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Clinical Anatomy > Equine Clinical Anatomy Exam > Flashcards

Equine Clinical Anatomy Exam Flashcards

1
Q

List the correct directional terms for 1-11

A
  1. Caudal
  2. Rostral
  3. Proximal
  4. Distal
  5. Cranial (above carpus)
  6. Dorsal (below carpus)
  7. Caudal (above carpus)
  8. Palmar (below carpus)
  9. Cranial (above tarsus)
  10. Dorsal (below tarsus)
  11. Palmar (below tarsus)
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2
Q

What is the veterinary term for hock

A

Tarsus

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3
Q

What is the veterinary term for knee

A

Carpus

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4
Q

What is the veterinary term for the medial splint bone

A

MCII

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5
Q

What is the veterinary term for the cannon bone

A

MCIII

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6
Q

What is the veterinary term for the lateral splint bone

A

MC IV

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7
Q

What is the veterinary term for fetlock or ankle

A

Metacarpo-pharyngeal (ankle)
Torso pharyngeal (fetlock) joint

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8
Q

What is the veterinary term for long pastern bone

A

First phalanx/P1/proximal phalanx

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9
Q

What is the veterinary term for the short pastern bone

A

Second phalanx/P2/proximal phalanx

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10
Q

What is the veterinary term for the coffin bone

A

P3

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11
Q

What are the 4 nerve blocks commonly performed in the foot and forelimb

A
  1. Palmar digital
  2. Abaxial sesamoid
  3. Low 4 point/low palmar
  4. High 4 point/high palmar
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12
Q

What are the 4 common sites of joint injections in the foot and forelimb

A
  1. Distal interphalangeal joint
  2. Metacarpophalangeal joint/fetlock
  3. Middle carpal joint (capus)
  4. Radio carpal joint (carpus)
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13
Q

What are some reasons to do nerve blocks

A
  1. Diagnose lameness
  2. Desensitize area for surgery
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14
Q

What is the correct technique for nerve blocks

A

Needle bevel up and inserted subcutaneously over the nerve

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15
Q

What is the “heel block”

A

Palmar/plantar digital nerve block

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16
Q

What is desensitized in palmar/plantar digital nerve block

A
  1. Palmar/plantar 2/3’s of the foot
    Structures:
  2. Entire sole, navicular structures, distal interphalangeal joint, distal DDFT, distal sesamoidean ligaments
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17
Q

What doesn’t the palmar/plantar digital nerve block

A

Front of fetlock, gets caudal 75% of heel

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18
Q

What is the most common site of lameness

A

Heel

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19
Q

What does the abaxial sesamoid nerve block

A

Foot, P2, proximal interphalangeal joint, distopalmar/plantar aspect of proximal phalanx (P1), distal portions of SDFT and DDFT, distal sesamoidean ligaments and distal annular ligament

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20
Q

What doesn’t the abaxial sesamoid nerve block get

A

Proximal, front of P1 or pastern joint

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21
Q

What is desensitized in the low 4 point/low palmar nerve block

A

Metacarpo/ tarsophalangeal joint and structures distal, distal aspect of suspensory branches

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22
Q

what 4 nerves are you hitting with the 4 point/low palmar nerve block

A
  1. Medial palmar metacarpal nerve
  2. Lateral palmar metacarpal nerve
  3. Medial palmar nerve
  4. Lateral palmar nerve
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23
Q

What does the high 4 point/high palmar nerve block

A
  1. Medial and lateral palmar nerves- DDFT and SDFT
  2. Medial and lateral palmar metacarpal nerves- MC2, MC4, proximal suspensory ligament/origin
  3. All 4 get inferior check ligament
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24
Q

Why would you perform joint injections

A
  1. Tx arthritis
  2. Joint fluid sample to diagnose sepsis
  3. Joint lavage to diagnose communication with wound/laceration
  4. Joint lavage to tx sepsis
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25
Q

What is desensitized in the distal interphalangeal joint block

A
  1. Joint
  2. Navicular bursa
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26
Q

