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Understanding Human Disease > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Malignant

A

capable of metastasis

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2
Q

tumor

A

a non-specific term meaning lump or swelling

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3
Q

metastasis

A

discontinuous spread of malignant neoplasm

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4
Q

neoplasm

A

uncontrolled growth of cells

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5
Q

cancer

A

any malignant tumor/neoplasm

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6
Q

carcinoma in situ (CIS)

A
  • cancer in place
  • has not through basement membrane yet
  • if caught in this stage it can be cut out to cure it
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7
Q

TNM system

A
  • describes staging
  • T: describes tumor (0-3)
  • N: lymph nodes (0-2)
  • M: metastasis (0-2)
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8
Q

staging

A

describes extent of spreed

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9
Q

Dysplasia

A
  • premalignant state
  • if it stays there it will become cancer
  • doesn’t necessarily progress to malignancy
  • usually occurs in the epithelium
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10
Q

carcinogenesis

A

the creation of cancer

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11
Q

cachexia

A

generalized wasting that occurs in terminal cancer

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12
Q

grading of tumor

A
  • shows how differentiated or undifferentiated cells are

- degree of differentiation roughly estimates tumors malignant potential

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13
Q

CAUTION

A
  • Changes in bowel/bladder habits or functions
  • A sore that doesn’t heal
  • Unusual bleeding or discharge
  • Thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere
  • Indigestion or difficulty swallowing
  • Obvious changes in a wart or mole
  • Nagging cough or horseness
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14
Q

lifestyle choices that reduce risk of cancer

A
  • don’t use tobacco
  • sun safely
  • diet (processed foods are carcinogens)
  • drink alcohol moderately
  • exercise regularly
  • vaccinations (HPV)
  • safe sex practices
  • maintain a healthy weight
  • self-examinations
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15
Q

what is the most deadly cancer in adults?

A

lung cancer

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16
Q

which cancer is the most common in women?

A

breast cancer

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17
Q

which cancer is the most common in men?

A

prostate cancer

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18
Q

proto-oncogene

A

a normal gene

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19
Q

oncogene

A
  • mutated proto-oncogene

- “green light”

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20
Q

KRAS oncogene

A
  • mutation of the RAS proto-oncogene
  • mutated RAS leads to activation of protein which stimulates transcription
  • mutation in RAS causes it to always be “on” making cells grow really fast
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21
Q

tumor suppressor genes

A
  • they detect and repair DNA damage before they can go through mitosis
  • “red light”
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22
Q

mutation of Tumor Suppressor p53

A
  • mutation causes the levels of p53 to increase in a cell
  • results in:
    1. ) recruit in DNA repair
    2. ) senescence
    3. ) death by apoptosis
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23
Q

what is the most mutated tumor suppressor gene?

A

p53

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24
Q

what is the function of tumor suppressor gene p53

A

stops the cell cycle and usually found in low amount in cells

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25
Q

senescence

A

the cell is still alive but it will never divide again

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26
Q

how is cancer a multi-hit development?

A

in order for cancer to acquire a malignant phenotype it needs to have multiple mutations (hits) to genome

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27
Q

etiology of cancer

A

-cancer occurs due to mutations in DNA

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28
Q

what cells does cancer occur in

A

somatic or germ cells

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29
Q

why is cancer hard to treat?

A

each cancer is genetically unique, not everyone’s is the same

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30
Q

manifestations of cancer

A
  1. ) mass
  2. ) hormone production
  3. ) systemic manifestation
  4. ) cachexia
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31
Q

paraneoplastic syndrome

A

manifestation of aberrant and uncontrolled hormone production by a malignant neoplasm
EX: lung cancer produces unregulated cortisol, so it can be misdiagnosed as Cushings syndrome

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32
Q

Surgery for treating cancer

A
  • prevent cancer
  • cure depending on localization
  • biopsy for diagnosis
  • debulking surgery
  • palliative surgery: surgery to manage symptoms
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33
Q

hormone therapy for cancer treatment

A
  • activation or blockage of a receptor

- interferes with cellular growth and signaling

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34
Q

ionizing radiation for cancer treatment

A

-targets cells in S phase so mutated DNA can’t divide
goals:
-eradicate cancer without excessive toxicity
-avoid damage to normal structure

