Disorders of Childhood I and II (lecture) Flashcards

1
Q

What sequelae are associated with congenital rubella?

A

Caataracts, heart defects, hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is associated with congenital thalidomide exposure?

A

Limb malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What sequelae are associated with fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Facial dysmorphism, growth retardation, CNS (behavioral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What sequelae are associated with diabetic moms?

A

Caudal regression, Nural tube defects, CVD, macrosomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the underlying cause of respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Surfactant deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What two side effects are associated with O2 given to RDS?

A

Retinopathy and Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is germinal matrix hemorrhage?

A

BlVentricular blleding a/w prematurity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is associated with enteral feeding?

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the acronym TORCH stand for?

A
Toxoplasmosis
Other (syphilis, HIV, VZV, parvovirus B19, enterovirus)
Rubella
CMV
HSV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two classifications of fetal hydrops?

A

Immune and non immune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most common cause of immune hydrops?

A

Blood group incompatibility between mom and fetus - mom Rh - and baby Rh +, or ABO incompatibility (uncommon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is required for immune hydrops to happen?

A

Mom must have antibodies against the baby’s blood type, so it is uncommon in first pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the pathophysiology of fetal hepatosplenomegaly in immune hydrops?

A

Hemolysis of fetal RBCs leads to extra medullary hematopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Baby is still birth with prominent fluid retention around the neck. Histology reveals intranuclear inclusions and a left shift of RBCs. What is the most likely causal organism?

A

Parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis?

A

Mutation in the CFTR results in a disfunction of Cl- transport across membranes. This results in a loss of Na+ transport also. Where Na goes (or doesn’t go), water follows. In CF this results in a mucous dehydration and plugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What male repro abnormality is associated with cystic fibrosis?

A

Congenital absence of vas deferens

17
Q

What is the most common cause of death in cystic fibrosis patients?

A

Cardiorespiratory

18
Q

What is the age cap of SIDS?

19
Q

What two behavioral modifications reduce the likelihood of SIDS?

A

Stop maternal smoking and back to sleep

20
Q

4 month old who dies in the middle of the night. Mother is smoker. Baby sleeps in the prone position. Intrathoracic petechiae are found on autopsy. What is the likely Dx?

21
Q

Baby born with a low APGAR. Placenta shows green staining, which is also found in the baby’s nail beds. Placenta histo shows macrophages that are also stained green. Dx?

A

Meconium aspiration

22
Q

2 week old baby who has yet to have a bowel movement. X-ray shows a bowel that is proximally distended and distally small in diameter. What is the most likely diagnosis, the gene and syndrome with which it associated, cause, and treatment?

A

Hirschsprung is associated with Down and RET mutations and is caused by a lack of ganglion cells to the bowel, surgical removal of the affected bowel.

23
Q

What is the pneumonic for DiGeorge syndrome?

A
CATHCH-22
Cardiac abnormalities
Abnormal facies
Thymic aplasia
Cleft palate
Hypocalcemia
22q11 del
24
Q

What is the most common congenital cause of cyanotic heart disease?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

25
Q

Baby is found to have a polycystic kidney and hepatic fibrosis. What is the probable Dx and gene related to this?

A

Autosomal recessive PKD - PKDH1 gene

26
Q

What is the rule of 2s for meckel’s diverticulum?

A
2% of population
within 2 feet of the ileocecal valve
2 inches long
2 x M:F ratio
symptoms by 2 y.o.
27
Q

What is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in kids

A

Intussusception

28
Q

4 week old male with non bilious vomit and a small palpable mass in the epigastric region. Dx?

A

Pyloric stenosis

29
Q

Newborn who vomits after every feeding. An attempt to pass an NG tube fails. What is the most common form of this condition?

A

Tracheoesophageal fistula - the most common form is a blind upper esophagus and fistula between the lower esophagus and trachea.
May also present with choking and aspiration of food if fistula between complete esophagus and trachea exists.

30
Q

10 y.o. with a major rash, heart murmur, CNS issues and a hypo echoic mass on the kidney. Dx?

A

Tuberous sclerosis

31
Q

What is the most common location of a brain tumor in a kid?

A

Supratentorial

32
Q

What is the most common form of brain tumor in kids?

A

Astrocytoma

33
Q

3 y.o. with increased HVA and VMA in urine. Imaging shows adrenal medulla is enlarged. What is the Dx and gene related to it?

A

Neuroblastoma, N-myc amplification

34
Q

What classifies a IVS stage of neuroblastoma?

A

Congenital neuroblastoma with mets confined to liver, skin, and/or bone marrow. NO N-myc amplification

35
Q

What are the components of WAGR syndrome?

A

Wilms tumor
Aniridia
GU abnormalities
Retardation (mental)

36
Q

Kid with Gigantism, Macroglossia, Visceromegaly, Omphalocele, and Umbilical hernia. Name the syndrome…

A

Beckwith-Wekdemann

37
Q

15 y.o. with pain and a mass of the distal femur. X-ray shows sclerosing of the bone, periosteal bone formation, cortical bone destruction, and soft tissue extension. Dx and prognosis…

A

Osteosarcoma - 80% five year survival