What is desensitized in the metacarpo/ tarsophalangeal joint block

A

Joint, fetlock

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27
Q

What bones make up the carpus

A

Proximal row: radial, intermediate and ulnar

Distal: 2-4

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28
Q

What are the 3 joints in the carpus

A
  1. Radiocarpal
  2. Middle/inter carpal joint
  3. Carpometocarpal
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29
Q

What two joints in the carpus communicate with each other

A

Middle/intercarpal and the carpomemetcarpal

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30
Q

Carpus- label 1-9

A
  1. Intermediate carpal bone
  2. Ulnar carpal bone
  3. 4th carpal bone
  4. Radial carpal bone
  5. 3rd carpal bone
  6. 2nd carpal bone
  7. Radiocarpal joint
  8. Middle/intercarpal joint
  9. Carpometacarpal joint
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31
Q

Carpus- label 1-9

A
  1. Accessory bone (lateral)
  2. 4th carpal bone
  3. 4th metacarpal bone
  4. Intermediate carpal bone
  5. Ulnar carpal bone
  6. Third carpal bone
  7. Radiocarpal joint
  8. Middle/intercarpal joint
  9. Carpometacarpal joint
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32
Q

Carpus label 1-4

A
  1. Radial carpal bone
  2. 3rd carpal bone
  3. Accessory carpal bone
  4. Second carpal bone

*medial view

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33
Q

What is desensitized in the Radiocarpal joint injection block

A

Radiocarpal joint ONLY- does not communicate with other joints

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34
Q

What is desensitized in the middle/intercarpal joint block

A
  1. Middle/intercarpal joint
  2. Carpometacarpal joint
    **both are blocked because these two joints communicate
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35
Q

What suspends P3

A

Epidermal and dermal laminae

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36
Q

What is the purpose of the laminae/equine foot during locomotion

A

Shock absorption

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37
Q

Which lamina in the foot is attached to the hoof wall

A

Epidermal laminae

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38
Q

Which lamina is attached to P3

A

Dermal laminae

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39
Q

Label 1-6

A
  1. Extensor tendon
  2. Coronary band
  3. Laminae
  4. DDFT
  5. Lateral cartilage
  6. Heel bulb
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40
Q

What is laminitis

A

Inflammation/ degeneration of the laminae

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41
Q

What are the two types of laminitis

A
  1. Rotation of P3 (more common)
  2. Sinking of P3 within the hoof capsule
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42
Q

What causes rotation of P3 in laminitis

A

Laminae on the dorsal midline of the toe die

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43
Q

What causes the sinking of P3 within the hoof capsule in laminitis

A

Laminae die circumferentially

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44
Q

What is the most common cause of acute lameness

A

Laminitis

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45
Q

Which X-ray is normal and which shows laminitis and how do you know?

A

Left: normal
Right: laminitis

Right photo P3 is detached from laminae resulting in sharper angle and the lines from hoof wall and P3 intersect, in normal patients they would be parallel

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46
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic forelimb lameness

A

Navicular disease

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47
Q

What is navicular disease

A

Chronic degeneration of the navicular bone

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48
Q

Navicular disease involves what 4 things

A
  1. Loss of medullary architecture with subsequent synovial invagination (lollipops on X-ray)
  2. Bone sclerosis with damage to fibrocartilage on flexor surface
  3. Traumatic fibrillation of DDFT
  4. Entesiophyte formation
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49
Q

Identify 1-3

A
  1. Navicular one
  2. DDFT
  3. Navicular bursa
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50
Q

what is wrong here and which is normal vs abnormal

A

Navicular disease, top=normal, bottom= navicular disease

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51
Q

What is wrong here, which is normal vs abnormal and how do you know

A

left: normal
Right: abnormal
Loss of medullary architecture and increase synovial invaginations- loop like lollipops and damaged flexor surface

Intact flexor surface should be smooth so DDFT can slide over

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52
Q

what is wrong here and what is indicated by 1-2

A

Navicular disease
1. Enthesiphyte
2. Synovial invagination (lollipop)

