL
Male: 5.5 million/μL

Question 179

What is the diameter of erythrocytes?

Answer 179

7.5 μm

Question 180

How long do erythrocytes last?

Answer 180

120 days

Question 181

What removes erythrocytes at the end of their lifespan?

Answer 181

The spleen

Question 182

What protein in blood carries O2?

Answer 182

Hemoglobin

Question 183

How many hemoglobin molecules per erythrocyte cell?

Answer 183

280 million molecules

Question 184

How much total hemoglobin in females vs males?

Answer 184

Females: 12-16 g/dL
Males: 13-18 g/dL

Question 185

How many polypeptide chains does hemoglobin have?

Answer 185

4

Question 186

What are the polypeptide chains hemoglobin has?

Answer 186

2 Alpha chains
2 Beta chains

Question 187

How many hemes do each chain in hemoglobin have?

Answer 187

1 heme for each chain

Question 188

How many hemes in 1 hemoglobin moloecule?

Answer 188

4

Question 189

How many iron molecules does each heme have?

Answer 189

1 iron for each heme

Question 190

How many irons in 1 hemoglobin molecule?

Answer 190

4

Question 191

How many oxygens do each iron carry?

Answer 191

1

Question 192

How many oxygens in each hemoglobin molecule?

Answer 192

4

Question 193

What is the green pigment when hemoglobin breaks down?

Answer 193

Biliverdin

Question 194

What is the yellow pigment made and released when hemoglobin is degraded by macrophages?

Answer 194

Bilirubin

Question 195

What does the liver convert bilirubin into?

Answer 195

Bile components

Question 196

Where do bile components go?

Answer 196

Secreted into the intestines

Question 197

What is urobilinogen?

Answer 197

A by-product from bile degredation

Question 198

What is the pigment from urobilinogen that gives feces a brown color?

Answer 198

Stercobilin

Question 199

What is a yellow covering of skin/eyes due to excess bilirubin?

Answer 199

Jaundice

Question 200

What causes jaundice?

Answer 200

Liver disease

Question 201

What is the difference between oxyhemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin?

Answer 201

Oxy: hemoglobin bound to O2
Deoxy: hemoglobin WITHOUT O2

Question 202

What is carbaminohemoglobin?

Answer 202

Hemoglobin bound to CO2

Question 203

What is hemoglobin bound to carbon monoxide?

Answer 203

Carboxyhemoglobin

Question 204

What does hematocrit mean?

Answer 204

The % of centrifuged RBCs in blood

Question 205

What’s a normal hematocrit in a female vs a male?

Answer 205

Female: 42%
Male: 47%

Question 206

What does a high hematocrit % mean?

Answer 206

Infection

Question 207

What does a low hematocrit % mean?

Answer 207

Heart and/or blood disorders

Question 208

How do you calculate sedimentation (Sed) rate?

Answer 208

Measure the time required for RBCs to settle to the bottom of a tube containing a specific fluid

Question 209

What does Sed rate tell you?

Answer 209

RBC density

Question 210

What increases Sed rate/RBC density?

Answer 210

Pregnancy, disease (anemia, inflammation)

Question 211

After 120, what happens to RBCs?

Answer 211

They become brittle and squeeze through holes in the spleen, causing them to rupture. They are then removed by macrophages

Question 212

What is an RBC rupture called?

Answer 212

Hemolysis

Question 213

Where does hemoglobin go when RBCs rupture?

Answer 213

It spills into the blood

Question 214

What is hemopoiesis/hematopoiesis?

Answer 214

Blood formation within red bone marrow

Question 215

What first makes the blood cells in humans?

Answer 215

The yolk sac in the embryo

Question 216

When does the yolk sac make blood cells?

Answer 216

3-7 weeks of gestation

Question 217

What are the precursor blood cells?

Answer 217

Hemopoietic stem cells

Question 218

Where do hemopoietic stem cells migrate to and from?

Answer 218

Hemopoietic stem cells travel from the yolk sac to the embryo

Question 219

What makes blood after the yolk sac?

Answer 219

Liver, spleen, and lymphatic tissues

Question 220

When do the liver, spleen, and lymphatic tissues make blood?

Answer 220

At the end of the 2nd trimester or beginning o the 3rd

Question 221

When does the liver stop making blood cells?

Answer 221

Birth

Question 222

What type of blood cells do the spleen and lymphoid tissues continue to make?

Answer 222

Lymphocytes (a type of leukocyte)

Question 223

What is it called when blood is made outside the medullary cavity?

Answer 223

Extramedullary hemopoiesis

Question 224

Is extramedullary hemopoiesis normal?

Answer 224

No, in birthed humans this indicates loss of bone marrow function, possibly due to cancer, toxins, and radiation

Question 225

Where does medullary hemopoiesis take place, and what is it called?

Answer 225

Red bone marrow occurs in the bone marrow cavity

Question 226

When is red bone marrow in all bones?

Answer 226

From late fetal life until about 5 years old

Question 227

What bones have red bone marrow after childhood? At what age?

Answer 227

Membranous bones by the age of 20

Question 228

What are examples of membranous bones?

Answer 228

Sternum, ilium, vertebrae, ribs

Question 229

What hormone from the liver and kidneys regulates erythropoiesis?

Answer 229

Erythropoietin (EPO)

Question 230

What is erythropoiesis?

Answer 230

Production of erythrocytes

Question 231

Why would you need more O2? (And subsequently, more erythrocytes)

Answer 231

Hemorrhaging, long term anemia, pulmonary/respiratory disease, living in high altitudes

Question 232

What is natural “blood doping”?

Answer 232

Training in high altitudes where you get more EPO, which increases RBCs, which increases endurance

Question 233

What element is used to make hemoglobin?

Answer 233

Iron

Question 234

What is most of the body’s iron used for?

Answer 234

In hemoglobin

Question 235

Is iron safe by itself?

Answer 235

No, it’s toxic, so it has to be bound to proteins

Question 236

What is the primary extracellular protein that transports iron within the blood and makes iron available to cells (with the help of 2 other proteins)?

Answer 236

Transferrin

Question 237

What are the 2 proteins that help transferrin make iron available to cells?

Answer 237

Ferritin and hemosiderin

Question 238

Are ferritin and hemosiderin extracellular or intracellular proteins?

Answer 238

Intracellular proteins

Question 239

What are the dietary iron ions?

Answer 239

Fe+2 and Fe+3

Question 240

What form of iron can the intestines absorb?

Answer 240

Fe+2

Question 241

What converts iron ions from Fe+3 to Fe+2 so it can be absorbed by the intestines?

Answer 241

The stomach

Question 242

Where is vitamin B12 found?

Answer 242

Meat, brewers yeast

Question 243

Why is vitamin B12 necessary?

Answer 243

DNA production and cell division

Question 244

What is “intrinsic factor”?

Answer 244

A protein produced in the stomach that allows intestines to absorb B12

Question 245

What pathology can be caused by failure to absorb B12?

Answer 245

Pernicious anemia

Question 246

What are other names for folic acid?

Answer 246

Folate or folacin

Question 247

Where can you get folate?

Answer 247

Dark leafy greens and beans

Question 248

What is the purpose of folate?

Answer 248

DNA production and cell division

Question 249

What pathology are folate deficiencies linked to?

Answer 249

Neural tube defects

Question 250

What protein is used to diagnose NTD?

Answer 250

Elevated alpha fetal proteins

Question 251

Where can you test the fetus for NTDs?

Answer 251

The maternal plasma

Question 252

Does folate build up fast?

Answer 252

No, mothers should take folate prenatal vitamins months prior to being pregnant

Question 253

What happens normally to the neural groove?

Answer 253

It closes to become the neural tube, or the beginning of the nervous system

Question 254

When does the neural tube form/the neural groove close?

Answer 254

Days 9-22 of gestation

Question 255

What NTD is the worst?

Answer 255

Anencephaly, a total lack of forebrain

Question 256

Is anencephaly an anterior or posterior NTD?

Answer 256

Anterior

Question 257

What are the posterior NTD from best to worst prognosis?

Answer 257

Spina bifida occulta
Meningocele
Myelomeningocele

Question 258

What is the process leukocytes use to leave the blood vessels into the interstitum?

Answer 258

Diapedesis

Question 259

What is the method of locomotion used by leukocytes to move within the interstitium?

Answer 259

Amoeboid movement

Question 260

What is the process which leukocytes are attracted to locations by following the “scent” of chemicals?

Answer 260

Chemotaxis

Question 261

What are organelles found in neutrophils which function as the body’s detoxifiers? (Found in the liver)

Answer 261

Peroxisomes

Question 262

What are organelles found in various cells such as neutrophils that are the cells digestive system?

Answer 262

Lysosomes

Question 263

What is the nonfunctional “drumsticks” seen on XX chromosomes?

Answer 263

Barr body

Question 264

What does it mean if you find WBCs on a crime scene with drumsticks?

Answer 264

The blood is from a female

Question 265

What WBC have barr bodies/drumsticks?

Answer 265

Neutrophils

Question 266

What is the range of leukocytes in blood?

