Exam 4: Renal & Endocrine Flashcards

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1
Q

What do the kidneys do to blood?

A

Filters it

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2
Q

What is the primary nitrogenous waste?

A

Urea

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3
Q

Where does the N in urea come from?

A

The breakdown of proteins (Amino acids, DNA, RNA)

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4
Q

What is the term used for the measure of nitrogenous waste in blood?

A

Blood Urine Nitrogen (BUN)

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5
Q

What is a normal BUN?

A

7-18 md/dL

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6
Q

What does BUN help measure? (What organ’s functioning does it test?)

A

Kidney function

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7
Q

Where does creatinine come from?

A

The breakdown of creatine phosphate

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8
Q

What is creatine phosphate used for?

A

Transferring a phosphate to ADP to make ATP

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9
Q

What is a normal creatinine level in humans?

A

0.7-1.2 mg/dL

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10
Q

What enzyme carries out the reaction where creatine phosphate + ADP –> creatinine + ATP?

A

Creatine kinase

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11
Q

What % of blood is protein?

A

7%

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12
Q

What % of urine is protein?

A

0.03%

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13
Q

Should there be a lot or a little protein in urine?

A

There should be VERY LITTLE protein in urine

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14
Q

How many liters of fluid do the kidneys filter daily?

A

180L

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15
Q

What % of fluid that the kidneys filter gets reabsorbed?

A

99.3%

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16
Q

What hormone does the kidneys produce that regulates the production of blood cells?

A

Erythropoietin

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17
Q

What hormone does the kidneys produce that increases intestinal absorption of Ca++ and PO4-3?

A

Vitamin D3

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18
Q

What does the body do with the increased Ca++ and PO4-3 absorption brought by vitamin D3?

A

Build bones

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19
Q

What hormone is produced in the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

A

Renin

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20
Q

Renin is produced when BP and sodium levels are high or low?

A

Low

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21
Q

Renin is produced when potassium levels are high or low?

A

High

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22
Q

What does renin split? What does it turn into?

A

Renin splits angiotensinogen into angiotensin 1

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23
Q

What splits angiotensin 1 into angiotensin 2?

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)

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24
Q

What does angiotensin 2 do to blood vessels?

A

Vasoconstricts, thus raising BP

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25
Q

What hormones does angiotensin 2 trigger the release of?

A

Aldosterone and vasopressin/antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

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26
Q

What do aldosterone and vasopressin/ADH do? (Retention or release)

A

Causes the kidneys to retain sodium and water

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27
Q

Does the retention of sodium and water raise or lower BP and blood volume?

A

Increases blood volume and blood pressure

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28
Q

What is the process of eliminating nitrogenous wastes?

A

Excretion

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29
Q

What do the kidneys do to the pH of blood?

A

Buffers the blood (maintains a stable level)

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30
Q

What do the kidneys do for blood volume and fluid osmolarity?

A

Balance fluid levels and electrolytes

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31
Q

What are the kidneys involved in detoxifying?

A

Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS) and free radicals

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32
Q

Where are the bladder and kidneys located anatomically?

A

Retroperitoneal (outside/below the peritoneum)

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33
Q

What are the basic filtering units of the kidneys?

A

Nephron

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34
Q

How many nephrons per kidney?

A

1 million

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35
Q

What level of nephron filtration is like “windows” or “holes” in the glomerular capillaries?

A

Fenestrae

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36
Q

What level of filtration in the nephron repels proteins that are smaller than the opening of fenestrae and podocytes?

A

Basement membrane

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37
Q

What type of charge does the basement membrane in nephrons have?

A

Negative charge

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38
Q

What level of filtration in the nephron are cells with filtration slits that cover the glomerular capillaries?

A

Podocytes

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39
Q

What are the two types of nephrons?

A

Cortical
Juxtamedullary

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40
Q

Where are cortical nephrons?

A

Superficial in the cortex

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41
Q

Where are juxtamedullary nephrons?

A

Deep in the cortex

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42
Q

Which nephron’s loop of Henle goes deeper into the medulla?

A

Juxtamedullary goes deep into the medulla

Cortical does NOT

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43
Q

Which arteriole brings unfiltered (dirty) blood to the corpuscle?

A

Afferent arteriole

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44
Q

Which arteriole brings filtered (clean) blood back to the circulatory system?

A

Efferent arteriole

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45
Q

What is the outer shell of the renal corpuscle?

A

Bowman’s capsule

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46
Q

What tissue is the Bowman’s capsule made of?

A

Simple squamous epi

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47
Q

Where is filtrate collected in the renal corpuscle?

A

Bowman’s space

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48
Q

What fills capillaries in the renal corpuscle with fenestrae?

A

Glomerular capillaries (glomerulus)

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49
Q

What are the cells with filtration slits in the renal corpuscle that cover glomerular capillaries?

A

Podocytes

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50
Q

What in the nephron takes filtrate from the corpuscle to the loop of Henle?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

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51
Q

Which limb of the loop of Henle is where WATER leaves?

A

Thick descending limb

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52
Q

What is the concentrating limb in the loop of Henle? Why?

A

The thick descending limb, as water is leaving

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53
Q

Which limb of the loop of Henle is where SALT leaves?

A

Thick ascending limb

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54
Q

What is the diluting limb in the loop of Henle? Why?

A

Thick ascending limb, as salt is leaving

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55
Q

What in the nephron sends the message to the juxtaglomerular apparatus to release renin?

A

Macula densa

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56
Q

Where is the macula densa located?

A

Distal convoluted tubule

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57
Q

What % of water reabsorption is in the proximal convoluted tubules?

A

65%

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58
Q

What % of water reabsorption is in the loop of Henle?

A

15%

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59
Q

What % of water reabsorption is in the distal convoluted tubules?

A

10%

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60
Q

What % of water reabsorption is in the collecting duct?

A

9.3%

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61
Q

What % of water is left to eliminate after the rest is reabsorbed?

A

0.7%

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62
Q

Where does water go from the collecting duct?

A

Papilla

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63
Q

Where does water go from the papilla?

A

Minor calyx

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64
Q

Where does water go from the minor calyx?

A

Major calyx

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65
Q

Where does water go from the major calyx?

A

Renal pelvis

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66
Q

Where does water go from the renal pelvis?

A

Ureter

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67
Q

Where does water go from the ureter?

A

Urinary bladder

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68
Q

Where does water go from the urinary bladder?