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35
Q

chemotherapy for cancer treatment

A
  • given via IV
  • chemicals target ALL rapidly dividing cells (can’t target only cancer dividing cells)
  • puts a base analogue in DNA that won’t work
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36
Q

symptoms of chemotherapy

A
  • hair loss
  • low white blood cell count, can get sick more often
  • low red blood cell count, anemia
  • loss of appetite
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37
Q

immunotherapy

A
  • immune system sees mutant cell as foreign
  • it then stimulates own immune system to better recognize cancer cells
  • tumor antibodies
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38
Q

targeted therapy

A
  • “precession medicine”: acts on specific molecular targets

- EX: HER2

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39
Q

mammography

A

screening for breast cancer recommenced at age 40

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40
Q

pap smear

A

screening for cervical cancer

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41
Q

colonoscopcy/fecal occulta test

A

screening for colon cancer recommened at age 50

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42
Q

what cancers are the most deadly?

A

cancers that don’t have screening tests

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43
Q

congenital disease

A

a disease that you are born with

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44
Q

allele

A

variation form of a gene (EX: eye color)

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45
Q

Non-disjuction

A

DNA doesnt pull apart correctly in meiosis

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46
Q

Genetic disease

A

disease caused by abnormal DNA

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47
Q

Karyotype

A

illustration of chromosomes that is used to visualize them and look for abnormailites and alterations

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48
Q

Aneuploidy

A

when there is one or more extra or missing chromosomes which results in abnormal number

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49
Q

what are the main causes of developmental diseases?

A

1.) birth defects/congenital anomalies

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50
Q

how does a genetic disease develop?

A
  • inherited by parents

- can occur in gamete development

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51
Q

fetal alcohol syndrome causes and effects

A
  • Cause: when mom consumes alcohol during pregnancy

- effects: fetal growth restriction, CNS abnormalities, and distinctive facial features

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52
Q

what is Amniocentesis

A
  • a sample of amniotic fluid is taken via needle to check for disease
  • has risk for miscarriage
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53
Q

what is chorionic villi testing

A
  • sample of projections (chorionic villi) of placenta are taken to test for disease
  • greater risk for pregnancy loss
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54
Q

is Amniocentesis or CVT more accurate and why?

A

amniocentesis is more accurate because in CVT it takes samples of the placenta not direct samples of fetus

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55
Q

who is recommended to have amniocentesis or CVT done?

A
  • mother 35 or older
  • parents who have a child with genetic disease
  • family history
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56
Q

Trisomy 21

A
  • Down syndrome
  • 3 21 chromosomes (extra)
  • cause due to non-disjunction in mieosis 1
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57
Q

what are manifestations of down syndrome

A
  • intellectual impairment that varie
  • round face and slanted eyes
  • small stature
  • congenital heart defects
  • intestinal defects
  • increased risk for alzheimers
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58
Q

Turners syndrome

A
  • sex chromosome abnormalities
  • females only has 1 x (x)chromosome instead of 1
  • causes: non disjunction
  • features: short in stature, webbing at neck, secondary sex organ don’t develop, infertile/don’t through puberty
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59
Q

Kleinfelter syndrome

A
  • sex chromosome abnormalitie
  • male has extra x chromosome (xxy)
  • causes: non disjunction
    features: tall, long limbs, breast development, secondary sex organs don’t develop, infertile
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60
Q

Autosomal dominant inheritance

A
  • disease is expressed if only one copy is present

- affected person has 50% of passing disease to off spring

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61
Q

Martan syndrome

A
  • autosomal dominant disease
  • effects: tall w long limbs and fingers/toes, heart valves don’t close correctly, eyes can detach from retinas, blood vessels more likely yo stretch, increase in cardiac death
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62
Q

autosomal recessive inheritance

A
  • need two copies of genes

- both parents must be carriers

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63
Q

cystic fibrosis

A
  • autosomal recessive disease
  • most common ARD affecting white mothers
  • causes mutation in chloride channels which regulates chloride and sodium movement
  • effects: thick, sticky mucus that doesn’t move
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64
Q