Answer 266

4,800-10,800 /µL

Question 267

What type of leukocytes have granules and lobed nuclei?

Answer 267

Granulocytes or polymorphonuclear leukocytes

Question 268

What are the most abundant WBC and what is their range?

Answer 268

Neutrophils: 2,500-8,000 /µL

Question 269

What are neutrophil’s roles?

Answer 269

Primary phagocyte and inflammatory cell, dies to make pus

Question 270

What % of WBC are neutrophils?

Answer 270

50-70%

Question 271

What color are neutrophil’s cytoplasm and how many lobes does it have?

Answer 271

Clear, 3-6 lobes

Question 272

What are antimicrobial compounds which digest holes in microbes?

Answer 272

Denfensins

Question 273

What % of WBC are eosinophils?

Answer 273

2-4%

Question 274

What color are eosinophil’s cytoplasm? How many lobes?

Answer 274

Red-pink, 2 lobes

Question 275

What is the normal range of eosinophils?

Answer 275

<500/µL

Question 276

When are eosinophil levels elevated?

Answer 276

During allergic reactions and parasitic worm infections

Question 277

What % of WBC are basophils?

Answer 277

<1%

Question 278

What is the normal range for basophils?

Answer 278

50-100/µL

Question 279

What color are basophils?

Answer 279

Dark purple/blue

Question 280

What are basophils role?

Answer 280

Produce histamine and heparin for anticlotting and inflammation during allergic reactions

Question 281

What leukocytes are granulocytes or polymorphonuclear leukocytes?

Answer 281

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils

Question 282

What type of leukocytes don’t have granules?

Answer 282

Agranulocytes or mononuclear leukocytes

Question 283

What % of WBCs are lymphocytes?

Answer 283

25%

Question 284

What is the normal range of lymphocytes?

Answer 284

1,000-4,500/µL

Question 285

What do lymphocytes look like?

Answer 285

Small, dark purple, and round. Small crescent of cytoplasm

Question 286

How big are lymphocytes?

Answer 286

As big as RBCs (7µm)

Question 287

What % of WBCs are monocytes?

Answer 287

3-8%

Question 288

What is the normal range of monocytes?

Answer 288

100-700 /µL

Question 289

What do monocytes look like?

Answer 289

Large cells with abundant cytoplasm. Horseshoe shaped nuclei that is larger than other WBCs

Question 290

What leukocytes become macrophages after diapedesis?

Answer 290

Monocytes

Question 291

What leukocytes are agranulocytes or mononuclear leukocytes?

Answer 291

Lymphocytes
Monocytes

Question 292

How many platelets are in the blood?

Answer 292

150,000-400,000 / µL

Question 293

What are platelets?

Answer 293

Cell fragments that initate blood clotting

Question 294

What do platelets come from?

Answer 294

Megakaryocytes

Question 295

What hormone regulates the formation of platelets?

Answer 295

Thrombopoietin

Question 296

What produces thrombopoietin?

Answer 296

Liver and kidneys

Question 297

What is the body’s process for stopping bleeding called?

Answer 297

Hemostasis

Question 298

What is the first step in hemostasis?

Answer 298

Vascular spasms

Question 299

What are vascular spasms?

Answer 299

Vasoconstriction of blood vessels following damage

Question 300

What is the second step of hemostasis, following vascular spasms?

Answer 300

Platelet plug formation

Question 301

What is blood exposed to when there is damage to a blood vessel?

Answer 301

Collagen

Question 302

What helps platelets aggregate on the collagen?

Answer 302

Von Willebrand factor (VWF)

Question 303

What do platelets release on the collagen when you’re cut?

Answer 303

Serotonin, ADP, and thromboxane A2

Question 304

What does thromboxane A2 do?

Answer 304

Keeps more platelets coming to the damaged site

Question 305

What keeps platelets from adhering to undamaged endothelium?

Answer 305

Prostacyclin

Question 306

What is the third step of hemostasis, which occurs after platelet plug formation?

Answer 306

Coagulation or blood clotting

Question 307

How many clotting factors are involved in blood clotting?

Answer 307

13

Question 308

What vitamin is necessary for clotting factors 2, 7, 9, 10?

Answer 308

Vitamin K

Question 309

What is an anticoagulant that blocks the effect of vitamin K?

Answer 309

Coumadin (Warfarin)

Question 310

What is the coumadin (warfarin) a main ingredient in?

Answer 310

May rat poisons

Question 311

What is an anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin and clotting factor X (10)?

Answer 311

Heparin

Question 312

What blocks the production of thromboxane A2 and prostaglandins?

Answer 312

Aspirin

Question 313

What is the fourth step in hemostasis, after coagulation?

Answer 313

Prothrombin activator activates prothrombin

Question 314

What does prothrombin change into?

Answer 314

The enzyme thrombin

Question 315

What causes fibrinogen to form long strands of fibrin?

Answer 315

Thrombin

Question 316

What does fibrin do?

Answer 316

Glue the platelets together to form the basis of the blood clot

Question 317

What are blood types based off of?

Answer 317

The type of carbohydrate-protein (glycoprotein) on the outside of the erythrocyte’s membrane

Question 318

What are the glycoproteins that determine your blood type called?

Answer 318

Antigens

Question 319

What are the antibodies you are born with that attack the blood types you don’t have?

Answer 319

Agglutinins

Question 320

If you have type A antigens, you have___ antibodies?

Answer 320

Anti-B

Question 321

If you have type B antigens, you have___ antibodies?

Answer 321

Anti-A

Question 322

If you have type A and B antigens, you have___ antibodies?

Answer 322

No antibodies against A or B

Question 323

What is the universal recipient?

Answer 323

Type AB+

Question 324

If you have type O, you have 0 antigens and anti-___?

Answer 324

No antigens and anti-A and anti-B antibodies

Question 325

Why is O+ the universal donor?

Answer 325

It has no antigens so everyone can have it without attacking it

Question 326

What is the Rh or Rhesus group?

Answer 326

The + or - that comes from having an Rh glycoprotein on your cell membrane

Question 327

What did Type O and the Rh group used to be known as?

Answer 327

Types C and D

Question 328

For the general US population, what % are: O

Answer 328

48%

Question 329

For the general US population, what % are: A

Answer 329

32%

Question 330

For the general US population, what % are: B

Answer 330

16%

Question 331

For the general US population, what % are: AB

Answer 331

4%

Question 332

What does idiopathic mean?

Answer 332

Of unknown origins

Question 333

What does exacerbate vs ameliorate mean?

Answer 333

To make worse vs to make better

Question 334

What is ablation?

Answer 334

To remove as with surgery

Question 335

What is it called when you have elevated WBCs?

Answer 335

Leukocytosis

Question 336

What is it called when you have reduced WBCs?

Answer 336

Leukocytopenia

Question 337

What is it called when you have reduced levels of platelets?

Answer 337

Thrombocytopenia

Question 338

What is pancytopenia?

Answer 338

Reduction of all blood cells

Question 339

When is pancytopenia seen?

Answer 339

With bone marrow destruction from radiation

Question 340

Reduction in RBCs vs WBCs cause what problems?

Answer 340

RBC: anemia
WBC: immuno suppressed

Question 341

Reduction in platelets causes what problem?

Answer 341

Impaired blood clotting

Question 342

What is an iatrogenic condition?

Answer 342

Caused by a clinician (ex. leaving forceps in the abdomen)

Question 343

What is a nosocomial condition?

Answer 343

Contracted in the hospital

Question 344

What is it called when there’s elevated RBCs?

Answer 344

Polycythemia

Question 345

What color does the skin turn with polycythemia?

Answer 345

Pink

Question 346

What causes polycythemia?

Answer 346

Respiratory diseases, long term anemias, smoking, living in high altitudes

Question 347

What is the most common form of hemophilia?

Answer 347

Hemophilia A

Question 348

What causes hemophilia A?

Answer 348

A mutation in the gene for clotting factor 8

Question 349

Is hemophilia A X or Y linked?

Answer 349

X

Question 350

What is it called when there’s too much iron stored as ferritin?

Answer 350

Hemosiderosis

Question 351

What is the medical term for iron overload?

Answer 351

Hemochromatosis

Question 352

What causes iron overload?

Answer 352

Genetics, hemolytic anemia, liver disease

Question 353

What are symptoms of hemochromatosis?

Answer 353

Damage to liver, heart, and pancreas

Question 354

What can damage to the pancreas from hemochromatosis lead to?

Answer 354

Diabetes mellitus (loss of insulin production)

Question 355

What color might the skin turn in iron overload?

Answer 355

Bronze

Question 356

What is the condition where there’s a decrease in RBCs or hemoglobin, or an abnormal oxygen carrying capacity?

Answer 356

Anemia

Question 357

What type of anemia is from vitamin B12 deficiency?

Answer 357

Pernicious Anemia (PA)

Question 358

Symptoms of pernicious anemia?

Answer 358

Weakness, sore tongue, tingling extremities, neuropathy

Question 359

What causes folate deficiency anemia?

Answer 359

Diet, alcohol abuse, infection, and drugs

Question 360

What are the symptoms of folate deficiency anemia?