A

Urethra

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69
Q

What mOSM is isotonic in the cortex?

A

~300 mOsm (280-296 mOsm)

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70
Q

Where is the water reabsorbed so that it can find its way back to the blood?

A

Peritubular capillaries

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71
Q

What do Na+ and urea make the deep medulla compared to the cortex? (Hypo, hyper, isotonic)

A

Hypertonic

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72
Q

What is the medulla concentrated to in mOsm?

A

1200-1500 mOsm

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73
Q

What hormone makes the Na-K pump:
3 Na+ H2O goes back to blood
2 K+ excreted in urine

A

Aldosterone

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74
Q

Is this water retention or loss?
3 Na+ H2O goes back to blood
2 K+ excreted in urine

A

Water retention

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75
Q

What hormone makes the Na-K pump:
3 Na+ H2O excreted in urine
2 K+ back to blood

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

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76
Q

Is this water retention or loss?
3 Na+ H2O excreted in urine
2 K+ back to blood

A

Water loss

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77
Q

What hormone turns on genes that produce more water channel proteins?

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

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78
Q

What does producing more water channel proteins do? (Make you pee more or less?)

A

Make you pee LESS (ANTI-diuretic)

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79
Q

Does water passively or actively exit the urine to be returned to blood when more water channels are opened [thanks to ADH]? Why?

A

PASSIVE, because the medulla is so hypertonic

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80
Q

What does ADH do to urea?

A

Causes its reabsorption

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81
Q

Where do aldosterone, ANP, and ADH have their effects take place?

A

At the distal convoluted tubules and their collecting ducts

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82
Q

What is the last 0.7% of water that is filtered out regulated by?

A

Hormones

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83
Q

What hormone is associated with water retention?

A

Aldosterone

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84
Q

What hormone is associated with water loss?

A

Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANP)

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85
Q

What elemental levels can abnormal levels of aldosterone or ANP have clinical effects on?

A

K levels

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86
Q

What is an example effect from abnormal K levels caused by abnormal aldosterone/ANP?

A

Cardiac arrhythmias

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87
Q

Does ADH cause vasoconstriction or vasodilation?

A

Vasoconstriction

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88
Q

Where is ADH produced?

A

Hypothalamus

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89
Q

Where is ADH stored and released from?

A

Posterior pituitary gland (Neurohypophysis)

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90
Q

What is the primary hormone responsible for tonicity homeostasis and BP control?

A

ADH/vasopressin

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91
Q

What is the mOsm for hyperosmolarity?

A

> 280-296 mOsm

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92
Q

What states trigger ADH release to initiate water retention for dilution of conditions/bring it back to isotonicity?

A

Hyperosmolar states

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93
Q

What sort of diets/conditions would result in increased ADH secretion?

A

High salt diets and hypertension (high BP)

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94
Q

What does ADH do for arterial blood volume and pressure?

A

Increase effective arterial blood volume and increase blood pressure to maintain tissue perfusion

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95
Q

When BP drops or blood becomes hypertonic (hyperosmotic), what turns on protein synthesis to increase the # of water channels in the renal tubules to allow more water retention?

A

ADH

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96
Q

What hormone causes an increase in ADH release during times of a woman’s cycle? (This can be to the point of edema and BP rise)

A

Estrogen

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97
Q

What inhibits ADH when you drink?

A

Ethanol

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98
Q

What inhibits ADH in the sympathetic NS?

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

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99
Q

What kind of drug are epi and norepi?

A

Alpha-adrenergic agonists

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100
Q

What hormone released from the heart inhibits ADH?

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

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101
Q

What does GFR stand for?

A

Glomerular filtration rate

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102
Q

What does GFR measure?

A

Quantity of filtrate that passes through the glomerulus per unit time

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103
Q

What is a normal GFR? (in ml/min)

A

125 ml/min

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104
Q

What is a normal GFR? (in L/hour)

A

7.5 L/hour

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105
Q

What is a normal GFR? (in L/day)

A

180 L/day

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106
Q

What % of water is reabsorbed from the filtrate?

A

99.3%

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107
Q

What must the GFR be maintained at REGARDLESS of changes in overall BP?

A

125 ml/min

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108
Q

What would happen without the autoregulation mechanisms within the kidneys if there was a slight increase in renal BP?

A

A drastic increase in filtration

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109
Q

What would happen without the autoregulation mechanisms within the kidneys if there was a slight decrease in renal blood pressure (15%)?

A

Filtration would stop entirely

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110
Q

What is the glomerular (blood) hydrostatic pressure in mm Hg?

A

55 mmHg

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111
Q

What is the blood colloid osmotic pressure in mm Hg?

A

30 mmHg

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112
Q

What is the capsular hydrostatic pressure in mm Hg?

A

15 mmHg

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113
Q

What is the net filtration pressure in mm Hg?

A

10 mmHg

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114
Q

How do you calculate the net filtration pressure? (What values do you use)

A

Blood HP - (Blood CP + Bowman’s capsule HP)
55 - (30+15) = 10

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115
Q

Is hydrostatic pressure (HP) a pushing or pulling force?

A

Pushing

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116
Q

Is colloid pressure (CP) a pushing or pulling force?

A

Pulling

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117
Q

How much pressure pushes out the arteriole?

A

55 mmHg

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118
Q

How much pressure is pulled in the arteriole? (Total. Includes HP + CP)

A

45 mmHg

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119
Q

What goes with the 10mmHg pushing force out of the blood?

A

Urea, Na+, water

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120
Q

What forces increase GFR?

A

Plasma HP
Bowman capsule CP

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121
Q

What forces decrease GFR?

A

Plasma CP
Bowman capsule HP

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122
Q

What is another way of saying plasma/glomerular hydrostatic pressure?

A

BP in capillaries

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123
Q

What pressure is pushing out of blood?

A

Plasma/glomerular HP

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124
Q

What pressure is pulling back in the blood?

A

Plasma CP

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125
Q

What pressure is pushing back in towards the blood?

A

Bowman’s capsule HP

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126
Q

What pressure is pulling out of blood?

A

Bowman’s capsule CP

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127
Q

What is Bowman’s capsule CP in mmHg?