Sickle cell disease

A
  • mutation in hemoglobin that alters RBC’ shape
  • leads to microinfarct due to ischemia
  • RBC’s will be removed by body but can result in anemia
65
Q

Sex-linked inheritance

A
  • mutation on the X or Y chromosome

- more likely to occur on the X chromosome because it is bigger

66
Q

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

A
  • mutation on X chromosome causing neuromuscular disease
  • diagnosis: around 2-3 years
  • wheelchair bound at 12 years
67
Q

teratogen

A
  • harmful drug/chemical that affects the development of a fetus
  • EX: cigarettes, alcohol, radiation, and infections
68
Q

when is the embryonic period

A

first 8 weeks after fertilization

69
Q

when is the fetal period

A

9-38th weeks of pregnancy

70
Q

when is the perinatal period

A
  • “around birth”

- 2 weeks before birth to 1 month after birth

71
Q

when is infancy

A

after birth to one year

72
Q

when is childhood

A
  • after infancy to before adolescene

- 1 to puberty

73
Q

when does adolescence begin

A

once child hits puberty

74
Q

what is the most common embryonic and fetal disease?

A

congenital heart defects

75
Q

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)

A
  • unexpected, sudden death of child under age of 1
  • risk factors: co-sleeping, sleeping on stomach, premature birth, cigarettes, sibling who had SIDS, teen mom, no prenatal care, live in poverty
76
Q

what is the most common cause of death in children?

A

drowning

77
Q

what is a common disease pf a premature baby?

A

cerebral palsy

78
Q

edema

A

increase in fluid for the interstitial space

79
Q

effusion

A

accumulation of fluid in a body cavity

80
Q

Thrombus

A

an abnormal intravascular clot which can occur in any vessel within the heart (stationary)

81
Q

embolus

A

“traveling blood clot”

-detaches from thrombus and is carried into the pulmonary or systemic circulation

82
Q

Arterioscelorsis

A

hardening of the arteries

83
Q

Atherosclerosis

A
  • type of arterioscelrosis

- inflammation/degenerative disease

84
Q

Ascites

A

fluid in abdonmial cavity (effusion)

85
Q

Aneurysm

A

ballooning/weakening of an artery

86
Q

Common causes of edema

A
  1. ) increase in hydrostatic pressure
  2. ) decrease in osmotic pressure due to loss of albumin
  3. ) kidney/liver disease
  4. ) lack of protein in diet
87
Q

hydrostatic pressure

A

blood pressure pushes fluid out of vessels

88
Q

osmotic pressure

A
  • water move into vessels due to concentration gradient

- determined by amount of albumin in blood

89
Q

lymph

A

fluid that comes out of blood composed of water, proteins, and white blood cells, that the lymphatic system will return back to blood

90
Q

hemangioma

A

capillaries that divide locally and form a red spot on the skin (painless, benign, won’t grow

91
Q

lymphangioma

A

dilated pass of lymphatics (lump on skin, not red)

92
Q

how does atherosclerosis develop?

A

injury to endothelial cells in arteries which eventually lead to endothelial cell dysfunction

93
Q

what occurs in atherosclerosis?

A
  1. increase in permeability causing accumulation of macrophages and smooth cells
  2. ) lipid accumulation (fatty streaks) and possibly plaque
94
Q

how does atheroscelorsis harm?