Answer 360

Weight loss, intense weakness, tingling, skin lesions, hepatic disease

Question 361

What % of adults have iron deficiency anemia?

Answer 361

10-30%

Question 362

What causes iron deficiency anemia?

Answer 362

Diet and hemorrhage

Question 363

What are symptoms of iron deficiency anemia?

Answer 363

Weakness, sore tongue

Question 364

Where does sickle cell anemia take place in the hemoglobin chain?

Answer 364

The #6 amino acid of the beta hemoglobin chain

Question 365

What type of mutation occurs in sickle cell anemia?

Answer 365

Point mutation

Question 366

What is point mutation?

Answer 366

Only one base pair on the gene is switched

Question 367

What base pair is mutated in sickle cell anemia?

Answer 367

Glutamate is replaced by valine

Question 368

What deforms the RBCs in sickle cell anemia?

Answer 368

Hemoglobin S (when O2 is low) forms long fibrous polymers which deform the RBCs

Question 369

What is a complication in sickle cell anemia where there is blockage of small blood vessels?

Answer 369

Vaso-occlusive crisis

Question 370

What happens in sickle cell disease?

Answer 370

Episodes of hypoxic injury (ischemia), and infarction or necrosis

Question 371

What is one beneficial(?) outcome for sickle cell patients?

Answer 371

They are less likely to get malaria as they create a cellular environment that is unwelcoming to the virus

Question 372

What is seen in chronic hemolytic anemia?

Answer 372

Seizure, stroke, pallor of skin

Question 373

What disease is similar to sickle cell anemia?

Answer 373

Thalassemia

Question 374

Where does alpha thalassemia occur?

Answer 374

Asian nations

Question 375

Where does beta thalassemia occur?

Answer 375

Mediterranean nations

Question 376

What are symptoms of thalassemia?

Answer 376

Edema, ascites, CHF, hepato/cardio/spelomegaly

Question 377

What is aplastic anemia?

Answer 377

The inability to synthesize blood cells in bone marrow

Question 378

What causes aplastic anemia?

Answer 378

Toxins/drugs, radiation sickness

Question 379

What type of anemia is “bleeding out”?

Answer 379

Hemorrhagic anemia

Question 380

What type of anemia is from RBC ruptures (hemolysis)?

Answer 380

Hemolytic anemia

Question 381

What can cause hemolytic anemia?

Answer 381

Transfusion miss-match, toxins/drugs, radiation

Question 382

What is the “kissing disease”?

Answer 382

Mononucleosis

Question 383

What causes mono?

Answer 383

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

Question 384

What are symptoms of mono?

Answer 384

Enlarged lymphocytes, lethargy sore throat

Question 385

What is lymphadenopathy?

Answer 385

Swollen lymph nodes, especially around the neck

Question 386

What happens in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

Answer 386

Widespread clotting, imminently life threatening

Question 387

What can cause DIC?

Answer 387

Septicemia, blood transfusion rejections

Question 388

What is erythroblastosis fetalis?

Answer 388

Hemolytic disease of the newborn, where the mother is Rh-, but the father and fetus are Rh+

Question 389

What happens in erythroblastosis fetalis?

Answer 389

The mother makes antibodies against Rh factor (which is in the baby’s blood)

Question 390

Is the fetus at risk in erythroblastosis fetalis?

Answer 390

No, as the antibodies are not formed for at least 6 weeks after exposure, which usually occurs during labor. It is the next fetus who is in danger

Question 391

What is the treatment for erythroblastosis fetalis?

Answer 391

Give the mother RhoGAM to prevent her immune system from attacking Rh+ cells

Question 392

What is leukemia?

Answer 392

Neoplasm of leukocytes, where there are increased #s and decreased immune function

Question 393

What causes leukemia?

Answer 393

Genetics, radiation, viruses, drugs

Question 394

How do you treat leukemia?

Answer 394

Chemo, bone marrow transplants, radiotherapy

Question 395

What is acute leukemia?

Answer 395

Undifferentiated cells never mature

Question 396

What is chronic leukemia?

Answer 396

Cells may mature, but remain dysfunctional

Question 397

Which form of leukemia has a poor prognosis?

Answer 397

Acute leukemia

Question 398

Which leukemia has a gradual onset of symptoms?

Answer 398

Chronic leukemia

Question 399

What is cachexia? When is it seen?

Answer 399

Wasting, as seen in acute leukemia

Question 400

Where does myelogenic leukemia come from?

Answer 400

Cells giving rise to neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils

Question 401

What causes myelogenic leukemia?

Answer 401

Large doses of radiation

Question 402

What type of leukemia can come from high doses of chemotherapy?

Answer 402

Acute myelogenic leukemia

Question 403

What age group is chronic myelogenic leukemia usually seen in?

Answer 403

Adults

Question 404

What age group is acute lymphoblastic leukemia usually seen in?

Answer 404

Pediatrics

Question 405

What are symptoms of acute lymphoblastic leukemia?

Answer 405

Splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, lymphadenopathy

Question 406

What type of leukemia specifically occurs in adults over 50?

Answer 406

Chronic lymphoblastic leukemia

Question 407

What is a myeloma?

Answer 407

Neoplasm of plasma cells in bone marrow, where you can seen tumors in bone

Question 408

What is the most common symptom of myelomas?

Answer 408

Bone pain

Question 409

What causes myelomas?

Answer 409

Bone resorption and hypercalcemia

Question 410

What is the cancer of lymphocytes in lymphatic tissues?

Answer 410

Lymphomas

Question 411

What are symptoms of lymphomas?

Answer 411

Enlarged lymphatic tissues, painless masses, fever, weight loss, night sweats, compromised immune system

Question 412

What type of lymphoma has a malignancy of mature B cells?

Answer 412

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Question 413

What are risk factors for Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

Answer 413

Epstein-Barr virus, genetics

Question 414

What % of lymphomas are non-Hodgkin’s?

Answer 414

90%

Question 415

What is malignant in non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

Answer 415

T or B lymphocytes

Question 416

What are risk factors for non-Hodgkin’s?

Answer 416

Autoimmune disorders, HIV, pesticides

Question 417

What a possible danger in non-Hodgkin’s?

Answer 417

Blood can become dangerously thickened/viscous

Question 418

What does the lymphatic system do?

Answer 418

Regulates fluid balance

Question 419

What % of ECM fluid do the lymphatic vessels take up?

Answer 419

10%

Question 420

Where do the lymphatic vessels return ECM to?

Answer 420

The blood stream

Question 421

What happens if lymphatic vessels are clogged?

Answer 421

Elephantiasis

Question 422

What is the largest lymphatic vessel collecting lymph from the body and returning it to the blood?

Answer 422

Thoracic duct

Question 423

Where does the thoracic duct return lymph via?

Answer 423

The left subclavian vein between the internal and external jugular veins

Question 424

What is lymph?

Answer 424

Lymphatic vessel fluid

Question 425

What are lymphoid tissues sites for?

Answer 425

Lymphocyte proliferation and maturation

Question 426

What do immune cells monitor for?

Answer 426

The presence of pathogens

Question 427

What are examples of lymphatic tissues?

Answer 427

Spleen, thymus, bone marrow, lymph nodes, tonsils

Question 428

What are diffuse lymphatic tissues?

Answer 428

Lymphatic tissues that are scattered throughout the body

Question 429

What are the principal lymphoid organs of the body?

Answer 429

Lymph nodes

Question 430

What do lymph nodes do?

Answer 430

Filter pathogens/infections in lymph that is being returned to the blood

Question 431

What are lymph nodes hooked up to?

Answer 431

Lymphatic vessels

Question 432

What are lymph nodes heavily populated by and why?

Answer 432

Macrophages that destroy and present antigens

Question 433

What do lymphocytes do in the lymph nodes?

Answer 433

Attack against antigens

Question 434

Do the lymph nodes recycle cells?

Answer 434

Yes

Question 435

What is the outer portion of the lymph node? What is the inner?

Answer 435

Outer: cortex
Inner: medulla

Question 436

What does the outer portion of the cortex contain?

Answer 436

Lymphoid follicles (round nodules)

Question 437

What does the outer portion of the lymphoid follicle contain?

Answer 437

T Lymphocytes

Question 438

What does the inner portion of the lymphoid follicle contain?

Answer 438

B lymphocytes, which become plasma cells that produce antibodies

Question 439

What do T lymphocytes do?

Answer 439

Process antigens/pathogens, microbes

Question 440

What is the inner portion of the lymphoid follicle called?

Answer 440

Germinal centers

Question 441

What does the medulla contain in lymph nodes?

Answer 441

B and T lymphocytes and plasma cells

Question 442

What are lymphatic tissues found in the walls of intestines (ex. protecting the body from pathogens that enter the body by mouth)

Answer 442

Peyer’s patches

Question 443

What is vermiform appendix?

Answer 443

An organ that is attached to the beginning of the colon that has abundant diffuse lymphatic tissues in its walls

Question 444

What is a major site for lymphocyte proliferation?