A

Near 0 mmHg

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128
Q

What is the filtering pressure of the kidneys? (in mmHg)

A

10 mmHg

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129
Q

Would this increase or decrease GFR?
Increase glomerular/plasma HP (AKA BP)

A

Increase

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130
Q

Would this increase or decrease GFR?
Decrease Bowman’s capsule HP

A

Increase

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131
Q

Would this increase or decrease GFR?
Increase plasma CP

A

Decrease

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132
Q

Would this increase or decrease GFR?
Decrease Bowman’s capsule CP

A

Decrease

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133
Q

How would liver failure affect GFR?

A

Decrease GFR

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134
Q

What mechanism within the loop of Henle creates a hypertonic medulla?

A

Counter current multiplier

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135
Q

What mechanism within the vasa recta helps maintain the hypertonic medulla?

A

Counter current exchanger

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136
Q

Does water go towards the hypertonic or hypotonic according to the rules of osmosis?

A

Water goes to the hypertonic (where there is more solute and less water)

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137
Q

What does the body change in order to maintain a steady filtration rate/GFR?

A

BP

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138
Q

What intrinsic controls (autoregulation) are used to regulate GFR?

A

Myogenic mechanism
Tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism

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139
Q

What does the myogenic mechanism do in response to an increase in BP?

A

An increase in BP stretches/dilates the afferent arteriole, so the muscles vasoconstrict to reduce filtration back to normal

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140
Q

What does the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism do in response to an increase in BP?

A

The macula densa causes vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole to reduce filtration

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141
Q

What does the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism do in response to a decrease in BP?

A

The macula densa causes vasodilation of the afferent arteriole to increase filtration

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142
Q

How does the body use neural control to regulate GFR?

A

When your body has a fight or flight response, BP increases

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143
Q

What hormone/NT causes vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole to regulate filtration?

A

Epinephrine

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144
Q

What system in the kidneys helps regulate the GFR if blood pressure drops?

A

Renin-angiotensin system

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145
Q

Where in the kidneys/what structure is where the renin-angiotensin system works?

A

Juxtaglomerular apparatus, specifically, the macula densa

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146
Q

What are the tubules in the kidney that monitors blood pressure through urine flow?

A

Macula densa

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147
Q

Does the macula densa monitor blood pressure directly or indirectly?

A

Indirectly, as it bases blood pressure off of the urine output

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148
Q

In what two situations might the macula densa activate means to control BP?

A

Increased flow or increased urine concentration signals the macula densa to get to work and do the opposite (decrease flow and decrease concentration)

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149
Q

What does the juxtaglomerular apparatus signal the release of?

A

Renin

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150
Q

Where is renin released from?

A

Granular cells in the afferent arteriole

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151
Q

Where does renin turn angiotensinogen into angiotensin 1?

A

The liver

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152
Q

What type of substance is renin?

A

An enzyme

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153
Q

Where does ACE turn angiotensin 1 into angiotensin 2?

A

The lungs

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154
Q

Does angiotensin 2 cause vasoconstriction or vasodilation? How does this affect BP?

A

Vasoconstriction, increases BP

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155
Q

What hormone is released by angiotensin 2?

A

Aldosterone

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156
Q

Where is aldosterone released from?

A

The adrenal cortex

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157
Q

What is the adrenal cortex?

A

The outer part of the kidney

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158
Q

What type of hormone is aldosterone?

A

A steroid

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159
Q

Where does aldosterone go after it is released from the adrenal cortex?

A

Into the kidney

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160
Q

What does aldosterone do in the kidney?

A

Turns on the Na-K pump

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161
Q

What goes on in the renal Na-K pump? Out/In from where specifically?

A

3 Na OUT of urine, into blood
2 K INto urine, out of blood

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162
Q

What follows Na to increase BP?

A

Water

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163
Q

What blocks ACE to lower BP?

A

ACE inhibitors

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164
Q

What is water loss that you’re generally unaware of?

A

Insensible water loss

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165
Q

What is water loss you are aware of?

A

Sensible water loss

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166
Q

Where does insensible water loss happen?

A

Exhaled from lungs
Perspiration from the skin (NOT sweating from exercise…casual sweat)
Excreted in feces

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167
Q

Where does sensible water loss happen?

A

Urine
Sweating from exercise

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168
Q

How much urine is excreted daily (in mL)?

A

1000-1500 mL/day

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169
Q

What is retained thanks to estrogen and what is released? (Think what might cause menstrual-related edema)

A

NaCl is retained
ADH is released

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170
Q

What drug causes Na resorption/retention resulting in water retention?

A

Prednisone

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171
Q

What sort of drug is prednisone?

A

A steroidal anti-inflammatory drug

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172
Q

What is it called when increased BP forces more fluid out of the glomerulus?

A

Pressure diuresis

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173
Q

What can cause water loss through pressure diuresis?

A

Hypertension (high BP) with loss of autoregulatory mechanisms

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174
Q

How might tissue damage result in edema?

A

Tissue damage releases “solute” particles into the interstitium

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175
Q

When solute particles are released into the interstitium due to tissue damage, does the interstitium become hypertonic, hypotonic, or stay isotonic?

A

It becomes hypertonic due to the increase of solute particles

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176
Q

What mechanism pertaining to the capillaries, along with tissue damage, results in edema?

A

Increased capillary permeability

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177
Q

As blood approaches the capillary, where does fluid go?

A

Fluid leaks out into the extracellular matrix (ECF)

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178
Q

As the remaining blood (that didn’t leak out) courses through the capillary, what does it become?

A

More concentrated, or hypertonic

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179
Q

What happens to fluid that is hypertonic in the capillary as it approaches the venous end?

A

It pulls fluid in from the ECF

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180
Q

What % of the ECF is drained by lymphatic vessels?

A

10%

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181
Q

What continuously happens to the interstitium, thanks to fluid being pushed in and out?

A

It is “washed” by fluid

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182
Q

What happens if the lymphatics are blocked by worms, tumors, etc.?

A

Massive swelling, such as in elephantiasis

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183
Q

If there is high HP, will fluid be pushed out, pulled in, pushed in, pulled out?

A

Pushed out

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184
Q

If there is low CP will fluid be pushed out, pulled in, pushed in, pulled out?

A

Pulled in

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185
Q

If there is low HP, will fluid be pushed out, pulled in, pushed in, pulled out?

A

Pushed in

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186
Q

If there is high CP, will fluid be pushed out, pulled in, pushed in, pulled out?

A

Pulled out

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187
Q

What is another name for the extracellular matrix?

A

Interstitium

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188
Q

What condition can be caused by hypotension due to post-surgical blood loss, sepsis, obstetric complications, burns, ROS?

