Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Understanding Human Disease > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Hematemesis

A

vomiting blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Diverticulosis

A

out-pouching of the large intestine resulting in materials getting stuck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hematochezia

A
  • bright red colored blood in stool

- often Occult fecal blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Gastritis

A

inflammation of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

megacolon

A

abnormal stretch of the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hernia

A

bulging of organ or tissue through abdominal opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

constipation

A

infrequent and/or difficulty passing stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

diarrhea

A

abnormally frequent and watery stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Retching

A

nonproductive vomiting, also known as dry heaving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Dysphagia

A

difficulty swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)

A

chronic heartburn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

signs and symptoms of GI diseases

A
  1. ) anorexia
  2. ) altered motility (vomiting, diarrhea, constipation)
  3. ) nausea
  4. ) retching
  5. ) dysphagia
  6. ) bleeding in upper or lower GI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

gastric analysis

A

measures amount of stomach acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Endoscopy

A

procedure used to look inside GI tract with a camera and a light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sigmoidscopy

A

procedure used to look in sigmoid colon with light and camera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

colonoscopy

A

procedure used to look in colon with light and camera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Congenital Pyloric Sphincter

A
  • narrowing of the pyloric sphincter
  • idiopathic
  • causes projective vomiting 2-4 weeks after birth and no weight gain
  • occurs mostly in boys
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hirschsprung disease

A
  • lack of parasympathetic NS ganglia in rectum
  • causes defective bowel movements and megacolon
  • suspected in infants with chronic constipation and distended abdomen
  • surgical removal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Inguinal Hernia

A
  • out-pouching of abdominal content into groin
  • danger for bowel strangulation
  • more common on men due to testes development in abdominal cavity during utero
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

types of hernias

A
  1. ) inguinal
  2. ) Hiatal
  3. ) Epigastric
  4. ) umbilical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

GERD vs LPR

A
  • GERD: acid refluxes into esophagus only

- LPR: acid refluxed into esophagus and spills into pharynx and larynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

pathogenesis/predisposing factors of GERD

A
  1. ) alcohol: weakens sphincters
  2. ) obesity
  3. ) eating late at night/laying down after eating:
  4. ) age
  5. ) Pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Risk factors for GERD

A
  1. ) Burrets esophagus (metaplasia of esophagus cells)

2. ) esophageal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

treatment for GERD

A
  • avoid foods increasing reflux
  • proton pump inhibitors (decrease amount of acid)
  • avoid laying down after meal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

symptoms of gastritis

A
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • epigastric pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what causes acute gastritis

A
  1. ) Taking non steroidal inflammatories on an empty stomach

2. ) alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what causes chronic gastritis

A
  1. ) autoimmune disease attacking parietal cells

2. ) Heliobacter Pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Heliobacter Pylori

A
  • bacteria that can survive in the stomachs acidic pH
  • risk increases with age
  • can cause ulcer and cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

treatment for Heliobacter Pylori

A

antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what occurs in gastritis

A

acute injury to mucosa caused by agents that compromise protective mucous barrier over epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Peptic Ulcer Disease

A

break or ulceration in mucosal lining of lower esophagus, stomach, or duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the leading causes of Peptic Ulcer Disease

A
  1. ) H. Pylori

2. ) Ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the complications of peptic ulcers?

A
  • internal bleeding (due to iron deficiency anemia)
  • penetration of pancreas leading to inflammation of it
  • perforation leading to infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Dental caries

A
  • cavities

- caused by the breakdown of protective enamel letting bacteria to enter tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Gingivitis

A
  • inflammation of the gums
  • main cause bacteria
  • causes redness, bleeding, and swelling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Leukoplakia

A

white spots/patches on tongue that are used to detect mouth cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Otitis media

A

middle ear infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Presbycusis

A

hearing loss that occurs with age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Aphthous Stomatitis

A

Canker sores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Oral cavity structure and function

A
  • teeth, tongue, and walls of mouth
  • salivary glands
  • allows for speech
  • digestion, respiratory, and sensory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

amylase

A

enzyme secreted in mouth that breaks down carbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Nose function and structure