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53
Q

What is wrong here and what is indicated by 1-2

A

navicular disease
1. Edema of navicular bone
2. Normal joint fluid

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54
Q

T or F: penetrating wounds of the foot are always considered life threatening

A

True

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55
Q

What structure might be damaged by the nail

A

DDFT

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56
Q

What structures can be affected by penetrating wounds of the foot (7)

A
  1. Ungual/collateral cartilage
  2. Digital flexor tendon sheath
  3. DDFT
  4. Navicular bursa
  5. Navicular bone
  6. Distal interphalangeal joint
  7. P3
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57
Q

Out of the 7 structures that can get damaged via penetrating wounds of the foot, what 3 are of big concern due to the presence of synovial fluid and why does that increase the concern

A
  1. Digital flexor tendon sheath
  2. Navicular bursa
  3. Distal interphalangeal joint

Concern because perfect medium for bacteria

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58
Q

What trajectory of the penetrating wound is typically worse and why (what structure does it pass through externally)

A

Through the frog because increase likelihood of hitting DDFT and navicular

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59
Q

What is desmitis

A

Inflammation of the ligament

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60
Q

How long does it take tendinitis/tendon injuries to heal

A

6 months

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61
Q

How long does it take for desmitis/ligament injuries to heal

A

8 months

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62
Q

Identify 1-3

A
  1. Suspensory ligament
  2. Sesamoid bones
  3. Distal sesamoidean ligament
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63
Q

The following is an ultrasound of equine distal forelimb, identify 1-4. Ultrasound is taken from caudal aspect

A
  1. SDF
  2. DDF
  3. check ligament
  4. Suspensory ligament
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64
Q

the following is an ultrasound of distal equine forelimb taken from caudal aspect, what is the problem. Label top and bottom structures

A

Problem: superficial digital flexor tendinitis- hematoma in the tendon
Top: SDFT
Bottom: DDFT

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65
Q

The following MRI was taken, what is the problem and which is normal vs abnormal. Also identify #1

A

Problem: deep digital flexor tendinitis
Left: normal
Right: DDF tendinitis

  1. DDFT
66
Q

The following MRI was taken of the distal limb, what is the problem and which image is normal vs abnormal

Also identify 1-4

A
  1. Cannon bone
  2. Suspensory ligament
  3. DDFT
  4. SDFT
    Left: normal
    Right:Problem: suspensory ligament desmitis/tear
67
Q

The following is an MRI of suspensory ligament desmitis, identify 1-2 and what structures are being compressed by the suspensory ligament

A
  1. Suspensory ligament
  2. Vein, artery and nerve

Vein, artery and nerve are being compressed by suspensory ligament

68
Q

The following is an ultrasound of suspensory ligament desmitis, identify 1-5

A
  1. SDFT
  2. DDFT
  3. Check ligament
  4. Tear of suspensory ligament
  5. Suspensory ligament
69
Q

The following images are a result of laceration to the distal limb, identify what structures are torn in 1-3

A
  1. SDFT
  2. SFDT and DDFT
  3. SFDT, DDFT, and superficial ligament
70
Q

Patient presents to you with a dropped fetlock, what structure is lacerated in the distal limb

71
Q

Patient presents to you with a dropped fetlock and their toe flipped up, what structures are lacerated in the distal limb

A

SFDT and DDFT

*DDFT inserts on p3

72
Q

What structure does DDFT insert on

73
Q

A patient presents to you with entire plantar surface of limb on the ground, they are walking on their ankle, what structures are torn

A

SDFT, DDFT, SL

74
Q

What are the 6 common sites of joint injections in the hindlimb

A
  1. Tarsometatarsal
  2. Distal intertarsal joint
  3. Tibiotarsal joint
  4. Femoropatellar joint
  5. Medial femorotibial joint
  6. Lateral femorotibial joint
75
Q

What 9 bones make up the tarsus

A
  1. Distal tibia
  2. Calcaneus
  3. Sustentaculum tali
  4. Talus (medial and lateral trochlea)
  5. Central tarsal bone
  6. 3rd tarsal bone
  7. 4th tarsal bone
  8. Fused 1st and 2nd tarsal bones
  9. Proximal 2-4 metatarsal bones
76
Q

tarsus- identify 1-8

A
  1. Tibia
  2. Talus
  3. 4th tarsal bone
  4. Fourth metatarsal bone
  5. Central tarsal bone
  6. 3rd tarsal bone
  7. Second metatarsal bone
  8. Third metatarsal bone
77
Q