Answer 444

Spleen

Question 445

What is a major site for removal of dead/dying RBCs and WBCs?

Answer 445

Spleen

Question 446

What is the largest lymphoid organ?

Answer 446

Spleen

Question 447

What lymphatic structure is found in children, but regresses in adults?

Answer 447

Thymus

Question 448

What is the thymus important for?

Answer 448

Developing T Lymphocytes

Question 449

What tonsils are on either side of the posterior oral cavity?

Answer 449

Palatine tonsils

Question 450

Which are the largest tonsils that are most often infected?

Answer 450

Palatine tonsils

Question 451

What tonsils are at the base of the tongue?

Answer 451

Lingual tonsils

Question 452

What tonsils are at the posterior wall of the nasopharynx?

Answer 452

Pharyngeal tonsils

Question 453

What are the pharyngeal tonsils also known as?

Answer 453

Adenoids

Question 454

What does “Per Os”, or “per ostium” mean?

Answer 454

By mouth

Question 455

Do water soluble substances cross membranes easily?

Answer 455

No

Question 456

Do lipid soluble substances cross membranes easily?

Answer 456

Yes

Question 457

Where do both water soluble and lipid soluble substances start in their journey?

Answer 457

Intestines

Question 458

Where does water soluble substances go from the intestines?

Answer 458

Intestinal veins

Question 459

Where do lipid soluble substances go from the intestines?

Answer 459

Intestinal lacteals (lymphatics)

Question 460

What vein does the intestinal veins carry water soluble substances to?

Answer 460

Superior mesenteric vein

Question 461

Where do lipid soluble substances go from intestinal lacteals/lymphatics?

Answer 461

Thoracic duct

Question 462

What is the main lymphatic vessel?

Answer 462

Thoracic duct

Question 463

Where do water solubles go from superior mesenteric vein?

Answer 463

Hepatoportal vein (to the liver)

Question 464

Where do fat solubles go from the thoracic duct?

Answer 464

Left subclavian vein

Question 465

Where is the left subclavian vein? (What is it in between)

Answer 465

In between the external and internal jugular veins

Question 466

What in the liver detoxes water solubles?

Answer 466

Hepatic sinusoids

Question 467

What percent do hepatic sinusoids detox on first pass?

Answer 467

80-90%

Question 468

What compounds bypass the liver’s detox system on “first pass”?

Answer 468

Lipid/fat solubles

Question 469

Where do water solubles go from the hepatic sinusoids?

Answer 469

Central vein

Question 470

Where do water solubles go from the central vein?

Answer 470

Hepatic vein

Question 471

Where do water solubles go from the hepatic vein?

Answer 471

Inferior vena cava (then back into general circulation)

Question 472

Which immune system are you born with?

Answer 472

Nonspecific, or innate

Question 473

What is the first line of defense?

Answer 473

External or anatomical barriers

Question 474

What are examples of external barriers?

Answer 474

Skin, mucus, oil, sweat, tears, sloughed cells, saliva, wax, urine, gastric acid

Question 475

What is an enzyme in mucus, tears, and saliva that kills bacteria?

Answer 475

Lysozome

Question 476

What is the second line of defense?

Answer 476

Inflammation, fever, and cells getting to work

Question 477

What are leukocytes that phagocytize foreign materials including pathogens?

Answer 477

Phagocytes

Question 478

Which phagocytes contain bacteria-killing enzymes which make highly reactive Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS) or free radicals?

Answer 478

Neutrophils

Question 479

What are ROS or free radicals called?

Answer 479

Superoxide radicals

Question 480

What do superoxide radicals form?

Answer 480

Hydrogen peroxide

Question 481

What are proteins produced by neutrophils that digest holes in the membranes of microbes?

Answer 481

Defensins

Question 482

What phagocytes fight allergens and parasitic worms?

Answer 482

Eosinophils

Question 483

What do basophils release?

Answer 483

Heparin and histamine

Question 484

What does histamine do?

Answer 484

In response to allergens, causes allergic reactions

Question 485

What does heparin do?

Answer 485

Prevents clotting (anticoagulant)

Question 486

What are non-phagocytic lymphocytes that destroy our cells that become cancerous or contain viruses?

Answer 486

Natural killer (NK) cells

Question 487

What are enzymes that digest holes in cell membranes and cell walls of microbes? (As seen in NK cells)

Answer 487

Perforins

Question 488

What is genetically programmed cell death called?

Answer 488

Apoptosis

Question 489

When does apoptosis occur?

Answer 489

Cell completes its function
Mutations make dysfunction or cancer
Cell is stressed
Cell is infected

Question 490

What do monocytes do in the 2nd line of defense?

Answer 490

Become macrophages (powerful phagocytes)

Question 491

What cells roam looking for potentially dangerous antigens, then present them to the rest of the immune system for processing?

Answer 491

Monocytes

Question 492

What are macrophages of the liver?

Answer 492

Kupfer cells

Question 493

What cells are similar to macrophages, that are found throughout the body where there are external or internal surfaces?

Answer 493

Dendritic cells

Question 494

Where might you find dendritic cells?

Answer 494

Skin, mucosa of nose, lungs, stomach, intestines

Question 495

What do dendritic cells do?

Answer 495

Reach out from the protection of tissues to sample the surface for potential threats and present them to the rest of the immune system for processing

Question 496

What cells are newly described, similar to helper T, cytotoxic T, and NK cells?

Answer 496

Innate lymphoid cells

Question 497

What do innate lymphoid cells have an important role in?

Answer 497

Inflammation

Question 498

What can dysregulation of innate lymphoid cells do?

Answer 498

Cause allergies, asthma, and autoimmune diseases

Question 499

What cells regulate adipose function and metabolic homeostasis?

Answer 499

Innate lymphoid cells

Question 500

What are innate lymphoid cells classified based on?

Answer 500

Cytokine release (hormones) and transcription factors that control their development

Question 501

What is the process where a phagocyte engulfs particles such as cells?

Answer 501

Phagocytosis

Question 502

What is the organelle that is made when podocytes surround a particle and wrap it up in the cell membrane? (“undigested food”)

Answer 502

Phagosome

Question 503

What organelle is the cell’s digestive system?

Answer 503

Phagosomes

Question 504

What is the digestive hydrolytic enzymes in phagosomes?

Answer 504

Lysosome

Question 505

What is a phagosome fused with lysosome called?

Answer 505

Phagolysosome

Question 506

What is an organelle containing the undigested remains from phagocytosis called?

Answer 506

Residual bodies

Question 507

What is the process where the undigested remains are expelled from the cell?

Answer 507

Exocytosis

Question 508

What are toxic chemicals made by phagosomes with extra unpaired electrons that can destroy microbes and our own cells?

Answer 508

Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS) or free radicals

Question 509

What can ROS’s destroy?

Answer 509

Microbes as well as our own cells and tissues

Question 510

What is a reactive compound produced by our cells to combat pathogens?

Answer 510

H2O2

Question 511

Is H2O2 safe?

Answer 511

No, it is potentially damaging to cells and tissues so it must be broken down

Question 512

What enzymes break down H2O2 into water?

Answer 512

Peroxidase and catalase

Question 513

What enzyme breaks down the superoxide radical (ROS)?

Answer 513

Superoxide dismutase

Question 514

Where does superoxide dismutase get released from?

Answer 514

Neutrophils

Question 515

What turn ROS into H2O2?

Answer 515

Superoxide dismutase

Question 516

What turns H2O2 into water?

Answer 516

Peroxidase or catalase

Question 517

What movement is involved in inflammation?

Answer 517

Diapedesis

Question 518

What is the chemical attraction of WBC to various areas they are needed (such as inflammation, infected areas)?

Answer 518

Chemotaxis

Question 519

What produced by basophils can cause inflammation?

Answer 519

Bradykinin

Question 520

What isolates pathogens with an extravascular “clot” and cause inflammation?

Answer 520

Clotting proteins

Question 521

What hormone proteins regulate immune responses (and inflam.)?

Answer 521

Cytokines

Question 522

What cytokines from macrophages and lymphocytes stimulate many leukocyte immune responses?

Answer 522

Interleukins

Question 523

What cytokines are from anti-viral and anti-cancer compounds?

Answer 523

Interferons

Question 524

What are a series of proteins that destroy any pathogen marked by antibodies (and can sometimes attack pathogens without the antibodies)?

Answer 524

Complement

Question 525

What is released from basophils and mast cells that prevents blood clost?

Answer 525

Heparin

Question 526

Why is heparin released to prevent blood clots?

Answer 526

So WBCs can get to the area

Question 527

What is released from basophils and mast cells that cause inflam?

Answer 527

Histamine and leukotrienes

Question 528

What are active fatty acids from damaged cells that are hormone like?

Answer 528

Prostaglandins

Question 529

What produces prostaglandins?

Answer 529

An enzyme called cyclooxygenase

Question 530

What can inhibit cyclooxgenase?

Answer 530

NSAIDs

Question 531

What causes most headaches, uterine contractions, menstrual pain, etc?

Answer 531

Prostaglandins

Question 532

Do ROS and free radicals have a role in inflammation?