A

Renal failure

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189
Q

What pathology is classified as “significant” loss of renal function?

A

Renal failure

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190
Q

At what mL/day urine output do you have anuria?

A

< 50 mL/day

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191
Q

What can low glomerular pressure or nephritis, transfusion reactions, and crush injuries cause?

A

Anuria

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192
Q

What pathology is classified as only 25% normal renal functioning?

A

Renal insufficiency

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193
Q

What does the GFR drop to in renal insufficiency?

A

25-30 mL/min

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194
Q

What pathology is when renal function drops to 10% of normal?

A

End stage renal failure (ESRF)

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195
Q

What causes azotemia?

A

Abnormal increase in BUN
Abnormal increase in creatinine

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196
Q

What is azotemia with neurological complications called?

A

Uremia

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197
Q

What is seen in uremia?

A

Edema, encephalopathy, nausea/vomiting, anorexia, ulcers, CHF

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198
Q

With uremia, what is retained?

A

Na…So also water!

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199
Q

Increased Na and water seen in uremia results in?

A

Increased renin, hypertension (fluid overload)

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200
Q

What pathology is where renal failure is so severe that there is glomerular damage, protein loss, edema?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

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201
Q

How much protein is lost in nephrotic syndrome? In g/day

A

3.5-10 g/day

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202
Q

Why is edema seen in nephrotic syndrome?

A

Due to the loss of plasma proteins

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203
Q

How much protein is lost in nephrotic syndrome? In %

A

Up to 20% loss

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204
Q

What is it called when the skin is pressed and a depression forms for some time after it is no longer depressed?

A

Pitting edema

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205
Q

Where is pitting edema seen?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

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206
Q

What system is activated in nephrotic syndrome?

A

Renin-angiotensin system

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207
Q

What is released in the nephrotic syndrome?

A

Increased ADH release

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208
Q

What is the urine output in diabetes mellitus?

A

Up to 12x normal

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209
Q

What diabetes is juvenile onset?

A

Type 1

210
Q

What % of diabetes is type 1?

A

10%

211
Q

What is destroyed in type 1 diabetes?

A

Autoimmune destruction of beta cells

212
Q

What is there a deficiency of in type 1 diabetes?

A

Insulin

213
Q

Is type 1 diabetes hyper- or hypo- glycemia?

A

Hyperglycemia, as the lack of insulin means glucose stays in plasma

214
Q

What mg/dL is hyperglycemia?

A

> 200 mg/dL glucose in blood

215
Q

What is hypervolemia?

A

Fluid overload

216
Q

What causes hypervolemia/what disease is it associated with?

A

Hyperglycemia in type 1 diabetes

217
Q

What does hypervolemia cause?

A

Hypertension

218
Q

What is increased frequency of urination?

A

Polyuria

219
Q

What is increased frequency of drinking?

A

Polydipsia

220
Q

What is toxic production of ketones causing a “fruity” breath?

A

Ketoacidosis

221
Q

What are pressure diuresis, polyuria, polydipsia, and ketoacidosis associated with?

A

Type 1 diabetes

222
Q

Are people with type 1 diabetes overweight or underweight?

A

Underweight, due to loss of fat and proteins

223
Q

What diabetes is adult onset or insulin resistant?

A

Type 2

224
Q

What % of diabetes is type 2?

A

90%

225
Q

What is destroyed in type 2 diabetes?

A

Insulin receptors (insulin is present, it just has little effect)

226
Q

What is type 2 diabetes attributed to?

A

Obesity

227
Q

What % of children born after 2000 will acquire type 2 diabetes?

A

1/3 (33%)

228
Q

What is the most common cause of neuropathy in the western world?

A

Diabetes

229
Q

What is the damage of capillaries throughout the body?

A

Microvascular disease

230
Q

What is the destruction of vessels, associated with below the knee amputations?

A

Peripheral vascular disease

231
Q

What is the clogging of capillaries of the retina?

A

Retinopathy

232
Q

What is the most common cause of end-stage renal disease in the west?

A

Nephropathy

233
Q

What is the urine output in diabetes insipidus?

A

24x normal

234
Q

What is the difference between neurogenic and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

Neurogenic: Hypothalamus doesn’t produce enough ADH
Nephrogenic: There’s not enough ADH receptors in the collecting ducts

235
Q

What is inflammation of the urinary bladder?

A

Cystitis

236
Q

Is cystitis more common in males or females? How much more?

A

10x more common in females

237
Q

What is inflammation of the glomeruli called?

A

Glomerulonephritis

238
Q

What causes glomerulonephritis?

A

Immune problems, drugs/toxins, diabetes, vascular disease

239
Q

What urine conditions are seen in glomerulonephritis?

A

Hematuria and proteinuria

240
Q

What is blood in urine?

A

Hematuria

241
Q

What is excessive protein in urine?

A

Proteinuria

242
Q

What color is hematuria and why?

A

Brownish due to reactions with acid

243
Q

How much protein is peed daily in proteinuria? What protein especially?

A

3-5 g/day, especially albumin

244
Q

What is the inflammation of the renal pelvis and insterstitum?

A

Pyelonephritis

245
Q

What causes pyelopnephritis?

A

Bacterial and fungal infections

246
Q

What are symptoms of pyleonephritis?

A

Fever, chills, flank and groin pain

247
Q

What is the most common cause of renal failure?

A

Acute tubular necrosis

248
Q

What are the two forms of acute tubular necrosis?

A

Post ischemic (surgery, sepsis, burns)
Nephrotoxic

249
Q

What is the most common kidney stone? What %?

A

Calcium oxylate 85%

250
Q

What is the 2nd most common kidney stone? What %?

A

Struvic stones 15%

251
Q

What molecules are associated with struvic stones?

A

Mg, NH4, P

252
Q

What is the 3rd most common kidney stone? What %?

A

Uric acid 7%

253
Q

What is the 4th (least) common kidney stone? What %?

A

Cystine <1%

254
Q

What system do scientists sometimes combine the endocrine system with because they’re so closely related? What is this mega-system called?

A

The nervous system
Neuroendocrine system

255
Q

What do neurons release? Do they need receptors?

A

Neurotransmitters DO need receptors

256
Q

What do endocrine glands release? Do they need receptors?

A

Hormones DO need receptors

257
Q

Is epinephrine from a neuron a hormone or NT?