Identify 1-9 on the tarsus

A
  1. Tibia
  2. Talus
  3. 3rd tarsal bone
  4. Third metacarpal bone
  5. Calcaneous bone
  6. Central tarsal bone
  7. First and 2nd fused tarsal bones
  8. 4th metatarsal bone
  9. Second metatarsal bone
78
Q

What are the 4 joints of the tarsus

A
  1. Tibiotarsal
  2. Proximal intertarsal
  3. Distal intertarsal
  4. Tarsometatarsal
79
Q

What two joints in the tarsus communicate

A

Tibiotarsal and proximal intertarsal

80
Q

Identify the red, green, blue and purple joint spaces

A
  1. Tibiotarsal (tarocrural)
  2. Proximal intertarsal
  3. Distal intertarsal
  4. Tarsometatarsal
81
Q

identify 1-11

A
  1. Calcanean tuber
  2. Sustentaculum tali
  3. Metatarsal II and IV
  4. Central tarsal bone
  5. 4th tarsal bone
  6. Medial trochlear ridge
  7. 3rd tarsal bone
  8. Fused 1st and 2nd tarsals
  9. Lateral trochlear ridge
  10. Metatarsal III
  11. Chestnut
82
Q

What is desensitized in Tarsometatarsal joint injection

83
Q

What is desensitized int he distal intertarsal joint injection

84
Q

What is desensitized in the Tibiotarsal/tarsocrural joint

A
  1. Tibiotarsal joint
  2. Proximal intertarsal joint
    **these two communicate
85
Q

What bones make up the stifle

A
  1. Patella
  2. Distal femur (medial and trochlear ridges)
  3. Tibia
86
Q

What 5 soft tissue structures make up the stifle

A
  1. Medial patellar ligament
  2. Middle patellar ligament
  3. Lateral patellar ligament
  4. Medial collateral ligament
  5. Lateral collateral ligament
87
Q

What 3 joints make up the stifle

A
  1. Femoropatellar
  2. Medial femorotibial
  3. Lateral femorotibial
88
Q

Identify 1-6

A
  1. Femur
  2. Medial trochlear ridge
    3, medial patellar ligament
  3. Patella
  4. Lateral patellar ligament
  5. Lateral femorotibial ligament
89
Q

Identify 1-4

A
  1. Medial femorotibial ligament
  2. Medial trochlear ridge
  3. Medial patellar ligament
  4. Middle patellar ligament
90
Q

What is desensitized in the Femoropatellar joint injection

A
  1. Femoropatellar joint
  2. Medial femorotibial joint (communicates with Femoropatellar in 65% of horses)
  3. Lateral femorotibial joint
91
Q

What is desensitized in the medial femorotibial joint injection

A
  1. Femoropatellar joint
  2. Medial femorotibial joint (communicates in 65% of horses)
92
Q

What is desensitized in the lateral femorotibial joint injection

A

Lateral femorotibial joint

93
Q

What has to be done to diagnose degenerative joint disease/arthritis

A

Radiographs

94
Q

What is the most common site of DJD in horses

A
  1. Distal intertarsal joint
  2. Tarsometatarsal joints
95
Q

What radiographic abnormalities are seen in DJD

A
  1. Osteophytes
  2. Enthesiophytes
  3. Joint space thinning
  4. Subchondral bone sclerosis (more opaque)
  5. Periosteal proliferation
  6. Subchondral bone lysis
  7. Anklyosis (joint fusion)
96
Q

What is the difference between an osteophyte and an enthesiophyte

A

Osteophyte is an extra bone produced at edge of joint

Enthesiophytes is soft tissue

97
Q

Identify 1-6

A
  1. Tibia
  2. Tibiotarsal joint
  3. Proximal intertarsal joint
  4. Distal intertarsal joint
  5. Tarsometatarsal joint
  6. Cannon bone
98
Q