Answer 532

Yes

Question 533

What are characteristics of inflammation?

Answer 533

Redness, swelling, heat, pain

Question 534

What is leukocytosis?

Answer 534

An increase in the number of WBCs

Question 535

What does purulent/suppurative mean?

Answer 535

The condition of having pus

Question 536

Does pus indicate inflammation and infection?

Answer 536

Yes

Question 537

What causes vasodilation in inflammation?

Answer 537

Bradykinins, histamine, leukotrienes

Question 538

What is hyperemia?

Answer 538

Increased blood flow to the damaged area caused by vasodilation

Question 539

What can vasodilation cause?

Answer 539

Erythema or redness

Question 540

What can increased capillary permeability cause due to the fluid leaking from blood vessels to the ECM?

Answer 540

Edema or swelling

Question 541

What is exudate?

Answer 541

Fluid of edema or edematous fluid

Question 542

What type of exudate is a thick and gooey fluid composed of pus?

Answer 542

Purulent or suppurative exudate

Question 543

What is pus?

Answer 543

Cellular and microbial debris

Question 544

What type of exudate is thick and gooey and contains blood?

Answer 544

Hemorrhagic exudate

Question 545

What type of exudate is thick and gooey and contains fibrin or fibinogen?

Answer 545

Fibrous exudate

Question 546

What type of exudate is thin and watery, as in a blister?

Answer 546

Transudate or serous exudate

Question 547

What is urticaria?

Answer 547

Raised rash caused by histamine, as seen in jellyfish stings

Question 548

What is Pruritis?

Answer 548

Itching caused by histamine

Question 549

What causes increased mucus production?

Answer 549

Histamine

Question 550

What causes the pain in inflammation?

Answer 550

Bradykinin, histamine, prostaglandins

Question 551

What is febrile or pyrexia?

Answer 551

Having a fever caused by interleukin-1

Question 552

What is a pyrogen?

Answer 552

A compound that causes a fever

Question 553

Is interleukin-1 a pyrogen?

Answer 553

Yes

Question 554

Are cytokine storm and cytokine release syndrome life-threatening?

Answer 554

Yes

Question 555

What levels are elevated in cytokine storm?

Answer 555

Inflammatory cytokines and immune-cell hyperactivation

Question 556

What triggers cytokine storm?

Answer 556

Therapies, pathogens, cancer, autoimmune conditions, influenza, COVID

Question 557

What are symptoms of cytokine storm?

Answer 557

Cytokine induced tissue damage and multiple organ failure

Question 558

How do NSAIDs treat inflammation?

Answer 558

Reduce prostaglandins by inhibiting cyclooxygenase

Question 559

What are ibuprofen, aspirin, naproxen, and indomethacin examples of?

Answer 559

NSAIDs

Question 560

Is acetaminophen an NSAID?

Answer 560

No

Question 561

What are SAIDs?

Answer 561

Steroidal anti-a=inflammatory drugs

Question 562

How do SAIDs treat inflam?

Answer 562

Prevent lysosomes of WBCs from releasing enzymes

Question 563

How do decongestants treat inflammation?

Answer 563

Cause vasoconstriction (like epi or norepi) allowing lymphatic drainage to reduce swelling

Question 564

How do anti-histamines treat inflam?

Answer 564

Prevent the effects of histamines

Question 565

What is the immune system you are NOT born with?

Answer 565

Specific or adaptive immune system

Question 566

What is the third line of defense?

Answer 566

Specific or adaptive immune system

Question 567

What is the specific or adaptive immune system composed of?

Answer 567

Cells and antibodies (humoral immunity) and various T lymphocyte functions (cellular immunity)

Question 568

What is an antigen?

Answer 568

Foreign compounds that (usually) promote an immune response
They are “non self”

Question 569

What is an epitope or antigenic determinants?

Answer 569

The part of an antigen that stimulates the immune response

Question 570

Can an antigen have multiple epitopes?

Answer 570

Yes!

Question 571

What is hapten?

Answer 571

Not an antigenic by themselves, but when combined with other proteins, they become antigenic

Question 572

What are examples of hapten?

Answer 572

Penicillin, poison ivy, monosodium glutamate, animal dander

Question 573

What part of an antigen is presented to the MHC?

Answer 573

Epitopes or antigenic determinants

Question 574

Are antigen presenting cells innate or adaptive or both?

Answer 574

Both!
Macrophages and dendritic cells are innate
B lymphocytes are adaptive

Question 575

Where do antigen presenting cells present the partially digested antigen to?

Answer 575

The cell membrane so the whole rest of the immune system can see it

Question 576

What are major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and Human leukocyte antigens (HLA)?

Answer 576

Proteins on the cell membrane of the antigen presenting cells that help present the antigen and identify self vs non-self

Question 577

What do APCs phagocytize?

Answer 577

Antigens

Question 578

When APCs place part of the antigen on the membrane with the MHCs, what do they show it to?

Answer 578

Helper T lymphocytes

Question 579

Which MHC is found on every nucleated cell in the body and platelets?

Answer 579

MHC-1

Question 580

Which MHC presents intracellular or endogenous antigens?

Answer 580

MHC-1

Question 581

What are viruses and “neoantigens” produced by mutations in cancer cells examples of?

Answer 581

Endogenous antigens

Question 582

What cells recognize MHC-1?

Answer 582

CD8 cells (Cytotoxic T lymphocytes)

Question 583

Which MHC is found on APCs?

Answer 583

MHC-2

Question 584

Which MHC presents extracellular or exogenous antigens?

Answer 584

MHC-2

Question 585

What cells recognize MHC-2?

Answer 585

CD4 cells (Helper T lymphocytes)

Question 586

What do CD4 and CD8 refer to?

Answer 586

The type of receptor protein that can bind to or recognize the MHC

Question 587

Which T lymphocytes are involved in “specific resistance”?

Answer 587

Helper T lymphocytes CD4 cells

Question 588

What do the Helper T lymphocytes do once they’re “taught” the bad guy’s identity by the APC?

Answer 588

The Helper T clones itself thousands of times carrying the bad guy’s identity

Question 589

What is triggered when CD4 binds to the MHC-2 protein on an APC?

Answer 589

The CD4 triggers apoptosis to kill the infected cell

Question 590

What do cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CD8 cells) do once told be helper T cell the antigen’s identity?

Answer 590

They “seek and destroy” the antigen by docking with diseased cells and injecting lethal chemicals

Question 591

What do these chemicals released by cytotoxic T lymphocytes do?
Perforins

Answer 591

Punch holes in microbes

Question 592

What do these chemicals released by cytotoxic T lymphocytes do?
Lymphotoxin

Answer 592

Destroys the foreign target cell’s DNA

Question 593

What do these chemicals released by cytotoxic T lymphocytes do?
Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

Answer 593

Destroys cancer cells

Question 594

What do these chemicals released by cytotoxic T lymphocytes do?
Interferon

Answer 594

Works against viruses

Question 595

What do these chemicals released by cytotoxic T lymphocytes do?
Interleukins

Answer 595

Induces fever

Question 596

What T lymphocytes are the “cheerleaders” that keep the system activated/fired up as long as the threat remains?

Answer 596

Inducer T lymphocytes

Question 597

What T lymphocytes turn the immune system OFF from the specific threat?

Answer 597

Regulator or suppressor T lymphocytes (T regs)

Question 598

What cells remember the identification of the antigen in case of future exposures and allow for a faster response? (Often before the patient feels sick!)

Answer 598

Memory cells

Question 599

What lymphocytes mature to become plasma cells that produce antibodies?

Answer 599

B lymphocytes

Question 600

What is the humoral immune response tasked with?

Answer 600

The production of antibodies

Question 601

Which antibody (immunoglobulin) is: found in secretions (milk, tears, sweat, etc.)

Answer 601

IgA

Question 602

Which antibody (immunoglobulin) is:
B cell receptors that bind to antigens…Lower concentrations found

Answer 602

IgD

Question 603

Which antibody (immunoglobulin) is:
Found in tonsils, skin, mucus membranes?

Answer 603

IgE

Question 604

Which antibody (immunoglobulin) causes basophils and mast cells to release histamine to cause an allergic reaction?

Answer 604

IgE

Question 605

Which antibody (immunoglobulin) is:
The first antibodies produced against pathogens and will be replaced by the IgG’s?

Answer 605

IgM

Question 606

Which antibody (immunoglobulin) is: the most abundant antibodies, the only antibodies that cross the placenta to bring mom’s immunity to the fetus and stimulates complement when bound to antigens?

Answer 606

IgG

Question 607

What is the marking of an antigen for destruction by the immune system called?

Answer 607

Opsonization

Question 608

What antibodies attach to pathogen, what destroys it?

Answer 608

Complement

Question 609

What is a tissue transfer within the same individual called?

Answer 609

Autograft/autotransplant

Question 610

What is a tissue transfer to an identical twin?

Answer 610

Isograft

Question 611

What is a tissue transfer to the same species?

Answer 611

Allograft/homograft

Question 612

What is a tissue transfer to different species?