A
  • moisturizes and filters inhaled air

- used for smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Sinuses structure and function

A
  • hollow cavities within cranial bones

- produce mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Larynx structure and function

A
  • major passageway to lungs

- holds vocal cords

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Epiglotis

A

flap folding over larynx during swallowing to prevent aspiration into trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

ear structure and function

A
  • detects sounds and aids in equilibrium
  • vestibular apparatus: balance and knowing where you are in space
  • ossicles (middle ear bones)
  • Tympanic membrane (ear drum)
  • Cochlea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

degultition

A

act of swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

phases of deglutition

A
  1. ) orophasyngeal (voluntary): push bolus to back of mouth
  2. ) Esophageal (involuntary): foods going down esophagus
  3. ) Gastroesophageal (involuntary): food entering stomach from esophagus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Cleft lip and palate

A
  • multifactorial: environment and genetics
  • complications: cosmetic, speech, dental, hearing, eating, facial growth
  • treatment: surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Peridontitis

A
  • inflammation of peridontium which holds teeth in place
  • causes a pocket for bacteria to go
  • can lead to tooth or bone loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

plaque

A
  • bacteria accumulation

- prevented by flossing and brushing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

tarar

A
  • calcified plaque

- cannot be physically removed with flossing and brushing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

cold sore

A
  • blister like lesions on face or inside mouth
  • contagious
  • painful
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what causes cold sores

A
  • herpes simplex virus 1
  • latent (stays in body, but not always activated)
  • reactivation occurs under stress mostly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Canker sores

A
  • painful open sores in mouth
  • idiopathic
  • heals within 7-10 days
  • not contagious
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is the main thing that causes upper respiratory tract infection? and how are they spread?

A
  • viruses

- coughing and sneezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

symptoms of upper respiratory tract infection

A
  • sore throat (pharyngitis)
  • nasal discharge (rhinitis)
  • headache
  • fever
  • fatigue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

complication of upper respiratory tract infection

A
  • otitis media in children (shorter Eustachian tube)
  • pneumonia in elderly
  • enlarged tonsils can obstruct breathing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

sinusitis

A
  • inflammation of sinuses

- can be become blocked and filled with fluid/mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

symptoms of sinusitis

A
  • nasal congestion
  • headache
  • facial pain
  • thick and discolored mucus (green or pussy)
  • postnasal drip
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Acute sinusitis

A

if it lasts for less than a month and is self limiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Chronic sinusitis

A

if it persists or is recurrent

-can be difficult to treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

treatment of chronic sinusitis

A
  • antibiotics/antifungals can’t always clear infection if its a virus
  • steroid therapy to reduce inflammation (corticosteroids)
  • surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Allergic Rhinitis (hay fever)

A
  • allergic response to environmental antigens
  • pollen, dander, dust, etc.
  • symptoms like common cold: runny nose, scratchy throat, watery eyes
  • treatment: antihistamines, decongestons, eye drops, shots
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what group is otitis media most common in

A

infants and children because they have a Eustachian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what causes an otitis medua

A

-fluid accumulation in middle ear provides fertile culture medium for bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

sensorineual hearing loss

A

hearing loss due to damaged cochlea and/or auditory nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

conductive hearing loss

A

hearing loss due to damaged ear canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

characteristics of presbycusis

A
  • begins with high frequencies
  • symmetrical
  • assocaited with tinitus (ringing in ears)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

main risk of prebycusis

A

loud noises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

hearing aids

A
  • amplify soundwaves

- avoided by patients because they are uncomfrotable, costly, and fill with ear wax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

cochlear implants

A
  • conduct sound through skull bone
  • safe and rarely complicated by infection
  • only used in serious hearing loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is the most common neoplasm of the head and neck

A

squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what is the main risk factor of squamous cell carcinoma

A

alcohol and tobacco

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

symptoms of squamous cell carcinoma

A
  • loss of function
  • hoarseness, pain, or difficulty swallowing
  • obstruction of nasopharyngeal passages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Obstructive Sleep Apnea