A

Epinephrine from a neuron is a NT

258
Q

Is epinephrine from the adrenal medulla a hormone or NT?

A

Epinephrine from the adrenal medulla is a hormone

259
Q

Do hormones take effect near where they are released?

A

NO, they usually travel great distances

260
Q

Do endocrine glands have ducts?

A

NO. They secrete directly into capillaries/blood

261
Q

What is SIMILAR to the endocrine (but not part of it) where the molecule has its effects on the same cell that produces it?

A

Autocrine

262
Q

What is SIMILAR to the endocrine (but not part of it) where the molecule has its effects near to the cell that produces it?

A

Paracrine

263
Q

What system secretes products into the lumen of organs via ducts?

A

Exocrine

264
Q

What are examples of exocrine products?

A

Digestive enzymes, tears, mucus, bicarb, sweat, oils, wax

265
Q

What are the basic building blocks of polypeptide chains/proteins?

A

Amino acids

266
Q

How many different amino acids are there?

A

20

267
Q

What are the bonds that hold amino acids together?

A

Peptide bonds

268
Q

Are peptide bonds held together by H bonds, covalent, ionic?

A

Covalent

269
Q

What is a long chain (or polymer) of amino acids?

A

Peptide/polypeptide chain

270
Q

What is a sequence of DNA nucleotides that carry the code/recipe for a polypeptide?

A

Gene

271
Q

What is a SMALL chain of linked amino acids?

A

Peptide

272
Q

What is a LONG chain of linked amino acids?

A

Polypeptide

273
Q

What do functional/mature proteins consist of?

A

1 or more polypeptide chains

274
Q

Are proteins 2D or 3D?

A

3D

275
Q

How can proteins change shape?

A

Changes in heat and pH

276
Q

What are amino acid or protein-based hormones made of?

A

Amino acids or peptides/polypeptides

277
Q

Do amino acid/protein-based hormones cross cell membranes easily?

A

NO

278
Q

Are amino acid/protein-based hormones water or lipid soluble?

A

Water

279
Q

Are amino acid/protein-based hormones polar or nonpolar?

A

Polar

280
Q

Are amino acid/protein-based hormones hydrophilic or hydrophobic?

A

Hydrophilic

281
Q

Are amino acid/protein-based hormones lipophilic or lipophobic?

A

Lipophobic

282
Q

Where are the receptors of amino acid/protein-based hormones usually?

A

On the cell membrane

283
Q

What are amine hormones?

A

Modified amino acids

284
Q

What are examples of amine hormones?

A

Dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine, melatonin

285
Q

What are peptide/protein hormones made of?

A

Multiple amino acids connected by peptide bonds

286
Q

What are examples of peptide hormones?

A

ADH, ANP

287
Q

What are examples of protein hormones?

A

Growth H, FSH, Luteinizing hormone, human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)

288
Q

Are peptide hormones or protein hormones larger?

A

Protein hormones (they have multiple polypeptide chains)

289
Q

What hormones are made of complex ringed lipid molecules?

A

Steroids

290
Q

What are all steroid molecules derived from?

A

Cholesterol

291
Q

Where are the receptors for steroids?

A

In the cytoplasm and nucleoplasm

292
Q

Once steroids are bound to their receptors, where does the steroid-receptor complex bind to to turn genes on/off?

A

Directly on the DNA

293
Q

Are steroids water or lipid soluble?

A

Lipid

294
Q

Do steroids cross membranes easily?

A

Yes

295
Q

Are steroids hydrophilic or hydropohobic?

A

Hydrophobic

296
Q

What are examples of steroids?

A

Testosterone, cortisol, aldosterone, progesterone, estrogen

297
Q

Where do arachidonic acid based hormones come from?

A

Special phospholipids in the cell membrane

298
Q

What hormones are long, ringed fatty acids that are physiologically active?

A

Arachidonic acid based hormones

299
Q

What are arachidonic acid based hormones precursor to?

A

Eicosanoids, leukotrienes, thromboxanes

300
Q

What are eicosanoids made from?

A

Arachidonic acid

301
Q

What enzyme converts arachidonic acid into prostaglandins and thromboxane?

A

Cyclooxygenase

302
Q

What abbreviations are for cyclooxygenase?

A

COX 1 and COX 2

303
Q

What are the functions of prostaglandins?

A

Inflammation, pain, uterine contraction, blood clotting…

304
Q

Do prostaglandins vasodilate or vasoconstrict?

A

Vasodilate

305
Q

What allergic reaction can prostaglandins help induce?

A

Anaphylaxis

306
Q

What is produced by platelets causing them to aggregate and begin the clotting process?

A

Thromboxanes

307
Q

Do thromboxanes cause vasodilation or vasoconstriction?

A

Vasoconstriction

308
Q

What produces leukotrienes?

A

Leukocytes and mast cells

309
Q

What do leukotrienes cause?

A

Inflammation, and the release of histamine and prostaglandins to increase inflammation

310
Q

What does NSAIDS stand for?

A

Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs

311
Q

How do NSAIDS work?

A

Inhibit prostaglandin synthesis by inhibiting cyclooxygenase

312
Q

What are examples of NSAIDS?

A

Ibuprofen, Asprin, naproxen, Indomethacin

313
Q

What is the mechanism for Acetaminophen?

A

Unknown! It isn’t an NSAID though

314
Q

What must hormones have for effects to take place?

A

Functioning receptors

315
Q

What do steroidal hormones form in the nucleus?

A

Dimers

316
Q

What are dimers?

A

Two hormone-receptor complexes

317
Q

What do steroidal dimers do?

A

Bind directly to the two sides of DNA to activate/deactivate genes

318
Q

Are hormone diseases caused by deficiency in the hormone, or the receptors?

A

Both

319
Q

What is signal transduction?

A

The series of reactions when a hormone binds to its receptor on the cell membrane and genes are turned on/off

320
Q

What are the “first messengers” in signal transduction?

A

The hormones

321
Q

Where is the “second messenger”?

A

Near the cytoplasmic surface of the receptor (just inside the cell membrane)

322
Q

What does the second messenger do?

A

Transmits the message of the hormone (first messenger) to the next set of chemical reactions

323
Q

What does the Cyclic AMP (cAMP) System use?

A

A cyclic form of Adenosine Monophosphate

324
Q

What happens after the hormone binds to its receptor in cAMP system?

A

The receptor activates the G protein on the membrane

325
Q

What activates G protein?