Answer 612

Xenograft/heterograft

Question 613

Do isografts with identical twins usually have rejections?

Answer 613

No

Question 614

Do allografts with fraternal twins have rejections?

Answer 614

Sometimes, if the tissues are not matched

Question 615

What are drugs that lower the immune system to lower the risk of rejection of tissue transplant?

Answer 615

Immuno-supressants

Question 616

What is hypersensitivity in regards to the immune system?

Answer 616

A harmful immune reaction to antigens that do not usually cause this sort of reaction

Question 617

What happens in allergic reactions?

Answer 617

T lymphocytes cause B lymphocytes to produce IgEs, which cause mast cells and basophils to release histamine (and cause an allergic reaction)

Question 618

What is anaphylaxis?

Answer 618

Very fast and severe systemic reaction with swelling, mucus, bronchodilation, dyspnea, possible sudden death with heart attack

Question 619

What can treat anaphylaxis?

Answer 619

Epinephrine (adrenalin) injections

Question 620

What is delayed hypersensitivity?

Answer 620

Takes 12-72 hours to have a harmful immune reaction

Question 621

When might you see delayed hypersensitivity?

Answer 621

Poison ivy, transplant rejections

Question 622

What is the most common chronic illness of children?

Answer 622

Asthma

Question 623

What causes asthma?

Answer 623

Allergens cause plasma cells to produce IgEs, stimulating the mast cells to produce histamine

Question 624

Which disease is seen in children with severely suppressed immune systems (bubble boy)

Answer 624

Severe combined immunodeficiency disease

Question 625

What disease comes from a loss of helper T cells that results in a loss of immune system and death by opportunistic diseases?

Answer 625

AIDS

Question 626

What is a cancer of B lymphocytes resulting in immuno-compromised patients?

Answer 626

Hodgkin’s disease (lymphoma)

Question 627

How many types of autoimmune diseases are there?

Answer 627

Over 80

Question 628

Which autoimmune disease has:
antibodies against the ach receptors at the NMJ?

Answer 628

Myasthenia Gravis

Question 629

What type of paralysis is seen in Myasthenia Gravis?

Answer 629

Flaccid paralysis

Question 630

Which autoimmune disease has:
Antibodies against DNA/RNA and can effect many cell types

Answer 630

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Question 631

Which autoimmune disease has:
antibodies against the myelin sheath destroying neurons

Answer 631

Multiple sclerosis

Question 632

Which autoimmune disease has:
Antibodies against the joint cartilages

Answer 632

Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 633

Which autoimmune disease has:
Hyperthyroidism

Answer 633

Graves disease

Question 634

Which autoimmune disease has:
Antibodies against beta cells that make insulin?

Answer 634

Diabetes mellitus type 1

Question 635

Which autoimmune disease has:
Antibodies against insulin receptors, therefore, insulin resistant

Answer 635

Diabetes mellitus type 2

Question 636

Which autoimmune disease has:
Chronic inflammation of small and large intestines

Answer 636

Inflammatory bowel diseases

Question 637

Which autoimmune disease has:
Reaction to gluten

Answer 637

Celiac disease

Question 638

What is the respiratory system lined with all the way down to the terminal bronchioles?

Answer 638

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

Question 639

Does gas exchange occur with Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epi?

Answer 639

Nope

Question 640

What part of the respiratory tract contains the: nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea down to vocal folds

Answer 640

Upper respiratory tract

Question 641

What is the purpose of the upper respiratory tract?

Answer 641

Warm and moisten air, filter, olfaction, vocalization

Question 642

What part of the respiratory tract contains vocal folds to alveoli?

Answer 642

Lower respiratory tract

Question 643

What are the respiratory bronchioles to the alveoli lined with and why?

Answer 643

Simple squamous epi for gas exchange

Question 644

How do lungs: gas exhange

Answer 644

O2 in CO2 out

Question 645

Where does gas exchange occur in the lungs?

Answer 645

Respiratory bronchioles and alveoli

Question 646

How do lungs: buffer

Answer 646

lungs help regulate pH

Question 647

How do lungs: participate in the endocrine system

Answer 647

Produces angiotensin 2

Question 648

How do lungs: participate in allergic reactions?

Answer 648

Mast cells, like basophils, release histamine to cause reactions and asthma

Question 649

What are the phagocytic cells of the lungs?

Answer 649

Macrophages

Question 650

How big are alveoli?

Answer 650

0.2-0.5mm diameter
70m2 surface area

Question 651

What are type 1 cells in the lungs made of, %, and function?

Answer 651

Simple squamous, 95%, make up the walls

Question 652

What are type 2 cells in the lungs made of, %, and function?

Answer 652

Cuboidal, 5% of alveolar cells, produce surfactant

Question 653

What does surfactant do?

Answer 653

Reduces surface tension of water making it easier to inhale

Question 654

What are all the pleura made of?

Answer 654

Simple squamous epi

Question 655

Which pleura: lines the thoracic wall

Answer 655

Parietal pleura

Question 656

Which pleura: adheres to the lungs

Answer 656

Visceral pleura

Question 657

What is the space between two pleura?

Answer 657

Pleural cavity

Question 658

What kind of pressure in the pleural cavity allows you to inhale?

Answer 658

Negative pressure

Question 659

What is intrapulmonary pressure?

Answer 659

Pressure in the alveoli, close to atmospheric pressure

Question 660

What is intrapleural pressure?

Answer 660

Pressure within the pleural cavity

Question 661

Which is lower:
Intrapulmonary pressure or intrapleural pressure?

Answer 661

Intrapleural pressure is ALWAYS lower than intrapulmonary

Question 662

What is Boyle’s law?

Answer 662

With a constant temperature, volume and pressure vary inversely

Question 663

With Boyle’s law: if you increase volume, like when the diaphragm drops as it contracts, what does this do to pressure?

Answer 663

Pressure decreases

Question 664

Where does AP travel down in inhalation/exhalation?

Answer 664

Phrenic nerve

Question 665

When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls downwards to _____ volume of intrapleural space, causing a ____ in its pressure

Answer 665

When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls downwards to INCREASE volume of intrapleural space, causing a DROP in its pressure

Question 666

What is the major inspiratory muscle at rest?

Answer 666

The diaphragm

Question 667

What is quiet breathing?

Answer 667

Exhalation at rest, accomplished passively (no muscles work, the lungs just collapse)

Question 668

When are accessory muscles required for inhalation/exhalation?

Answer 668

Forced breathing (like during exercise)

Question 669

What is 1 atmosphere of pressure at sea level?

Answer 669

760 mm Hg

Question 670

With intrapulmonary or alveolar pressure, inspiration and expiration pressure changes are what?

Answer 670

Inspiration: -1 mm Hg
Exhalation: +1 mm Hg

Question 671

With Intrapleural pressure, inspiration and expiration pressure changes are what?

Answer 671

Inspiration: -6 mm Hg
Exhalation: -3 mm Hg

Question 672

Which is lower, especially during inspiration: intrapleural pressure or intrapulmonary pressure?

Answer 672

Intrapleural pressure is LOWER

Question 673

What does the volume of breath represent?

Answer 673

Tidal volume

Question 674

How thick is the respiratory membrane?

Answer 674

0.5 µm

Question 675

What is the combined surface area of the respiratory membrane’s capillaries?

Answer 675

100 m2

Question 676

What is the first layer of the respiratory membrane (closest to alveolus)?

Answer 676

Fluid lining alveoli

Question 677

What layer after the fluid lining alveoli?

Answer 677

Epithelium for alveoli (simple squamous)

Question 678

What layer after the epithelium?

Answer 678

Basement membrane for alveolar epi

Question 679

What layer after the basement membrane for alveolar epi?

Answer 679

Interstitum

Question 680

Is the interstitium thick or thin? What is it made out of?

Answer 680

Thin connective tissue

Question 681

What layer after the interstitium?

Answer 681

Basement membrane for capillary endothelium

Question 682

What layer after the basement membrane for the capillary endothelium?

Answer 682

Capillary endothelium

Question 683

What is the capillary endothelium made out of?

Answer 683

Simple squamous epi

Question 684

How much blood do the capillaries contain?

Answer 684

120 mL

Question 685

What happens if you decrease the # of capillaries in the lungs due to diseases such as cancer and emphysema?

Answer 685

You decrease the body’s ability to get O2 in and CO2 out

Question 686

What is the systemic circulatory system?

Answer 686

Sends blood from lungs to body and back

Question 687

What is the pulmonary circulatory system?

Answer 687

Blood enters the lungs to pick up O2 and release CO2, then back out to the systemic system

Question 688

What is the bronchial circulatory system?

Answer 688

Provides oxygenated blood to the tissues of the lungs

Question 689

Where does the bronchial circulatory system get blood from and return blood to?

Answer 689

Feeds from the aorta and returns blood to the pulmonary veins

Question 690

What proportion of collapsing forces is the elastic forces of the lungs?

Answer 690

1/3

Question 691

What proportion of the collapsing forces is the surface tension of water?

Answer 691

2/3

Question 692

What does the “collapsing forces of the lungs” mean?