A
  • patient repeatdly stops breathing during sleep
  • causes CO2 to build up snd cause acidosis
  • makes patient tired and can cause heart problems
  • collapse of pharyngeal passages when patient is relaxed and supine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Atelectasis

A

collapse of the lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Bronchiectasis

A

dilation of the bronchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Pneumothorax

A

presence of air in the pleural cavity leading to collapse of the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Dyspnea

A

shortness of breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Apnea

A

temporary stoppage of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Emphysema

A

destruction of alveoli causing them to be deflated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Chronic Bronchitis

A
  • inflammation of bronchioles
  • cough lasting for at least 3 months for 2 consecutive years
  • excessive mucus
  • frequent respiratory infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Bronchiscopy

A

endoscopic technique used to look at the inside of the airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

spirometry

A

measurement of lung volumes and capacities

86
Q

Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)

A

amount of air you can inhale and forcefully exhale

87
Q

Forced Expiratory Volume 1 (FEV1)

A

amount of air you can inhale and forcefully exhale in 1 second

88
Q

Surfactant

A

material secreted by type 2 cells in alveoli that reduces surface tension

89
Q

mucociliary escalator

A

specalized epithelial lining of bronchiol trees that traps inhaled bacteria in mucus and cilia move it up to mouth for it to be swallowed

90
Q

Orthopnea

A

discomfort breathing when lying down flat

91
Q

Hemopysis

A

coughing up blood

92
Q

factors needed for efficient gas exchange

A
  1. ) large capillary surfacw area in contact with alveolar membrane
  2. ) unimpeded diffusion across alveolar membrane
  3. ) normal pulmonary blood flow
  4. ) normal pulonmary alveoli
93
Q

signs and symptoms of respiratory disorders

A
  1. ) dyspnea
  2. ) apnea
  3. ) tachypnea
  4. ) cough
  5. ) cynaosis
94
Q

tachypnea

A

increased breathing rate

95
Q

tests for respiratory diseases

A
  1. ) percussion (tapping)
  2. ) Ausculation: listening for crackles
  3. ) radiography
  4. ) spirometry
  5. ) bronchoscopy
96
Q

Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome

A
  • alveoli don’t make enough surfactant causing them to not expand normally in inhalation and collapse in expiration
  • etiology: babies are born before lungs can fully develop
97
Q

what groups are at risk for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

A
  1. ) premature infants
  2. ) infants delivered via C section
  3. ) infants born to mothers with diabetes
98
Q

treatment of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

A

supplemental oxygen and surfactant

99
Q

obstructive lung disease

A

obstruction of exhaling causing retention of CO2 and decreased O2 in RBC

100
Q

Types of obstructive lung disease

A
  1. ) Asthma

2. ) Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

101
Q

Types of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

A
  1. ) Chronic Bronchitis

2. ) emphysema

102
Q

COPD

A
  • group of disorders characterized by reducing air flow and impairing gas exchange
  • age related
  • progressive
  • poor reversability
  • associated with smoking
103
Q

symptoms of COPD

A
  • lots of mucus
  • coughing (more common in morning)
  • dyspnea
  • chest tightness
  • barrel chest: increase in volume of thoracic cavity
104
Q

Treatment of COPD

A
  • stop smoking
  • steroid and bronchodilators
  • supplmental oxygen with caution
  • antibiotics
105
Q

Asthma

A
  • not COPD because its reversible
  • assocaited with bronchospams (wheezing)
  • most cases are allergic based (occurs when exposed to allergn)
106
Q

treatment of asthma

A
  • Drugs that dilate bronchioli walls (epinephrine and beta agonist inhalers)
  • reducing inflammation via corticosteroid inhalers
  • drugs that block the release of mediators form mast cells
107
Q

complications of COPD

A
  • respiratory failure (acidosis or arrythmia)
  • right sided heart failure
  • infections
  • acute respiratory failure
  • lung cancer
108
Q