A

Guanosine Triphosphate (GTP)

326
Q

What deactivates G protein?

A

Guanosine Diphosphate (GDP)

327
Q

What does G protein activate (or deactivate) in cAMP?

A

Adenylate cyclase

328
Q

What does the enzyme adenylate cyclase do?

A

Produces cAMP from ATP

329
Q

What is the second messenger in the cAMP system?

A

cAMP, a cytoplasmic protein that turns reactions on/off

330
Q

What enzyme does cAMP activate?

A

Protein Kinase A (PKA)

331
Q

What does PKA do?

A

Phosphorylates another enzyme that phosphorylates another….etc.

332
Q

What enzyme destroys cAMP (thus turning it off)?

A

Phosphodiesterase

333
Q

What is another name for the PIP2 second messenger system?

A

Calcium signal system

334
Q

What happens after the hormone binds to its receptor in PIP2 system?

A

The receptor activates the G protein (just like in cAMP)

335
Q

What does the activated G protein bind to in PIP2?

A

The enzyme phospholipase C

336
Q

What does phospholipase C do?

A

Splits PIP2 into DAG and IP3

337
Q

What are the second messengers in PIP2?

A

DAG and IP3

338
Q

What does DAG do?

A

Activates the enzyme protein kinase C

339
Q

What does protein kinase C do?

A

Continues the signal transduction

340
Q

What does IP3 do?

A

Causes the release of Ca ions

341
Q

What do the Ca ions released by IP3 do?

A
  1. Activates more kinase enzymes, which can include cAMP and PKC
  2. Regulate ion channels
342
Q

What is the protein activated by Ca ions which can itself activate other proteins?

A

Calmodulin

343
Q

What is up-regulation?

A

Increasing the # of receptors in the cell membrane

344
Q

Does up-regulation make the cell more or less sensitive to hormones? Does this increase or decrease the hormone’s effect?

A

More, increases the effect

345
Q

Does down-regulation make the cell more or less sensitive to hormones? Does this increase or decrease the hormone’s effect?

A

Less, decreases the effect

346
Q

What is down-regulation?

A

Decreasing the # of receptors in the cell membrane

347
Q

What is it called when 2+ hormones (or drugs, toxins, etc.) produce an effect that is greater than the sum of their individual effects?

A

Synergistic effect

348
Q

What is permissive action?

A

1 hormone makes the target organ much more sensitive to another hormone

349
Q

Is permissive action up or down-regulation?

A

Up-regulation

350
Q

What is an example of permissive action?

A

Estrogen causes an up-regulation of progesterone receptors in the uterus, making the uterus more sensitive to progesterone

351
Q

What is it called when 2 hormones have opposite effects?

A

Antagonistic effect

352
Q

What is this an example of:
Insulin lowers plasma glucose levels, while glucagon increases plasma glucose levels?

A

Antagonistic effect

353
Q

What are hormones that stimulate the release of another hormone? They are often referred to as “stimulatory” or “excitatory” hormones?

A

Tropins

354
Q

What are hormones that inhibit the release of another hormone? They are referred to as “inhibitory” hormones?

A

Statins

355
Q

Where do most hormones produced by the hypothalamus have their effects on?

A

The Anterior pituitary gland

356
Q

Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone in the hypothalamus causes the release of what where?

A

2 gonadotropins (follicle stimulating hormone FSH and Luteinizing hormone) released from the anterior pituitary gland

357
Q

What does FSH do in females?

A

Females: Causes granulosa cells in the ovarian follicles to activate an enzyme to change testosterone into estrogen

358
Q

What enzyme changes testosterone into estrogen?

A

Aromatase

359
Q

What does FSH do in males?

A

Stimulates spermatogenesis (development of sperm)

360
Q

What does Luteinizing hormone do in females?

A

Causes ovulation (release of oocyte from ovaries)

361
Q

What does Luteinizing hormone do in males?

A

Stimulates cells to produce testosterone

362
Q

What cells produce testosterone?

A

Leydig cells (interstitial cells) of the testes

363
Q

What is the relationship called between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and the gonads?

A

Hypothalamic-hypophyseal-gonadal axis

364
Q

What sort of feedback is involved when the hypo releases gonadotropin releasing hormone causing release of FSH & LH, which release testosterone that inhibits the hypo?

A

Negative feedback loop

365
Q

Thyrotropin/Thyroid Releasing Hormone in the hypothalamus causes the release of what where?

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone released in anterior pituitary gland

366
Q

What is another name for thyroid stimulating hormone?

A

Thyrotropin

367
Q

What does thyrotropin do?

A

Causes the thyroid’s follicular cells to release T4

368
Q

What is the name for T4?

A

Thyroxin

369
Q

Is T3 or T4 inactive?

A

T4 is inactive

370
Q

Where is thyroxine (T4) released from?

A

The colloid

371
Q

Where does T4 go after it is released?

A

To the cells which will chop off an iodide to make T3

372
Q

What is T3 called?

A

Triiodothyronine

373
Q

What does T3 do?

A

Increases metabolism

374
Q

What does estrogen regulate?

A

Secondary sexual characteristics and the uterus

375
Q

What does calcitonin do?

A

Activates osteoblasts to make bone, thus decreasing blood Ca levels

376
Q

Where is calcitonin released from?

A

Parafollicular cells

377
Q

What does parathyroid hormone do?

A

Activates osteoclasts which resorb bone and increase plasma Ca

378
Q

What produces parathyroid hormone?

A

Parathyroid glands

379
Q

What causes reabsorption of Ca and excretion of P by the kidneys?

A

Parathyroid hormone

380
Q

What vitamin does parathyroid hormone activate that causes an increase in Ca absorption?

A

Vitamin D

381
Q

What does corticotropin releasing hormone in the hypo release from the anterior pituitary?

A

Pro-opiomelanocortin

382
Q

What is pro-opiomelanocortin chopped up into?

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Beta-Endorphin
Enkephalin
Melanocyte stimulating hormone

383
Q

What does adrenocorticotropic hormone do?

A

Increase cortisol from the adrenal cortex

384
Q

What does beta-endorphin do?

A

Causes runner’s high and reduces pain

385
Q

What is beta-endorphin an example of?

A

Endogenous opiate

386
Q

What is an example of an endogenous opiate other than beta-endorphin?

A

Enkephalin

387
Q

What is another name for melanocyte stimulating hormone?