What is the problem here and at what joint in the tarsus

A

Distal tarsal joint osteoarthritis

99
Q

Identify what structures are torn in the hind limb from left to right

A

Left: Normal
Middle: gastrocnemius
Right: Superficial digital flexor and gastrocnemius

100
Q

When inserting a nasogastric tube, what surface do you want to be on, dorsal or ventral

101
Q

What structures are most likely to bleed when inserting a nasogastric tube

A

Ethmoid turbinates

102
Q

At what section of the neck is it best to do a jugular vein puncture and why

A

Upper neck, jugular vein and common carotid artery are farthest apart

103
Q

How many paranasal sinuses does a horse have

104
Q

What are the 6 paranasal sinuses

A
  1. Frontal
  2. Maxillary- rostral and caudal compartment
  3. Sphenopalantine
  4. Dorsal conchal
  5. Middle conchal
  6. Ventral concha
105
Q

What are the 2 clinically relevant paranasal sinuses

A

Frontal and maxillary

106
Q

What do the following images indicate, patient presents with a nose bleed

A

Frontal sinus- ethmoid hematoma

107
Q

What are some symptoms of an ethmoid hematoma

A
  1. Mild, intermittent unilateral epistaxis
  2. Smooth, glistening greenish surface
108
Q

What divides the rostral and caudal compartments of the maxillary sinuses

A

Osseous septa

109
Q

What roots communicate with the maxillary sinus in the rostral compartment

110
Q

What roots communicate with the maxillary sinus in the caudal compartment

A

110/210, 111/211

111
Q

What do tooth root infections cause

A

Secondary sinusitis

112
Q

What is the guttural pouch an extension of

A

Eustachian tubes

113
Q

What does the guttural pouch connect

A

Pharynx to the middle ear

114
Q

What is the capacity (mL) o the guttural pouch

A

472 +/- 12mL

115
Q

What are the 5 theorized functions of the guttural pouch

A
  1. Pressure equilibration across tympanic membrane
  2. Warming of inhaled air
  3. Resonating chamber for vocalization
  4. Floatation device
  5. Brain cooling
116
Q

Identify 1-3

A
  1. Eustachian tube
  2. Pharyngeal opening of Eustachian tube
  3. Guttural pouch
117
Q

The guttural pouch is divided into medial and lateral compartments by __

A

Stylohyoid bind

118
Q

Which guttural pouch compartment has greater capacity, medial or lateral

119
Q

What is indicated in red

A

guttural pouch

120
Q

The guttural pouch communicates with the pharynx through the ____ of the Eustachian tube

A

Nasopharyngeal orifice

121
Q

Clinical signs of disease in the guttural pouch are referable to injury of specific ___ and ___

A

Nerves and arteries

122
Q

Identify 1-4

A
  1. Guttural pouch
    2, blood vessels
  2. Cranial nerves- IX
  3. Stylohyoid bone
123
Q

What artery lies on the wall of the lateral compartment of the guttural pouch

A

External carotid artery

124
Q

What structures are contained in the fold of mucous membrane along the caudal wall of the medial compartment of the guttural pouch (4)

A
  1. Internal carotid artery
  2. CN IX
  3. CN X
  4. CN XI
  5. CN XII
125
Q

Patient presents with dysphasia, you suspect damage to the guttural pouch, what nerves are damaged

A

CN IX, CN XII

126
Q

Patient presents with facial paralysis, you suspect damage to the guttural pouch, what nerve is damage

127
Q

Identify 1-9

A
  1. Lateral compartment
  2. External carotid artery
  3. Stylohyoid bone
  4. Stylopharyngeus muscle
  5. CN IX
  6. CN XII
  7. CN X
  8. Internal carotid artery
  9. Medial compartment
128
Q

What is guttural pouch mycosis

A

Fungal infection of guttural pouch with aspergillus spp.