A
  1. ) narrows lumen causing ischemia
  2. ) weakens vessels wall causing aneuryam
  3. ) rupturing plaque causing exposure to collagen forming a thrombus
95
Q

what are the complications of atherscelrosis

A
  1. ) coronary arteries can narrow and cause heart attack
  2. )abdominal aorta can develop aneurysm
  3. )arteris of lower limbs can cause decreased blood flow leadng to intermittent claudication
96
Q

what is hypertension

A

high blood pressure above 140/90

97
Q

primary hypertension

A
  • hypertension that is the main problem
  • majority of cases
  • idiopathic
98
Q

secondary hypertension

A
  • hypertension that is due to another disease

- EX: tumor on adrenal causes extra cortisol which increase blood pressure

99
Q

what organ systems are effected by hypertension?

A
  1. ) CNS: more likely to have stroke
  2. ) cardiovascular system
  3. ) kidneys: main cause of dialysis
100
Q

aortic dissection

A
  • tunica media of the aorta splits into two
  • fatal
  • feels like ripping sensation in chest anf dizziness
101
Q

medication for hypertension

A
  1. ) diuretics

2. ) ACE inhibitors

102
Q

diuretics

A

increase urination which decreases cardiac output by lowering mean arterial pressure

103
Q

ACE inhibitors

A
  • cause lower levels of angiotensin 2
  • increases TPR
  • lowers cardiac output by causing less sodium and water retention
104
Q

treatments of hypertension that is not medication

A
  1. ) physical activity
  2. ) diet: reduce sodium, increase fruits and veggies (magnesium and potassium)
    - parts of DASH diet
105
Q

risk factors of atherscelrosis

A
  1. ) major:
    - elevated blood lipids
    - hypertension
    - cigarette smoking
    - diabetes
    - obesity
  2. ) Minor:
    - age
    - gender
    - stress
    - family history
106
Q

venous thrombus

A
  • thrombophlebits
  • clot forming in deep leg veins bc blood os stationary
  • caused by prolonged bed rest, cramped position for long time, genetic factors
107
Q

what is the risk for a venous thrombus?

A

deep vein thrombus: peice of clot comes off and can get into heart causing pulmonary embolsim

108
Q

varicose veins

A
  • dialted, cury veins
  • due to incompetent valve
  • causes: genetics, standing
  • complication: pain and visibility
  • treatment is surgery
109
Q

what is shock

A

failure to maintain adequate blood pressure

110
Q

how is shock manifested?

A
  • decreased blood flow
  • increased heart rate
  • decreased urine output
  • altered state of conscicousness
111
Q

cardiogenic shock

A

pump fails due to heart attach

112
Q

hemorrhagic shock

A

loss of blood volume, usually due to truama

113
Q

anaphylactic shock

A
  • systemic allergic reaction causing WBC’s to release vasodilators everywhere
  • blood pressure drops quickly
114
Q

septic (sepsis) shock

A

-blood infections leading to massive vasodilation

115
Q

treatment of shock

A
  • remove stressor
  • fluids (saline)
  • vasoconstriction agents
  • antibiotics
  • surgically repair beelding arteries
116
Q

where is the mitral valve located?

A

between the left atrium and ventricle

117
Q

where is the tricuspid valve located?

A

between the right atrium and ventricle

118
Q

where is the pulmonary valve located

A

between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery

119
Q

where is the aortic valve located

A

between the left ventricle and aorta

120
Q

angina

A

chest pain

121
Q

cardiomyopathy

A

disorder involving the chambers of the heart

122
Q

valvular stenosis

A

valves doesn’t open all of the way

123
Q

valvular regurgitation

A

valve doesn’t close all the way

124
Q

echcardiography

A

uses ultrasound to see the heart and look for valve and chamber abnormalities

125
Q

angiogram

A

a catheter is placed up the femoral artery and into the heart to view it

126
Q

fibrillation

A

“quivering” of the chambers instead of contractions

127
Q

what are the most common cardiac disorders?