A

Melanotropin

388
Q

What does the pro in pro-opiomelanocortin mean?

A

Because it is the first or pro-hormone to be made into other hormones

389
Q

What does the opio in pro-opiomelanocortin mean?

A

Because it can be chopped into the endogenous opiates (beta endorphin and enkephalin)

390
Q

What does the melano in pro-opiomelanocortin mean?

A

Because it can be chopped up into melanocyte stimulating hormone

391
Q

What does the cortin in pro-opiomelanocortin mean?

A

Because it stimulates the release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex

392
Q

What is the outer layer of the adrenal gland?

A

Adrenal cortex

393
Q

What hormone class is the adrenal cortex part of?

A

Steroids

394
Q

What is the outer 1/3 of the adrenal cortex called?

A

Zona glomerulosa

395
Q

What subclass is found in the zona glomerulosa?

A

Mineralocorticoids

396
Q

What is an example of a mineralocorticoid and its function?

A

Aldosterone (water retention)

397
Q

What is the middle 1/3 of the adrenal cortex?

A

Zona fasciculata

398
Q

What is the subclass in the zona fasciculata?

A

Glucocorticoids

399
Q

What is an example of a glucocorticoid and its function?

A

Cortisol (anti-stress)

400
Q

When are cortisol levels highest?

A

The morning

401
Q

What is the deepest/inner 1/3 of the adrenal cortex?

A

Zona reticularis

402
Q

What is the subclass for the zona reticularis?

A

Sex steroids

403
Q

What are examples of sex steroids?

A

Androgens (like testosterone and estrogen)

404
Q

Are estrogen and androgens stopped being produced after menopause?

A

Estrogen is stopped, but androgen continues. This can cause clinical manifestations

405
Q

What is the inner layer of the adrenal cortex called?

A

Adrenal medulla

406
Q

What subclass of hormones are in the adrenal medulla?

A

Sympathetic hormones

407
Q

What are examples of sympathetic hormones?

A

Epi, norepi, dopamine, serotonin

408
Q

When is cortisol released?

A

In response to stress (physical, pathological, emotional)

409
Q

What effect does cortisol have on fats, proteins, and carbs? (Does it increase or decrease blood glucose levels?)

A

Increase

410
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

Producing glucose from non-carbs such as proteins and lipids

411
Q

What is glycogenolysis?

A

Breaking down glycogen to release glucose into the blood

412
Q

What does cortisol counteract? What might this do to the body?

A

Cortisol counteracts insulin, which may result in hyperglycemia

413
Q

What can constantly high cortisol do to insulin?

A

Create insulin resistance

414
Q

Does cortisol increase or decrease amino acid entry into muscles?

A

Decrease

415
Q

Does cortisol increase or decrease hunger when high?

A

Increase

416
Q

What does cortisol do to the immune system?

A

Cortisol is anti-inflammatory

417
Q

What does cortisol reduce the release of as an anti-inflammatory?

A

Proinflammatory cytokines
Histamines

418
Q

What does cortisol help control in the lymphatic system?

A

Control B lymphocyte functions and prevents T lymphocyte proliferations

419
Q

Does cortisol down or up regulate epinephrine receptors?

A

Upregulate

420
Q

Does cortisol cause vasoconstriction or vasodilation? What does this do to BP?

A

Vasoconstriction, raises BP

421
Q

How does cortisol effect Na and P?

A

Has an anti-diuretic effect (increases Na retention and P loss)

422
Q

How do high levels of cortisol affect the reproductive system?

A

Can cause infertility and miscarriage

423
Q

How does cortisol affect: Ca absorption

A

Decrease

424
Q

How does cortisol affect: bone formation

A

Decrease

425
Q

How does cortisol affect: collagen formation

A

Decrease/inhibits

426
Q

How does cortisol affect: Plasma amino acid levels

A

Increase

427
Q

How does cortisol affect: gastric acid production

A

Increase

428
Q

What does long-term cortisol levels do to the brain?

A

Damages hippocampus, impairing learning and memory retrieval

429
Q

Can high levels of cortisol interfere with the negative feedback loop controlling the amount of cortisol?

A

Yes

430
Q

Where are catecholamines/adrenergic hormones produced?

A

Adrenal medulla

431
Q

What are the fight or flight sympathetic hormones?

A

Catecholamines/adrenergic hormones

432
Q

What is the body’s main source of catecholamines?

A

Epinephrine

433
Q

Does epinephrine and norepi cause vasodilation or vasoconstriction? What does this do to BP?

A

Vasoconstriction, raising BP

434
Q

What do epi and norepi tend to do to insulin?

A

Reduces its release

435
Q

What does prolactin releasing hormone in the hypo effect in the anterior pituitary?

A

Prolactin

436
Q

What does prolactin do?

A

Stimulates lactation (production of milk)

437
Q

What is prolactin inhibited by?

A

Dopamine

438
Q

What does growth hormone releasing hormone in the hypo effect in the anterior pituitary?

A

Growth hormone and Insulin-like growth factor

439
Q

What does insulin-like growth factor do?

A

Stimulates mitosis

440
Q

What does somatostatin in the hypo affect in the anterior pituitary?

A

DECREASES growth hormone

441
Q

What hormones are made by the hypo but are stored and released from the POSTERIOR pituitary?

A

ADH and oxytocin

442
Q

What does oxytocin do?

A

Causes uterine contraction (as seen in labor) and causes milk let down

443
Q

What sort of states release ADH release?

A

Hyperosmolar (high concentration)

444
Q

What dietary choices might increase secretion of ADH?

A

High salt diets

445
Q

What hormone inhibits appetite?

A

Leptin

446
Q

What produces leptin?

A

Adipocytes

447
Q

What do alpha cells in the islets of langerhans produce?

A

Glucagon

448
Q

What do beta cells in the islets of langerhans produce?

A

Insulin

449
Q

What do delta cells in the islets of langerhans produce?

A

Somatostatin

450
Q

Are the acinar cells of the pancreas endocrine?

A

NO, they’re exocrine.

451
Q

What do acinar cells produce?

A

Digestive enzymes and bicarb ions

452
Q

What is prominent in the anterior, superior mediastinum (above the heart) of juveniles?

A

Thymus

453
Q

What does the thymus do?

A

Supports T-lymphocyte maturation

454
Q

What do T-lymphocytes do?

A

Help the immune system

455
Q

What is the thymus replaced by in adults?