Answer 692

What allows exhalation/expiration

Question 693

What does the inflating forces of the lungs mean?

Answer 693

Allows inhalation/inspiration

Question 694

Is surfactant like a detergent?

Answer 694

Yes

Question 695

What creates negative intrapleural pressure?

Answer 695

The contraction of the diaphragm and creating reduced intrapleural pressure

Question 696

What innervates the diaphragm?

Answer 696

The phrenic nerve

Question 697

What is measuring volumes and capacities via pulmonary function tests to see how the lungs are working?

Answer 697

Spirometry

Question 698

What is the tidal volume?

Answer 698

Amount in or out in 1 normal breath

Question 699

What is normal tidal volume?

Answer 699

500 mL

Question 700

What is inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)?

Answer 700

Max amount inhaled beyond tidal

Question 701

What is expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?

Answer 701

Max amount exhaled beyond tidal

Question 702

What is residual volume (RV)?

Answer 702

Amount in lungs after max exhalation

Question 703

What are respiratory capacities?

Answer 703

Two or more volumes combined

Question 704

What is vital capacity?

Answer 704

Max amount exhaled after max inhalation

Question 705

What is a normal vital capacity?

Answer 705

4800 mL

Question 706

What is inspiratory capacity?

Answer 706

Tidal + IRV (max amount inhaled after tidal expiration)

Question 707

What is functional residual capacity (FRC)?

Answer 707

Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume

Question 708

What is a normal total lung capacity?

Answer 708

6,000 mL

Question 709

What can increases in total lung capacity, functional residual capacity, and residual volume be cased by?

Answer 709

Hyperinflation due to chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases

Question 710

Tidal volume amount?

Answer 710

500 mL

Question 711

What is the respiratory or ventilation rate for adults?

Answer 711

12-18 breaths per minute

Question 712

What is the respiratory or ventilation rate for infants?

Answer 712

40-80 breaths per minute

Question 713

What is minute ventilation?

Answer 713

Amount air inhaled per minute

Question 714

What does minute ventilation determine?

Answer 714

Alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)

Question 715

What is forced vital capacity (FVC)?

Answer 715

Taking a deep breath, and forcibly exhaling maximally as much as possible

Question 716

What kind of forced vital capacity suggests restricted breathing?

Answer 716

Normal FVC at first, then low values

Question 717

What do low values of forced vital capacity indicate?

Answer 717

Obstructive disease

Question 718

What is forced expiratory volume?

Answer 718

% of vital capacity exhaled in 1 second

Question 719

What is normal forced expiratory volume?

Answer 719

75-85%

Question 720

What is the forced expiratory ratio?

Answer 720

(Forced Expiratory Volume/Forced Vital Capacity) x 100

Question 721

How do you calculate alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)?

Answer 721

Tidal volume - dead space

Question 722

What does alveolar ventilation rate indicate?

Answer 722

Ventilation effectiveness

Question 723

What is a normal alveolar ventilation rate?

Answer 723

4,200 mL/min

Question 724

What increases alveolar ventilation rate most efficiently: increasing volume or increasing rate?

Answer 724

Increasing VOLUME increases AVR more efficiently

Question 725

What demonstrates a marked decrease in alveolar ventilation rate?

Answer 725

Rapid, shallow breathing

Question 726

What is dead air/space?

Answer 726

Areas where no gas exchange occurs

Question 727

How much anatomical dead space is there?

Answer 727

~150 mL

Question 728

What is anatomical dead space lined with?

Answer 728

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epi

Question 729

What is alveolar air?

Answer 729

Air that makes it to the alveoli for gas exhange

Question 730

How much air is alveolar? (Tidal - dead air = __)

Answer 730

500 mL - 150 mL = 350 mL alveolar

Question 731

What is alveolar dead space?

Answer 731

Physiological or function dead air space if the alveoli are clogged by mucus etc.

Question 732

What is Dalton’s law of partial pressure?

Answer 732

In a mix of gases, each gas contributes to total pressure or total pressure of mixture (sum = partial pressures of all gases)

Question 733

Amount of N2 in atmosphere?

Answer 733

78.6%

Question 734

Amount of O2 in atmo?

Answer 734

20.9%

Question 735

Amount of water in atmo?

Answer 735

0.46%

Question 736

Amount of CO2 in atmo?

Answer 736

0.04%

Question 737

What do higher levels of O2 increase the risk of?

Answer 737

Fire and explosion

Question 738

When do you see the first signs of hypoxia?

Answer 738

15-19% O2

Question 739

What % O2 do you see with exertion, associated with impaired coordination and judgement?

Answer 739

12-14%

Question 740

What % of O2 do you have abnormal fatigue and signs of cyanosis?

Answer 740

10-12%

Question 741

What % O2 will you lose consciousness without warning?

Answer 741

<12%

Question 742

What % O2 will you have mental failure?

Answer 742

8-10%

Question 743

What % O2 will you be unable to move, have a coma in 40 seconds, convulsions, and death?

Answer 743

<10%

Question 744

What is ventilation?

Answer 744

The amount of gas reaching the alveoli

Question 745

What is perfusion?

Answer 745

The amount of blood flow in the pulmonary capillaries

Question 746

What is autoregulation of vessel diameter?

Answer 746

Lungs are able to adjust their perfusion themselves

Question 747

What will the lungs do if ventilation is low (less O2, hypoxic conditions)?

Answer 747

Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction

Question 748

If ventilation is low because of a pathology like emphysema, will arterioles constrict or dilate?

Answer 748

Constrict

Question 749

What will bronchioles do if CO2 is high? (How does it autoregulate)?

Answer 749

Bronchioles dilate to help eliminate CO2

Question 750

If low O2 and high CO2, what will the veins and bronchioles do?

Answer 750

Vasoconstriction
Bronchodilation

Question 751

What % of O2 is carried by hemoglobin?

Answer 751

98.5%

Question 752

What % of O2 is dissolved in plasma?

Answer 752

1.5%

Question 753

What % CO2 is carried by hemoglobin?

Answer 753

20%

Question 754

What % CO2 is dissolved in plasma?

Answer 754

7-10%

Question 755

What is the hemoglobin that carries CO2 called?

Answer 755

Carbaminohemoglobin

Question 756

How much CO2 is found in the form of carbonic acid or bicarbonate ions?

Answer 756

70%

Question 757

What enzymes cause CO2 to bind with H2O and is found in the erythrocytes and kidney tubules?

Answer 757

Carbonic anhydrase

Question 758

What is the chloride shift in TISSUES?

Answer 758

In the tissues, bicarb is exchanged for a chloride ion (Bicarb into plasma, Cl into RBC)

Question 759

What is the chloride shift in LUNGS?

Answer 759

In the lungs, bicarb is exchanged for a chloride ion (Bicarb into RBC, Cl back out to be exchanged into CO2 and H2O and to be dumped by lungs)

Question 760

What is Haldane effect?

Answer 760

O2 displaces CO2 from hemoglobin. The higher the PO2, the more O2 on hemoglobin, the less CO2 carried by hemoglobin

Question 761

What do you want in the lungs: more O2 on hemoglobin or CO2?

Answer 761

More O2, so release CO2

Question 762

What is the Bohr effect?

Answer 762

The more CO2 and H+, the less O2 carried by hemoglobin

Question 763

How does the Bohr effect relate to tissues?

Answer 763

In the tissues where there is more CO2 and H+, hemoglobin is more likely to release O2

Question 764

If O2 is influencing CO2 and H+, what effect is it?

Answer 764

Haldane

Question 765

If CO2 and H+ are influencing O2, what effect is it?

Answer 765

Bohr

Question 766

Does this condition cause hemoglobin to pick up/bind to O2?
Lungs: lower H+

Answer 766

PICK UP O2

Question 767

Does this condition cause hemoglobin to pick up/bind to O2?
Lungs: lower CO2

Answer 767

PICK UP O2

Question 768

Does this condition cause hemoglobin to pick up/bind to O2?
Lungs: lower temperature

Answer 768

PICK UP O2

Question 769

Does this condition cause hemoglobin to pick up/bind to O2?
Lungs: lower DPG or BPG)

Answer 769

PICK UP O2

Question 770

Does this condition cause hemoglobin to pick up/bind to O2?
In the fetus: higher levels of fetal hemoglobin

Answer 770

PICK UP O2 from mom

Question 771

Does this condition cause hemoglobin to release O2?
Tissues: higher H+

Answer 771

RELEASE O2

Question 772

Does this condition cause hemoglobin to release O2?
Tissues: higher CO2

Answer 772

RELEASE O2

Question 773

Does this condition cause hemoglobin to release O2?
Tissues: higher temperature

Answer 773

RELEASE O2

Question 774

Does this condition cause hemoglobin to release O2?
Tissues: DPG or BPG

Answer 774

RELEASE O2

Question 775

What causes the lungs to have hemoglobin RELEASE O2 rather than bind to it?

Answer 775

Smoking, lung diseases

Question 776

At the lungs the hemoglobin will be saturated at what %?