Acute Respiratory Disease Syndrome

A
  • diffuse alveolar damage to alveolar epithelium and vascular endothelium
  • medical emergency
  • results in hypoxemia
  • can lead to organ failure
109
Q

pulmonary embolism

A
  • Starts with DVT and part breaks off traveling through the heart to the lungs
  • fatal
110
Q

Pulmonary hypertension

A
  • high blood pressure in the lung vessels
  • causes increased pulmonary edema
  • can lead to right sided heart failure
  • can only be treated by removing fluid from lungs
  • 10 year survival rate after diagnosis
111
Q

Small cell Lung cancer

A
  • typically smokers
  • 15% of lung cancers
  • detected after it has metasasized
  • 3-5% survival rate
112
Q

Non-small cell lung cancer

A
  • more localized

- 5-12% survival rate

113
Q

what can cause lung cancer

A
  1. ) smoking
  2. ) genetics
  3. ) asbestos
  4. ) pollution
  5. ) radon gas
114
Q

why is lung cancer the most deadly cancer?

A

there are not screening tests

115
Q

symptoms of lung cancer

A
  1. ) unexplained cough
  2. ) weight loss
  3. ) coughing up blood
  4. ) loss of appetite
116
Q

whats one of the leading cause of death in US involving respiratory?

A

chronic lower respiratory disease

117
Q

whats one of the leading causes of death in the world involving respiratroy?

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

118
Q

Hemostasis

A

stoppage of bleeding

119
Q

Thrombosis

A

abnormal blood clot

120
Q

Stages of Hematosis

A
  1. ) Vasoconstriction
  2. ) Platelet plug
  3. ) Clot by Coagulation
121
Q

what occurs in vasoconstriction

A
  • narrowing of the lumen of vessel to minimize blood loss

- brings hemostatic components of blood closer to the site of injury in vessel

122
Q

what occurs in the platelet plug

A

-thrombocytes need to be activated because at rest there is minimal interaction of thromobytes and blood vessel wall

123
Q

how are thombocytes activated in platelet plus?

A

activated when it is stimulated by exposure to collagen

  1. ) plug defect become rounf and sticky
  2. ) secrete granules
124
Q

what granules do platelets secrete?

A
  1. ) ADP
  2. ) Thromboxane 2
  3. ) Vasoactive amines
  4. ) Coagulation factors
125
Q

ADP

A

stimulates shape change of platelets and the released of thomboxane 2

126
Q

thromboxane 2

A

amplifies the initial clumping of platelets into a large mass

127
Q

vascoactive amines

A

epinephrine helps maintain vasoconstriction

128
Q

what occurs in clot by coagulation

A

cascade of events
-thrombin stimulates fibrinogen which stimulates fibrin
extrinsic vs intrinsic

129
Q

Extrinsic/Tissue factor

A
  • occurs due to trauma

- activated by tissue factor released by endothelial cells after external damage

130
Q

Intrinsic/Contact coagulation

A

-activated through exposed endothelial collagen

131
Q

what are the primary layers in hemostasis

A
  1. ) blood vessels
  2. ) platelets
  3. ) coagulation factors
132
Q

where are coagulation factors made

133
Q

function of coagulation inhibitors

A

they counterbalance coagulation factors

134
Q

plasminogen

A
  • coagulation inhibitor
  • secreted by liver in inactive form
  • activated when endothelial cells secrete tissue plasminogen activator
  • result: plasminogen turns to plasmin and dissolves fibrin
135
Q

epistaxis

A

excessive nose bleeds

136
Q

menorrhagia

A

excessive heavy periods

137
Q

Hematuria

A

blood in urine

138
Q

Hematochezia

A

blood in upper Gi tract

139
Q

petechiae

A

little pin point hemorrhages

140
Q

Hematoma

A

big hemorrhage

141
Q

Tests for bleeding and clotting

A
  1. ) CBC for platelete level
  2. ) fibrinogen assay: measures amount of fibringoen in blood
  3. ) prothrombin time: tests how long the estrinsic pathway takes to work
  4. ) activated parial theomboplastin time: tests for instrinsic pathway
142
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A
  • abnormally low platelet level
  • cause: genetic, acquired, disease (leukemia), autoimmune, hypersplenism
  • can lead to petechiae
143
Q

hypersplenism

A

enlarged spleen causes early removal of platelets

-associated with thrombocytopenia

144
Q

Thrombocytosis

A
  • abnormally high plalete level
  • cause: trauma, surgery, or childbirth
  • risk for thrombus
145
Q

Virchows Triangle

A

inappropriate coagulation

146
Q

thrombosis

A

inappropriate activation of blood coagulation

147
Q

what triggers Virchows Traingle?