A

Adipose

456
Q

What are gonads?

A

Primary reproductive organs

457
Q

What cells produce testosterone in females?

A

Thecal cells

458
Q

What hormone made by the small intestines and stomach causes HCl production?

A

Gastrin

459
Q

What hormone made by small intestines causes the pancreas to release bicarb and proteases?

A

Secretin

460
Q

What hormone is made by the small intestines and causes the gallbladder to contract? (Thus forcing bile into the duodenum)

A

Cholecystokinin

461
Q

What hormone is an endogenous opioid with an unknown function?

A

Endorphin

462
Q

What hormones are released by the pineal gland?

A

Serotonin and melatonin

463
Q

What is associated with reduced melatonin levels?

A

Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) and premenstrual syndrome (PMS)

464
Q

What contains adipocytes, connective tissue matrix, nerve tissue, vascular cells, and immune cells?

A

Adipose tissue

465
Q

Where are proifnlammatory cytokines found?

A

Adipose

466
Q

What does adipose tissue act on in obesity?

A

Appetite and energy balance, immunity, insulin sensitivity, BP, cardiovascular disease…

467
Q

What are examples of proinflammatory cytokines?

A

Tumor necrosis factor and interleukin 6

468
Q

What do tumor necrosis factor and interleukin 6 cause?

A

Inflammation, obesity-related insulin resistance

469
Q

What condition is angiotensinogen and angiotensin implicated in?

A

Hypertension

470
Q

What does plasminogen activating inhibitor (PAI-1) impair?

A

Fibrinolysis

471
Q

What is fibrinolysis?

A

Breakdown of blood clots

472
Q

What do adiponectin and leptin do?

A

Stimulate beta oxidation of fatty acids in skeletal muscles

473
Q

What might adiponectin and leptin do in regards to insulin?

A

May improve body’s sensitivity to insulin and protect against diabetes type 2

474
Q

What pathology is an overactive thyroid that results in elevated thyroid hormones?

A

Hyperthyroidism

475
Q

What disease is a type of hyperthyroidism?

A

Grave’s disease

476
Q

Is metabolic rate increased or decreased in hyperthyroidism?

A

Increased

477
Q

Is increased metabolic rate anabolic or catabolic?

A

Catabolic

478
Q

What causes hyperthyroidism?

A

Autoimmune issues…Antibodies are produced that stimulate TSH

479
Q

What are signs of hyperthyroidism?

A

Goiter, nervousness, rapid pulse, bulging eyes, weight loss, sweating

480
Q

What can hyperparathyroidism be caused by?

A

Hyperthyroidism

481
Q

What levels are increased in hyperparathyroidism?

A

Blood Ca levels due to increased PTH

482
Q

In hyperparathyroidism, do you see bone thinning or bone thickening?

A

Bone thinning

483
Q

What is bone thinning called?

A

Osteoporosis

484
Q

What is an underactive thyroid called?

A

Hypothyroidism

485
Q

What is the most common type of hypothyroidism in the US?

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

486
Q

What is Hashimoto thyroiditis strongly associated with?

A

Lymphoma

487
Q

What do hypothyroidism symptoms range from?

A

Asymptomatic to myxedema coma

488
Q

What happens in primary hypothyroidism?

A

Thyroid gland can’t produce hormones

489
Q

What happens in secondary hypothyroidism?

A

The thyroid is normal, but the hypothalamus or pituitary glands are affected

490
Q

Is T4 increased or decreased in hypothyroidism? Why?

A

Decreased, due to increased TSH

491
Q

How do you diagnose hypothyroidism?

A

Elevated serum TSH and decreased T4…Sometimes patients can have an elevated TSH and a normal T4

492
Q

What disease alters the T3/T4 negative feedback loop on TRH and TSH?

A

Hypothyroidism

493
Q

What are signs of hypothyroidism?

A

Goiter, weight gain, pallor, fatigue, slowed speech/movement, dull facial expression

494
Q

What is hypercortisolism also called?

A

Cushing’s disease

495
Q

What is cushing’s disease often due to?

A

Increased ACTH from a pituitary adenoma

496
Q

What are characteristic signs of cushings?

A

Weight gain in face and trunk (“moon face” and “buffalo hump”)

497
Q

What is the skin like with cushings?

A

Fragile, with acne and facial hair growth

498
Q

What is hirsutism?

A

Abnormal facial hair growth

499
Q

What is hair like in cushings?

A

Brittle or bald

500
Q

Do people with cushings fail to bruise or bruise easily? Why?

A

Bruise easily due to decreased collagen

501
Q

Why do people with Cushings have insulin resistance?

A

Due to increased cortisol

502
Q

Do people with cushings have hypotension or hypertension?

A

Hypertension

503
Q

When are cushings symptoms often seen?

A

Prolonged use of corticosteroids like prednisone

504
Q

What is another name for hypocortisolism?

A

Addison’s disease or adrenal insufficiency

505
Q

What is rare, reduced cortisol (and often aldosterone) production by the adrenal cortex?

A

Addison’s disease

506
Q

What kind of disease is Addison’s?

A

Autoimmune

507
Q

What are signs of Addison’s?

A

Weight loss, fever, hypoglycemia, dehydration, fatigue

508
Q

What causes rickets/osteomalacia?

A

Reduced vitamin D

509
Q

What is osteomalacia in kids?

A

Rickets

510
Q

What is rickets in adults?

A

Osteomalacia

511
Q

What is an abnormal increase in growth hormone from childhood?

A

Giantism

512
Q

What is an abnormal increase in growth hormone from adulthood?

A

Acromegaly

513
Q

What is an abnormal decrease in growth hormone?

A

Drawfism

514
Q

What is postmenopausal osteoporosis due to?

A

Loss of estrogen

515
Q

What are other names for estrogen?

A

Estradiol
Estradio-17 beta
Estradiol-17 beta

516
Q

In hypoparathyroidism is there more or less Ca in the blood?

A

Way too little Ca in blood

517
Q

In what disease is there increased neuromuscular irritability (i.e., myalgias, twitching, spasms) due to decreased threshold?

A

Hypoparathyroidism

518
Q

Is macroglossia (enlarged tongue) in hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism?

A

Hypothyroidism

519
Q

What disease can have a “fruity” breath from ketoacidosis?

A

Type 1 diabetes

520
Q

What’s the way to distinguish between diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus?

A

Mellitus: Insulin
Insipidus: ADH