Answer 776

97%

Question 777

Once O2 is released in the tissues, hemoglobin returns to the heart/lungs in veins, but at rest it is about ___% saturated

Answer 777

75%

Question 778

What % of O2 is released to the tissues at rest?

Answer 778

22% (97%-75%)

Question 779

What does 22% O2 equate to in mL?

Answer 779

5 mL O2 per dL plasma

Question 780

What is the O2 still on the hemoglobin reserved for/what can triple the amount of O2 released?

Answer 780

Exercise

Question 781

What can exercise bring the O2 released level to?

Answer 781

66% or 15 mL O2/dL plasma

Question 782

What stimulates inhaling at rest?

Answer 782

Dorsal respiratory group (DRG)

Question 783

What stimulates forced inhalation and exhalation during exercise/forced respiration?

Answer 783

Ventral respiratory group (VRG)

Question 784

Where are the dorsal and ventral respiratory groups?

Answer 784

Medulla oblongata

Question 785

What type of neurons send AP along the phrenic nerve to the diaphragm?

Answer 785

Inspiratory neurons

Question 786

What type of neurons inhibit the inspiratory neurons to stop the AP from reaching the diaphragm?

Answer 786

Expiratory neurons

Question 787

What cuts off the dorsal respiratory group allowing us to exhale?

Answer 787

Pneumotaxic center or pontine respiratory center (PRC)

Question 788

What happens if the pontine respiratory center fails?

Answer 788

The patient inflates the lungs and can only do short expiratory puffs

Question 789

What controls respiration during vocalization, sleeping, and exercise?

Answer 789

Pontine respiratory center

Question 790

What keeps the pneumotaxic center functioning? (If this fails, the pneumotaxic center fails)

Answer 790

Apneustic center

Question 791

What is apneustic breathing?

Answer 791

Inability to fully exhale after damage to PRC

Question 792

Where are the pnumotaxic center and apneustic center?

Answer 792

Pons

Question 793

What has the GREATEST OVERALL effect on respiratory rate?

Answer 793

CO2

Question 794

What has the least significant effect on respiratory rate?

Answer 794

O2

Question 795

What has the GREATEST DIRECT effect on respiratory rate?

Answer 795

H+

Question 796

Hypercapnia has the most potent overall effect on _____ ventilation rate and depth

Answer 796

Increasing

Question 797

What compounds can easily cross the blood brain barrier via CO2?

Answer 797

Non-polar, fat soluable compounds

Question 798

Does the brain vasodilate or vasoconstrict when you hyperventilate (as seen in hypocapnia)?

Answer 798

Vasoconstriction

Question 799

About how much O2 has to be reduced before there is an effect on ventilation rate?

Answer 799

A significant reduction in O2, partial pressure of 60 mmHg or lower

Question 800

Increasing H+ does what to ventilation rate?

Answer 800

Increases ventilation rate

Question 801

Does H+ cross the blood brain barrier?

Answer 801

No

Question 802

Where are the central chemoreceptors found?

Answer 802

CNS

Question 803

Where are peripheral chemoreceptors found (specifically)?

Answer 803

Carotid bodies
Aortic bodies

Question 804

Where do the carotid bodies’ peripheral chemoreceptors send impulses to and by what nerve?

Answer 804

Medulla via glossopharyngeal nerve

Question 805

Where do the aortic bodies’ peripheral chemoreceptors send impulses to and by what nerve?

Answer 805

Medulla via vagus nerve

Question 806

What is the Hering-Breuer or inflation reflex?

Answer 806

If lungs overfill, stretch receptors in bronchial tree send inhibitory impulses to cut inspiration off

Question 807

What is the Hering-Breuer or inflation reflex normal in?

Answer 807

Infants

Question 808

What is the difference between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases?

Answer 808

Obstructive: harder to get air OUT
Restrictive: harder to get air IN

Question 809

Is COPD obstructive or restrictive?

Answer 809

Obstructive

Question 810

What causes restricted lung disease?

Answer 810

Obesity, fibrosis, ALS

Question 811

What is nitrogen narcosis?

Answer 811

Diving over 100ft increases pressure and forces N into plasma, becoming toxic

Question 812

What is the bends?

Answer 812

Diver comes up too fast, causing air embolisms to clog vessels

Question 813

What is pneumoconiosis?

Answer 813

Pathological change in lungs due to inhalation of particles

Question 814

Signs of pulmonary disease/pneymoconiosis?

Answer 814

Clubbing of finger tips, barrel chest

Question 815

What is pleurisy?

Answer 815

Inflamed pleura so fluid accumulates in pleural cavity

Question 816

What is empyema?

Answer 816

Pus in pleural cavity

Question 817

What is pulmonary hypertension?

Answer 817

Increased pulmonary blood pressure

Question 818

What ventricle works harder in pulmonary hypertension and can lead to Cor Pulmonale?

Answer 818

Right ventricle

Question 819

What is atelectasis?

Answer 819

Collapsed lung causes shortness of breath

Question 820

What is the treatment for atelectasis?

Answer 820

Deep breathing exercises

Question 821

What is compression atelectasis in the lungs?

Answer 821

Displacement of the pleural cavity by a tumor

Question 822

What is a compression in the pleural cavity by blood?

Answer 822

Hemothorax

Question 823

What is pneumothorax atelectasis?

Answer 823

Air in pleural cavity causes loss of negative interpleural pressure

Question 824

What is absorption or obstructive atelectasis?

Answer 824

Alveoli blocks the air and collapses

Question 825

What is patchy atelectasis caused by?

Answer 825

Pneumonia

Question 826

What is retrolental fibroplasia?

Answer 826

Behind the lens scarring (premature babies placed on O2 leading to blindness)

Question 827

What is a pulmonary embolism?

Answer 827

A foreign object getting lodged in the lungs from the blood

Question 828

What % of pulmonary embolisms are from femoral/calf venous thrombi?

Answer 828

90%

Question 829

What is cystic fibrosis?

Answer 829

Genetic mutation resulting in loss of Cl- channels (salty babies)

Question 830

What is 2nd to heart disease as cause of disability for adults under 65?

Answer 830

COPD

Question 831

What causes COPD?

Answer 831

Smoking, dust, chemical fumes, infection

Question 832

What is chronic bronchitis?

Answer 832

Inflam of bronchi causing obstruction

Question 833

What is emphysema?

Answer 833

Permanent enlargement of alveoli and loss of elasticity (lungs don’t collapse)

Question 834

What disease has “blue boaters”?

Answer 834

Chronic bronchitis

Question 835

What disease has “pink puffers”?

Answer 835

Emphysema

Question 836

What causes skin to have a pinkish color which may cause Cor Pulmonale?

Answer 836

Polycythemia

Question 837

What is an allergic inflammation with bronchospasms and mucus production?

Answer 837

Asthma

Question 838

What is the most common form of pneumonia?

Answer 838

Community acquired

Question 839

What % of community acquired pneumonia are gram positive streptococcus?

Answer 839

70%

Question 840

Does gram positive streptococcus have a high or low death rate?

Answer 840

Low

Question 841

What means hospital acquired?

Answer 841

Nosocomial infection

Question 842

What is the most common nosocomial infection that is often drug resistant?

Answer 842

Gram positive staph aureus

Question 843

What pneumonia has a poor prognosis with >50% mortality?

Answer 843

Gram negative bacteria

Question 844

Is viral pneumonia bad?

Answer 844

No, usually relatively mild/self limiting

Question 845

What causes TB?

Answer 845

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 846

Is TB airborne, waterborne, etc?

Answer 846

Airborne

Question 847

What are the tubercles in TB filled with?

Answer 847

Caseous necrosis

Question 848

What is the most deadly single microbe in # of deaths?

Answer 848

TB

Question 849

What is the most common cancer cause of death?

Answer 849

Bronchogenic carcinomas

Question 850

Do men or women get bronchogenic carcinomas?

Answer 850

Both

Question 851

What increases risk of bronchogenic carcinomas?

Answer 851

Smoking, by 25x

Question 852

What % of lung cancers are squamous cell?

Answer 852

30%

Question 853

Where are the tumors in squamous cell carcinoma?

Answer 853

Near hilus (where things enter/leave lungs)

Question 854

What % of lung cancers are small (oat) cell?

Answer 854

20-25%

Question 855

Where are the tumors in small (oat) cell?

Answer 855

Central

Question 856

Which carcinoma has the highest correlation with smoking?

Answer 856

Small (oat) cell

Question 857

Which has the worst prognosis of lung cancers?

Answer 857

Small (oat) cell

Question 858

What % of individuals live past 2 years of small (oat) cell carcinoma?

Answer 858

<5%

Question 859

What % of lung cancers are adenocarcinomas?

Answer 859

30-35%

Question 860

Where are tumors in adenocarcinomas and what do they do?

Answer 860

The periphery, often asymptomatic or behave like glands producing hormones

Question 861

What % are large cell (undifferentiated) carcinomas?

Answer 861

10-15%

Question 862

Are large cell (undifferentiated) carcinomas responsive to therapy?

Answer 862

No

Question 863

What is a metastatic tumor?

Answer 863

Originates elsewhere in the body (ex. breast)