A
  1. ) endothelial cell injury: turbulant blood flow or atheroscelerosis
  2. ) altered blood flow: stasis of turbulent
  3. ) hyper coagulability: can be caused by thrombocytosis
148
Q

what condition can lead to Virchows triangle?

A
  • taking oral contraceptive

- increases estrogen levels which can increase coagulation factors

149
Q

warfarin

A
  • anti-coagulation drug

- reduces amount of vitamin K available to reduce coagulation

150
Q

Heparin

A
  • anti-coagulation drug

- inactivates thrombin to reduce activity of coagulation cascade

151
Q

Aspirin

A
  • anti-platelet drug

- inhibits thromboxane A2 formation to decrease platelet number

152
Q

what can cause someone to have too little coagulation?

A
  • genetic: hemophilia

- acquired via liver disease of lack of vitamin K

153
Q

Hemophilia

A
  • lack of coagulation factor
  • symptoms: subcutaneous bleeding, blood in urine, bleeding in mouth, lips, or tongue, and bleeding in joints, CNS, or GI
  • treatment: treat with missing coagulation factor
  • X-linked disease, men more likely
154
Q

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

A
  • increases clotting by releasing thromboplastic material in circulation
  • causes: snake bite
155
Q

Fibrinogen

A

protein that stimulates fibrin

156
Q

fibrin

A

protein that initates clotting

157
Q

stasis

A

stationary blood flow in veins

158
Q

Tissue PLasminogen Activator

A

activates plasminogen into plasmin

159
Q

composition of blood

A
  1. ) plasma: 55%
  2. ) red blood cells: 45%
  3. ) white blood cells: less than 1%
  4. ) platelets: less than 1%
160
Q

function of blood

A
  1. ) transport O2
  2. ) fight infection
  3. ) carry hormones
  4. ) form clots
161
Q

hematopoiesis

A
  • formation of blood cellular components in the bone marrow

- lymphoid or myeloid progenitor

162
Q

classification of anemia

A

based on size size of RBC and amount of hemoglobin level (morphologic classification)

163
Q

microcytic

A

smaller than normal RBC

164
Q

hypochromic anemia

A

RBC have reduced hemoglobin count

165
Q

normocytic anemia

A

normal size and appearance of RBC

166
Q

macrocytic anemia

A

cells larger than normal can be due to deficient in folic acid or B12

167
Q

Hypochromic microcytic anemia

A
  • RBC smaller than normal and have low hemoglobin level

- iron deficient anemia

168
Q

Cause and treatment of hypochromic microcytic anemia

A

-low iron intake
-chronic blood loss
(iron-dediciency anemia)
-treatment: iron supplements or treat cause of anemia

169
Q

cause and treatment of macrocytic anemia

A
  • deficency in B12 or folic acif

- treatment: increase intake of B12 (animal products) and folic acid (leafy greens)

170
Q

Pernicious anemia

A
  • RBC can’t absorb enough B12 due to lack of instrinsic facotr
  • macrocytic anemia
171
Q

what can cause perniciosu anemia

A
  • gastric bypass or resection
  • distal bowel resection or disease
  • elderly
  • autoimmune
172
Q

leukemia

A

malignant disease involving WBC precurser in BM

173
Q

signs and symptoms of leukemia

A
  • anemia
  • weakness
  • bleeding
  • common infections
  • bone pain
174
Q

what is the most common leukemia in kids

A

acute lymphocytic leukemia

175
Q

lymphoma

A

cancer affecting the T and B cells

-present in the lymph nodes

176
Q

Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • producing too many lymphocytes
  • risk increases with age
  • involves lymph nodes, bone marrow, spleen, thymus
  • can be outside of the lymph nodes
177
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • most common caner in US of 10-30 year olds