129
Q

T or F: guttural pouch mycosis is a unilateral disease

130
Q

What is the problem

A

guttural pouch mycosis

131
Q

T or F: guttural pouch mycosis is severe, often fatal bilateral epistaxis

132
Q

Identify 1-6

A
  1. Oropharynx
  2. Hard palate
  3. Soft palate
  4. Oral cavity
  5. Tongue
  6. Trachea
133
Q

Identify 1-5

A
  1. Laryngopharynx
  2. Esophageal entrance
  3. Vestibule
  4. Glottis
  5. Infraglottic cavity
134
Q

Identify 1-9

A
  1. Articulations with Stylohyoid
  2. Epiglottic cartilages
  3. Ceratohyoid
  4. Lingual process of basihyoid
  5. Thyrohyoid
  6. Thyroid cartilage
  7. Artyenoid cartilage
  8. Cricoid cartilage
  9. Tracheal cartilages
135
Q

Identify 1-6

A
  1. Aryepiglottic fold
  2. Vocal folds
  3. Soft palate
  4. Artyenoid
  5. Laryngeal saccule
  6. Epiglottis
136
Q

What is laryngeal hemiplegia

A

Laryngeal paralysis (one side)

137
Q

Patient presents with laryngeal hemiplegia and upon endoscopic view the you notice it is abducted (away from midline), what structures are damaged

A
  1. Cricoartyenoideus dorsalis
  2. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
138
Q

What is wrong

A

Laryngeal hemiplegia

139
Q

What nerve block is this

A

Palmar/plantar digital nerve block (aka heel block)

140
Q

What nerve block is this

A

Abaxial sesamoid nerve bloc

141
Q

What nerve block is this

A

Low 4 point/low palmar nerve block

142
Q

What nerve block is this

A

High 4 point/high palmar nerve block

143
Q

What joint is this in

A

distal interphalangeal joint

144
Q

What joint is this in

A

Metacarpo/ tarsophalangeal joint

145
Q

What joint is this in- red circle

A

radiocarpal

146
Q

What joint is this in

A

Middle/intercarpal joint

147
Q

What joint is this in

A

Tarsometatarsal

148
Q

What joint is this in

A

Distal intertarsal joint

149
Q

What joint is this in

A

Tibiotarsal/tarsocrural joint

150
Q

What joint is this in

A

Femoropatellar

151
Q

What joint is this in

A

Medial femorotibial joint

152
Q

What joint is this in

A

Lateral femorotibial joint

153
Q

Identify 1-4 (medial view)

A
  1. Medial palmar nerve
  2. Medial digital nerve
  3. Medial palmar nerve and vessels
  4. Medial palmar metacarpal nerve
154
Q

From palmar to dorsal order: artery, nerve, and vein

A

Palmar: nerve—> artery—> vein (most dorsal)

155
Q

medial view, SDFT removed, label 1-3

A
  1. DDFT
  2. Median palmar nerve, artery, vein
  3. Median digital nerve, artery, vein
156
Q

lateral view, label 1

A
  1. Lateral palmar nerve
157
Q

Label 1-3

A
  1. Radiocarpal joint
  2. Middle carpal joint
    3, Carpometacarpal joint
158
Q

Identify 1-4

A
  1. Distal phalanx/P3, coffin bone
  2. Proximal phalanx/P1long pastern bone
  3. Middle phalanx/P2/short pastern bone
  4. Navicular bone
159
Q

identify 1-3

A
  1. DDFT
  2. Navicular bursa
  3. Navicular bone
160
Q

Identify 1-2

A
  1. Proximal sesamoid bones
  2. Navicular bone
161
Q

identify 1-7

A
  1. SDFT
  2. DDFT
  3. Check ligament
  4. Suspensory ligament
  5. Metacarpophalngeal joint (fetlock)
  6. Proximal interphalangeal joint (pastern)
  7. Distal interphalangeal joint (coffin joint)
162
Q

Identify 1-8

A
  1. MC III- cannon bone
  2. MC II or IV- splint bones
  3. Carpal bones 2-4 (2 medial, 4 lateral)
  4. Radial carpal bone
  5. Intermediate carpal bone
  6. Ulnar carpal bone
  7. Accessory carpal bone
  8. Radius

Clinical Anatomy (16 decks)

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