A
  1. ) athersclerosis
  2. ) hypertension heart disease
  3. ) aortic stenosis
  4. ) Afib
  5. ) heart failure
128
Q

signs and symptoms of heart faillure

A
  • fluid build up in lungs and other tissues
  • shortness of breath due to pulmonary edema
  • edema in extremities
129
Q

Chest X-ray

A

can view if there is any fluid in lungs

130
Q

serum enzyme level

A

when cells die via infarct they release enzymes

131
Q

electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG)

A
  • looks at the electrical activity of the heart
  • track rhythm and look arrythmia
  • detect heart attack
132
Q

what is the P wave

A

atrial depolarization

133
Q

what is the QRS complex

A

ventricular depolarization

134
Q

what is the T wave

A

ventricular repolarization

135
Q

atrial and ventricular septal defects

A
  • defect in the septum between the atria and ventricle

- mixes CO2 and O2 blood

136
Q

manifestations of atrial and ventricle septal defects

A
  • murmur
  • easily fatigues
  • heart failure: due to hypertrophy of ventricles
137
Q

defects of Tetralogy of Fallot

A
  1. ) ventricular septum defect
  2. ) pulmonary stenosis: pulmonary valve can’t open all the way
  3. ) hypertrophy of right ventricle
  4. ) overriding aorta: aorta is located above both ventricle
138
Q

manifestations of tetralogy fallot

A
  1. ) cyanosis (blue)
  2. ) slow growth
  3. ) heart failure
  4. )reduced like expectancy
139
Q

pulmonary circuit

A

on the right side of heart

-receives and pumps CO2 blood from body to lungs

140
Q

systemic circuit

A

on left side of heart

-recieves O2 blood from the lungs and pumps it to the body

141
Q

Aortic regurgitation

A
  • most common vavlular disorder
  • leaflets of aortic valve undergo changes that restrict mobility
  • causes left ventricle to work harder resulting in hypertrophy
  • can lead to heart failure
142
Q

Rheumatic Fever (scarlet fever)

A
  • streptococcal bacteria
  • WBC’s invade the
  • valves look like the bacteria so WBC’s attach to valve and cause damage
  • disease does not cause the damage the immune system does
143
Q

what is the most common cause coronary heart disease?

A

arrhythmia’s

144
Q

hypertensive heart disease

A
  • hypertension causes an increase in work load on the heart

- in order for heart to drive blood flow it must overcome the systolic pressure

145
Q

manifestations of hypertension heart disease

A
  • enlarged heart
  • heart failure
  • ischemia
146
Q

Myocardial infarct

A
  • death of cells due to ischemia

- “heart attack”

147
Q

symptoms of Myocardial infarct

A
  • angina
  • sympathetic NS response: increased HR, anxiety, vomiting
  • Hypotension and shock: weakness in arms/legs
148
Q

symptoms of MI in men and women

A

men are more likely to have the symptoms than women

149
Q

diagnosis of MI

A
  1. ) EKG: look to see if in between the S and T wave is abnormal
  2. ) enzyme serum test (creatine kinase, lactase dehydrogenase, and troponin)
  3. ) coronary angiogram
150
Q

treatment of MI

A
  • stent: holds wall of coronary artery open
  • angiopasy: destroys clot
  • cardiac bypass
  • lifestyle changes
151
Q

what is the goal of treatment in MI

A

restore blood flow immediately

152
Q

Bradycardia

A

slow resting heart rate

153
Q

tachycardia

A

increased resting heart rate

154
Q

Atrial Fibrillation

A
  • atria “quivers” instead of contracting
  • blood will stay in the atria
  • increased risk for thrombus
  • caused by a disorganized electrical impulse
155
Q

ventricular fibrillation

A
  • more serious
  • there is no coordination in the electrical impulses at all
  • no blood flow to body
  • need to use paddles to shock and reset the heart
156
Q

dilated cardiomyopathy

A
  • dilation of the chamber
  • causes problem when contracting (systole)
  • muscles too far apart
157
Q

hypertonic cardiomyopathy

A
  • chamber wall thickens
  • chambers can’t hold as much blood
  • can lead to sudden cardiac arrest
  • leading cause of death in young athletes
158
Q

restrictive cardiomyopathy

A
  • chambers are rigid which restricts stretching

- chambers can’t relax and fill with blood (diastolic)

Understanding Human Disease (13 decks)

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