- characterized by Reed-Sternberg cells

178
Q

reed sternberg cells

A
  • large abnormal B lymphocytes

- can be associated with epstein-barr virus

179
Q

myeloma

A
  • malignant disease of plasma cells

- patient usually 45 years or older

180
Q

pathophysiology of myeloma

A
  • functionally useless antibodies
  • impaired immunity
  • anemia
  • death is due to infection or renal failure
181
Q

hypogammaglobulinemia

A

low antibodies in blood

182
Q

treatment of leukemia and lymphoma

A
  • first chemo

- HSC stem cell transplant

183
Q

HSC stem cell transplant

A

replaces HSC with new to “reset” bone marrow

184
Q

leukocytosis

A
  • WBC count higher than normal
  • can be normal is infection
  • if no infection due to malignancy in lymph nodes or bone marrow
185
Q

Leukopenia

A
  • WBC count lower than normal
  • always pathological
  • predisposes to infection
186
Q

Infectious Mononucleosis (MONO)

A
  • infection of B lymphocytes
  • caused by epstein-barr virus
  • swollen lymph nodes, sore throat, tired/weak
187
Q

Polycythemia

A

too many RBC

188
Q

primary polycythemia

A

cause of polycythemia is because of the disease

-EXs: bone marrow malignancy, pverproduction of RBC, WBC, or platelet

189
Q

secondary polycythemua

A

cause of polycythemia is second to another disease

190
Q

complications of polycythemia

A

makes blood thick which can causes the heart to work harder increasing risk for stroke

191
Q

what causes primary thrombocytopenia

A

idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura

192
Q

idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura

A

platelets antibodies attack platelets

193
Q

what causes secondary thrombocytopenia

A

damage to bone marrow from drugs or chemicalas

194
Q

Erythropoiesis

A

the formation and development of RBC

195
Q

what is needed for erythropoiesis

A
  • protein
  • folic acid
  • vitamin B12
  • iron
196
Q

Erythropoietin (EPO)

A

hormone produced primarly by kidneys that stimulates RBC production

197
Q

hematocrit

A

volume % of RBC in blood (normal 12-16)

198
Q

Mean Corpuscular hemoglobin concentraion (MCHC)

A

checks average amount of hemoglobin in group of red blood cells

199
Q

Means corpuscular volume (MCV)

A

measures average size of red blood cells,

200
Q

thrombocytes

A
  • platelets
  • not cells
  • fragments of megakarocytes
201
Q

erythrocytes

A

red blood cells

202
Q

leukocytes

A

white blood cells

203
Q

myelopthisic anemia

A

bone marrow infiltration by tumor or replaced by fibrous tissue

204
Q

hemolytic anemia

A
  • premature destruction of RBC

- results in increase EPO, reticulocytes, and active bone marrow

205
Q

reticulocytes

A

premature RBC

206
Q

what can caise hemolytic anemia

A
  • sickle cell
  • thalassemia (affects syntheis of adult hemoglobin)
  • autoimmune
207
Q

diagnosis of anemia

A
  • complete blood count
  • blood smear
  • hematocrit
208
Q

left sided heart failure

A

left ventricle fails to pump to body so blood backs up into the lungs and they become full of fluid

209
Q

symptoms of left sided heart failure

A
  • difficulty breathing

- increased hydrostatic pressure

210
Q

right sided heart failure

A
  • right ventricle fails to pump blood adequately

- blood isn’t fully adjected so blood will back up into right atrium then the veins, then organs, then veins in neck

211
Q

symptoms of right sided heart failure

A
  • swelling in liver, spleen, ankles

- swollen neck due to blood in it

212
Q

sudden cardiac death

A

natural death from cardiac causes within one hour of acute symptoms
-due to: arrhythmia, myocardial infarct, aortic aneurysm, electrocution, drugs

Understanding Human Disease (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions